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Pediatrics (RM) > Test 3: Respiratory Practice > Flashcards

Test 3: Respiratory Practice Flashcards

1
Q

One of the more serious sequelae of strep throat; an inflammatory disease of the heart, joints, and CNS.

A

Acute rheumatic fever

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2
Q

Adenoids; located above the palatine tonsils on the posterior wall of the nasopharynx.

A

pharyngeal tonsils

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3
Q

One of the more serious sequelae of strep throat; an acute kidney infection.

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

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4
Q

Removal of the adenoids; recommended for those children in whom hypertrophied adenoids obstruct nasal breathing.

A

adenoidectomy

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5
Q

The mass of lymphoid tissue that encircles the nasal and oral pharynx.

A

Waldeyer tonsillar ring

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6
Q

Consists of the alveoli, bronchi, and bronchioles ( the reactive portion on the airway with smooth muscle and the ability to constrict).

A

lower respiratory tract

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7
Q

Faucial tonsils; located on either side of the oropharynx, behind and below the pillars of the fauces; usually visible during oral examination; removed during tonsillectomy.

A

Palatine tonsils

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8
Q

A slide test of high specificity for the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

A

Spot test (Monospot)

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9
Q

Consists primarily of the nose and pharynx; upper airway.

A

Upper respiratory tract

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10
Q

Removal of the palatine tonsils; indicated for massive hypertrophy that results in difficulty breathing or eating.

A

tonsillectomy

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11
Q

Also known as the pharyngeal tonsils.

A

adenoids

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12
Q

Major changes in viruses that occur at the intervals of years (usually 5 t0 10).

A

antigenic shift

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13
Q

A virus; the principal cause of infectious mononucleosis.

A

Epstein-Barr (EB)

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14
Q

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS) infection of the upper airway.

A

Strep throat

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15
Q

Located at the base of the tongue.

A

lingual tonsils

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16
Q

Minor variations in viruses that occur almost annually.

A

antigenic drift

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17
Q

Determines the extent to which the patient’s serum will agglutinate sheep red blood cells; used to diagnose infectious mononucleosis (titer of 1:160 required for diagnosis); rapid sensitive, inexpensive, and easy to perform.

A

heterophil antibody test

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18
Q

Found near the posterior nasopharyngeal opening of the eustachian tubes; not a part of the Waldeyer tonsillar ring.

A

tubal tonsils

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19
Q

An inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid otoscopy; characterized by perforation and discharge (otorrhea) lasting up to 6 weeks.

A

chronic supportive otitis media

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20
Q

Assess the mobility of the tympanic membrane, using air transmission.

A

pneumatic otoscopy

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21
Q

Middle ear inflammation with rapid and short onset of signs and symptoms lasting approximately 3 weeks.

A

Acute Otitis Media (AOM)

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22
Q

Infection of the inner ear.

A

labyrinthitis

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23
Q

One of the least common but potentially most dangerous sequelae of OME; the formation of a keratinized epithelial cell lining that forms scales within the middle ear space; erodes all of the structures it encounters; especially bone.

A

cholesteatoma

24
Q

An inflammation of the middle ear w/o reference to etiology or pathogenesis.

A

otitis media

25
Q

Eardrum scarring; the deposition of hyaline material into the fibrous layer of the tympanic membrane; associated with repeated inflammatory AOM or with repeated tympanoplasty tube placement.

A

tympanosclerosis

26
Q

Infection of the mastoid sinus.

A

mastoiditis

27
Q

One of the consequences of prolonged middle ear disorder, usually conductive and not severe.

A

hearing loss

28
Q

A thickening of the mucous membrane by proliferation of fibrous tissue that can cause fixation of the ossicles with resultant hearing loss; sometimes called “glue ear”.

A

adhesive otitis media

29
Q

A suppurative intracranial complication from the extension of a middle ear or mastoid infection.

A

meningitis

30
Q

Middle ear effusion that persists beyond 3 months

A

chronic otitis media with effusion

31
Q

A common complication of AOM; often accompanies chronic disease; a complication of tympanoplasty tube placement.

A

eardrum perforation

32
Q

Retraction pocket; occurs wen continued negative middle ear pressure draws the tympanic membrane inward; may result in impaired sound transmission

A

tympanic membrane retraction

33
Q

The test to assess mobility of the tympanic membrane using sound transmission.

A

tympanometry

34
Q

Inflammation of the middle ear in which a collection of fluid is present in the middle ear space.

A

otitis media with effusion (OME)

35
Q

Otitis externa; inflammation that occurs when the external ear environment is altered during swimming, bathing, or conditions of increased humidity.

A

swimmer’s ear

36
Q

Result that usually means the child has never been infected with the organism.

A

negative reaction TB skin test

37
Q

Responsible for at least 50% of children admitted for bronchiolitis.

A

RSV (Respiratory syncytial virus)

38
Q

Aspiration of lavaged contents from the fasting stomach; the best means for obtaining material for respiratory smears or culture.

A

gastric washings

39
Q

The type of pneumonia in which the inflammatory process is confined within the alveolar walls and the peribronchial and interlobular tissues.

A

interstitial pneumonia

40
Q

Nebulized epinephrine; used in children with stridor at rest, retactions, or difficulty breathing

A

racemic epinephrine

41
Q

Meningeal symptoms

A

meningism

42
Q

A symptom complex characterized by hoarseness, a resonant cough described as “barking” or “brassy”, inspiratory stridor, and respiratory distress from swelling in the region of the larynx.

A

croup

43
Q

Includes the bronchi and bronchioles in children because cartilaginous support of the large airways is not fully developed until adolescence.

A

reactive portion of the lungs

44
Q

Formed by epithelial cells surrounding and encapsulating multiplying bacilli in an attempt to wall off the invading organisms

A

tubercle

45
Q

The type of pneumonia that begins in the terminal bronchioles, which become clogged with mucopurulent exudates to form consolidated patches in the nearby lobule.

A

bronchopneumonia

46
Q

An antiviral agent; may be used to treat RSV.

A

Ribavirin

47
Q

Progressive overinflation of the lung caused by obstruction of the small airway passages, which prevents air from leaving the lungs.

A

emphysema

48
Q

Used widely; standard dose is 5 tuberculin units in 0.1 mL of solution, injected intradermally; Mantoux test.

A

PPD (Purified Protein Derivative)

49
Q

Widespread dissemination of the tubercle bacillus to near and distant sites.

A

Miliary TB

50
Q

Result that indicates a person has been infected; does not confirm the presence of active disease.

A

positive reaction TB skin test

51
Q

The type of pneumonia in which all or a large segment of one or more pulmonary lobes is involved; known as “bilateral” or “double pneumonia” when both lungs are affected.

A

lobar pneumonial

52
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus immune globulin; has been used prophylactically to prevent RSV in high-risk infants.

A

RespiGam

53
Q

The inflammation of the large airways, which is frequently associated with an upper respiratory infection; primarily caused by viral agents

A

tracheobronchitis

54
Q

The localized acute inflammation of the lung w/o the toxemia associated with lobar pneumonia.

A

pneumonitis

55
Q

Manifested by a positive skin test; asymptomatic

A

TB infection

56
Q

The single most important test to determine whether a child has been infected with the tubercle bacillus.

A

Tuberculin test

57
Q

Diagnosed by positive chest radiograph, positive sputum culture, and presence of signs of the disease.

A

TB disease

Pediatrics (RM) (27 decks)

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