Test 3: Respiratory Practice Flashcards

1
Q

One of the more serious sequelae of strep throat; an inflammatory disease of the heart, joints, and CNS.

A

Acute rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Adenoids; located above the palatine tonsils on the posterior wall of the nasopharynx.

A

pharyngeal tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

One of the more serious sequelae of strep throat; an acute kidney infection.

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Removal of the adenoids; recommended for those children in whom hypertrophied adenoids obstruct nasal breathing.

A

adenoidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The mass of lymphoid tissue that encircles the nasal and oral pharynx.

A

Waldeyer tonsillar ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Consists of the alveoli, bronchi, and bronchioles ( the reactive portion on the airway with smooth muscle and the ability to constrict).

A

lower respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Faucial tonsils; located on either side of the oropharynx, behind and below the pillars of the fauces; usually visible during oral examination; removed during tonsillectomy.

A

Palatine tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A slide test of high specificity for the diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

A

Spot test (Monospot)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Consists primarily of the nose and pharynx; upper airway.

A

Upper respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Removal of the palatine tonsils; indicated for massive hypertrophy that results in difficulty breathing or eating.

A

tonsillectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Also known as the pharyngeal tonsils.

A

adenoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Major changes in viruses that occur at the intervals of years (usually 5 t0 10).

A

antigenic shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A virus; the principal cause of infectious mononucleosis.

A

Epstein-Barr (EB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS) infection of the upper airway.

A

Strep throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Located at the base of the tongue.

A

lingual tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Minor variations in viruses that occur almost annually.

A

antigenic drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Determines the extent to which the patient’s serum will agglutinate sheep red blood cells; used to diagnose infectious mononucleosis (titer of 1:160 required for diagnosis); rapid sensitive, inexpensive, and easy to perform.

A

heterophil antibody test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Found near the posterior nasopharyngeal opening of the eustachian tubes; not a part of the Waldeyer tonsillar ring.

A

tubal tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid otoscopy; characterized by perforation and discharge (otorrhea) lasting up to 6 weeks.

A

chronic supportive otitis media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Assess the mobility of the tympanic membrane, using air transmission.

A

pneumatic otoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Middle ear inflammation with rapid and short onset of signs and symptoms lasting approximately 3 weeks.

A

Acute Otitis Media (AOM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Infection of the inner ear.

A

labyrinthitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

One of the least common but potentially most dangerous sequelae of OME; the formation of a keratinized epithelial cell lining that forms scales within the middle ear space; erodes all of the structures it encounters; especially bone.

A

cholesteatoma

24
Q

An inflammation of the middle ear w/o reference to etiology or pathogenesis.

A

otitis media

25
Eardrum scarring; the deposition of hyaline material into the fibrous layer of the tympanic membrane; associated with repeated inflammatory AOM or with repeated tympanoplasty tube placement.
tympanosclerosis
26
Infection of the mastoid sinus.
mastoiditis
27
One of the consequences of prolonged middle ear disorder, usually conductive and not severe.
hearing loss
28
A thickening of the mucous membrane by proliferation of fibrous tissue that can cause fixation of the ossicles with resultant hearing loss; sometimes called "glue ear".
adhesive otitis media
29
A suppurative intracranial complication from the extension of a middle ear or mastoid infection.
meningitis
30
Middle ear effusion that persists beyond 3 months
chronic otitis media with effusion
31
A common complication of AOM; often accompanies chronic disease; a complication of tympanoplasty tube placement.
eardrum perforation
32
Retraction pocket; occurs wen continued negative middle ear pressure draws the tympanic membrane inward; may result in impaired sound transmission
tympanic membrane retraction
33
The test to assess mobility of the tympanic membrane using sound transmission.
tympanometry
34
Inflammation of the middle ear in which a collection of fluid is present in the middle ear space.
otitis media with effusion (OME)
35
Otitis externa; inflammation that occurs when the external ear environment is altered during swimming, bathing, or conditions of increased humidity.
swimmer's ear
36
Result that usually means the child has never been infected with the organism.
negative reaction TB skin test
37
Responsible for at least 50% of children admitted for bronchiolitis.
RSV (Respiratory syncytial virus)
38
Aspiration of lavaged contents from the fasting stomach; the best means for obtaining material for respiratory smears or culture.
gastric washings
39
The type of pneumonia in which the inflammatory process is confined within the alveolar walls and the peribronchial and interlobular tissues.
interstitial pneumonia
40
Nebulized epinephrine; used in children with stridor at rest, retactions, or difficulty breathing
racemic epinephrine
41
Meningeal symptoms
meningism
42
A symptom complex characterized by hoarseness, a resonant cough described as "barking" or "brassy", inspiratory stridor, and respiratory distress from swelling in the region of the larynx.
croup
43
Includes the bronchi and bronchioles in children because cartilaginous support of the large airways is not fully developed until adolescence.
reactive portion of the lungs
44
Formed by epithelial cells surrounding and encapsulating multiplying bacilli in an attempt to wall off the invading organisms
tubercle
45
The type of pneumonia that begins in the terminal bronchioles, which become clogged with mucopurulent exudates to form consolidated patches in the nearby lobule.
bronchopneumonia
46
An antiviral agent; may be used to treat RSV.
Ribavirin
47
Progressive overinflation of the lung caused by obstruction of the small airway passages, which prevents air from leaving the lungs.
emphysema
48
Used widely; standard dose is 5 tuberculin units in 0.1 mL of solution, injected intradermally; Mantoux test.
PPD (Purified Protein Derivative)
49
Widespread dissemination of the tubercle bacillus to near and distant sites.
Miliary TB
50
Result that indicates a person has been infected; does not confirm the presence of active disease.
positive reaction TB skin test
51
The type of pneumonia in which all or a large segment of one or more pulmonary lobes is involved; known as "bilateral" or "double pneumonia" when both lungs are affected.
lobar pneumonial
52
Respiratory syncytial virus immune globulin; has been used prophylactically to prevent RSV in high-risk infants.
RespiGam
53
The inflammation of the large airways, which is frequently associated with an upper respiratory infection; primarily caused by viral agents
tracheobronchitis
54
The localized acute inflammation of the lung w/o the toxemia associated with lobar pneumonia.
pneumonitis
55
Manifested by a positive skin test; asymptomatic
TB infection
56
The single most important test to determine whether a child has been infected with the tubercle bacillus.
Tuberculin test
57
Diagnosed by positive chest radiograph, positive sputum culture, and presence of signs of the disease.
TB disease