Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Topics of Respiratory Care > Test 3 Ch.11 > Flashcards

Test 3 Ch.11 Flashcards

1
Q

The primary indication for hemodynamic monitoring is the management of

A

critically ill pts who demonstrate evidence of compromised cardiovascular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

hemodynamic monitoring can be used for the diagnosis and treatment of life-threatening conditions such as (9)

A
  • shock
  • heart failure
  • pulmonary hypertension
  • complicated myocardial infarction
  • ARDS
  • chest trauma
  • burn injury
  • severe dehydration
  • after cardiac surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Invasive Hemodynamics monitoring requires

A

the insertion of arterial and intracardiac catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Measurements typically include (5)

A
  • systemic arterial pressure
  • central venous pressure
  • pulmonary artery (PA) pressures
  • arterial and mixed venous blood gases
  • cardiac output (CO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These measurements can be used to calculate (5)

A
  • O2 delivery (DO2)
  • cardiac index (CI)
  • stroke index (SI)
  • vascular resistance
  • cardiac work
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The benefits must out weigh the risk in these critically ill pts

A

something to know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The output of the right and left ventricles are ultimately influenced by 4 main factors, what are they?

A
  • Heart rate
  • Preload
  • Contractility
  • Afterload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an individual’s HR defined as?

A

the number of times the heart beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HR can vary considerably depending on what? (5)

A
  • pt’s age
  • body habitus
  • core temperature
  • level of activity
  • psychological state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In a normal healthy adult, HR can range from

A

50 - 200 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is preload?

A

The filling pressure of the ventricle at the end of the ventricular diastolic, and is estimated by measuring the end-diastolic pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is diastole?

A

When the ventricles are relaxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does it mean if the bottom # on BP is greater than the top #?

A

The heart is never at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The amount of blood present in the ventricles at the end of ventricular diastole (preload) depends on the level of

A

venous return and compliance of the ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Preload reflects the

A

length of the ventricle muscle fibers to generate the necessary tension in the next ventricular contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The basic principle of cardiovascular physiology is sometimes called the

A

Frank-Starling mechanism or length-tension relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The right ventricular end-diastolic (RVEDP) is typically used as an indictor of

A

right ventricular preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP) is used to estimate

A

left ventricular preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

To estimate RVEDP and LVEDP what measurements do Clinicians rely on? (2)

A
  • right atrial pressure (RAP) or central venous pressures (CVP)
  • PA occlusion pressure (PAOP)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PAOP is equivalent to

A

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Contractility is the

A

force that the ventricles generates during each cardiac cycle and can be estimated using the ejection fraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is the ejection fraction calculated?

A

the ratio of the SV to the ventricle end-diastolic volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Afterload is defined as the

A

impedance that the left and right ventricles must overcome to eject blood into the great vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

We measure that impedance as

A

systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is used to describe the afterload that the left ventricle must overcome to

A

eject blood in the systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What does SVR measure?

A

The whole body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which ventricle pumps out to the whole body?

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) reflects the afterload that the

A

right ventricle must overcome to eject blood into the pulmonary circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which ventricle pumps in the pulmonary circulation?

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

SVR is ___ times greater than PVR

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Increases in afterload are associated with (think opposite)

A

reductions in CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Decreases in afterload are associated with

A

increases in CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does Retrograde mean?

A

Moving in the opposite direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Direct measurement of the systemic arterial pressure requires the insertion of a catheter into a peripheral artery such as the (3)

A
  • radial
  • brachial
  • femoral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What techniques can be used to insert the catheter (2)

A
  • percutaneous technique
  • surgical cutdown technique
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Percutaneous is used in what setting?

A

critical care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What must be performed before a radial catheter is inserted?

A

modified Allen test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Administering a systemic vasodilator (e.g., nitroprusside) or a pulmonary vasodilator (e.g., tolazoline) will reduce the SVR and PVR and result in an

A

increase in cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Perform a modified Allen test to ensure

A

refill time of 5 to 10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Infiltrate the skin around the insertion with

A

local anesthetic (e.g., lidocaine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Percutaneously insert the catheter appropriately at a

A

30-degree angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If the pulse is weak or inaccessible, what should be done to insert Catheter

A

surgical cutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What should you frequently monitor after insertion of catheter? (2)

A
  • Insertion site of infection
  • Extremity distal to insertion site for adequate circulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

catheter should be removed if: (3)

A
  • There is a clot formation evidenced by difficulty w/ blood sampling or persistently damped waveform
  • Extremity distal to the insertion site becomes ischemic
  • Insertion site becomes infected (fever)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are catheters placed in the vena cava or right atria called?

A

central venous lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What do CVPs monitor?

A

right heart pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CVP catheters are usually inserted percutaneously into a large central vein such as: (3)

A
  • internal jugular (most common)
  • peripherally through the medial basilic
  • lateral cephalic vein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

During ventricle systole or atrial diastole, when the tricuspid valve is closed the pressure measured in the right atrium or vena cava reflects

A

the RAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

At the end of ventricular diastole atrial systole when the tricuspid valve is open

A

the pressure measured in the right atrium reflects right ventricular pressure (RVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The CVP measured at the end of ventricular diastole can be used to monitor

A

IV fluid administration and estimate the filling pressure or preload of the right ventricle (RVEDP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CVP is also used to measure

A

fluid balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When are pressure measurements usually performed?

A

during exhalation and when the pt is supine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The transducer is

A

zeroed at the level of the right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the normal value of CVP

A

2 to 6 mm Hg (UNITS MUST BE USED FOR TEST)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the most common problems encountered w/ insertion of CVP are (3)

A
  • pneumothorax
  • hemothorax
  • vessel damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why is pneumothorax a common problem w/ insertion of a CVP?

A

There is a high likelihood of puncturing a lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the the placement of the catheter confirmed with?

A

chest xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Right atrial pressure (RAP) is also called

A

central venous pressure (CVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Balloon-tipped, flow-directed catheter is also called

A

Swan-Ganz catheter or pulmonary artery (PA) catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Once you insert the catheter into the Intrathoracic vessel, the ballon is slightly inflated, so that the flow of blood carries it to where it needs to go

A

something to know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The balloon on the tip of the catheter is what we can inflate to get a heart measurement

A

something to know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The standard adult catheter is

A

110 cm increments in length and is available in 7 and 8 French (Fr) sizes (marked off in 10 cm increments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

As with systemic arterial catheters, a pressurized flush solution must be run through the catheter at a rate of

A

1 to 5mL/h to prevent clot formation within the catheter’s lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Dual-lumen catheter have

A

one lumen that connects to the ballon located near the tip of the catheter and a second lumen that runs the length of the catheter and terminates at a port at the distal end of the catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Triple-lumen catheters have an

A

additional proximal port that terminates approximately 30 cm from the tip of the catheter or at the level of the right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The third lumen can be used to measure (2)

A

right atrial pressures (RAP) or for administering IV meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Thermodilution catheters incorporate a

A

thermistor connector, which contains electrical wires that connect to a thermistor located 1.5 inches (3 cm) from the tip of the catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When measuring CO using the thermodilution technique,

A

a bolus of 5 % dextrose (cold or room temperature) is injected through the catheter’s third (proximal) lumen, which is positioned at the level of the right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Thermodilution can estimate

A

CO with the thermistor connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cold solution goes past the thermistor and can measure what the CO is, based on the change in temperature

A

something to know

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Table 11.3 Complications associated with PA catheterizations: Cardiac Arrhythmias (6)

A
  • PVC
  • Premature atrial contraction (PACs)
  • V-tach
  • V-Fib
  • Atrial Flutter
  • A-Fib
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Table 11.3 Complications associated with PA catheterizations: Infection Procedure or insertion site (4)

A
  • Infection
  • Pneumothorax
  • Air embolism
  • Access vessel thrombosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Table 11.3 Complications associated with PA catheterizations: Pulmonary circulation

A
  • Pulmonary artery rupture or perforation
  • pulmonary infarction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Table 11.3 Complications associated with PA catheterizations: Pulmonary Artery Catheter (4)

A
  • Balloon rupture
  • Catheter knotting
  • Damped waveform
  • Catheter whip or fling
75
Q

Box 11.3 Causes of Abnormal Right Atrial and Pulmonary Artery Occlusion Pressure Values: Elevated Right Atrial Pressures (RAP) (6)

A
  • Volume overload
  • Right ventricular (RV) failure
  • Tricuspid stenosis or regurgitation
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Constrictive pericarditis
  • Chronic left ventricular (LV) failure
76
Q

Table 11.3 Complications associated with PA catheterizations: Elevated Pulmonary Artery Occlusion Pressure (PAOP) (6)

A
  • Volume overload
  • Left ventricle failure
  • Mitral stenosis or regurgitation
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Constrictive pericarditis
  • High PEEP
77
Q

Table 11.3 Complications associated with PA catheterizations: Low RAP or PAOP

A

Hypovolemia

78
Q

The typical adult can maintain an adequate CO at heart rates of

A

40 to 50 bpm as long as SV increases proportionally

79
Q

CO will increase with heart rates up to about

A

200 to 220 bpm, assuming that the pt responds normally to sympathoadrenal stimulation

80
Q

Heart rates above 220 will decrease in CO b/c

A

diastolic filling time is reduced (decreased ventricular filling from reduced venous return)

81
Q

What is the normal systemic arterial pressure in adults? (range)
With a normal mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

90 to 140 mm Hg to 60 to 90 mm Hg;

70 to 100 mm Hg

82
Q

Systemic hypERtension is when systolic arterial pressure is greater than ____ and diastolic pressure greater than ___

A

systolic > 140 mm Hg
diastolic >90 mm Hg

83
Q

Systemic hyPOtension is when systolic pressure is less than and diastolic pressure is less than

A

systolic < 100 mm Hg
diastolic < 60 mm Hg

84
Q

An increase in diastolic pressure is associated with

A

vasoconstriction

85
Q

A decrease in diastolic pressure is associated with

A

vasodilation

86
Q

The RAP and the LAP are reported as

A

mean values rather than as systolic and diastolic values

87
Q

The RAP (CVP) normally ranges from

A

2 to 6 mm Hg

88
Q

The LAP as estimated from PAOP, ranges from

A

5 to 12 mm Hg

89
Q

CVP and PAOP measures are commonly used to determine overall ______ _________

A

fluid balance

90
Q

What does a low CVP or PAOP suggest?

A

hypovolemia

91
Q

An elevated CVP or PAOP indicates (2)

A

hypervolemia or ventricular failure

92
Q

The finding of bilateral infiltrates on a CXR along with a PAOP greater than 25 mm Hg suggest what?

A

The presence of cardiogenic pulmonary edema, resulting from left-sided heart failure

93
Q

The finding of bilateral infiltrates on a CXR with a normal PAOP indicates what?

A

The presence of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, resulting from damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane or ARDS

94
Q

Cardiac output (Q) is the

A

volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute (L/min or mL/min)

95
Q

Cardiac output (Q) normally ranges from

A

4 to 8 L/min

96
Q

Stroke volume (SV) is the

A

volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat (L/beat or mL/beat)

97
Q

Which one is lower PA systolic and diastolic pressures or systemic pressures

A

PA systolic and diastolic

98
Q

What is the PA systolic pressure range for a healthy adult?

A

15 - 35 mm Hg

99
Q

What is the PA diastolic pressure range for a healthy adult

A

5- 15 mm Hg

100
Q

If VO2 and Q remain constant, the difference between the arterial O2 content and the mixed venous O2 content will

A

remain constant

101
Q

When does mixed venous O2 values declined? (2)

A
  • when arterial oxygenation is decreased
  • Q is reduced
102
Q

What does Oxygen delivery (DO2) represent?

A

The total amount of O2 that is carried in the blood to the tissues each minute

103
Q

DO2 is the product of what 2 things?

A

Q and arterial O2 (PO2)

104
Q

Under normal circumstances DO2 is approximately

A

1000 mL/min or about 550 to 650 mL/min/m2

105
Q

When is DO2 increased? (2)

A

Q or arterial O2 content is elvated

106
Q

A reduced DO2 indicates a (2)

A

decrease in Q or arteial O2

107
Q

What disease process is DO2 increased in?

A

septic shock (hyperdynamic state)

108
Q

DO2 is decreased in this medical issue

A

hemorrhage

109
Q

What is a shunt defined as ?

A

A portion of the cardiac output that does not participate in gas exchange w/ alveolar air (perfusion without ventilation)

110
Q

Shunts are usually identified as (3)

A
  • anatomical shunts
  • intrapulmonary shunt
  • physiological shunt
111
Q

Abnormal anatomical shunts can occur when

A

blood is allowed to bypass the pulmonary circulation and enter directly into the left atrium or ventricle, as occurs w/ atrial and ventricular septal wall defects

112
Q

Intrapulmonary shunts occur when blood passes through

A

pulmonary capillaries that are not ventilated

113
Q

What disorders can intrapulmonary shunts be caused by? (8)

A
  • atelectasis
  • pulmonary edema
  • PNA
  • pneumothorax
  • complete airway obstruction
  • consolidation of the lung
  • ARDS
  • arterial to venous fistuals (rare)
114
Q

What is the normal ranges for SVR

A

900 to 1500 dyne x seconds x cm-5

115
Q

Normal PVR ranges from

A

100 to 250 dyne x seconds x cm-5

116
Q

What are the 2 most important factors that influence vascular resistance?

A
  • the caliber of the blood vessels
  • viscosity of the blood
117
Q

The SVR is increased in left ventricle and hypovolemia arising from vasoconstriction caused by stimulation of the barorecpters

A

something to know

118
Q

The SVR may increase in this disorder..

A

polycythemia

119
Q

SVR decrease during systemic

A
  • vasodilation, such as occurs w/ moderate hypoxemia
  • vasodilators (nitroglycerin or hydralazine)
120
Q

The PVR increases during periods of

A
  • ## alveolar hypoxia or high intraavelor pressures are generated (ppv)
121
Q

PVR decreases

A

vasodilator drugs such as tolazpline and prostacyclin

122
Q

What are the normal range values for ejection fraction (EF)

A

0.5 to 0.7

123
Q

EF values < _____ are associated w/ compromised cardiovascular function and imminent heart failure

A

0.30

124
Q

The resting heart rate of a healthy adults is

A

60 to 100 bpm

125
Q

Bradycardia

A

<60

126
Q

Tachycardia

A

> 100

127
Q

CO will increase w/ heart rates up to ____ to _____ bpm assuming that the pt responds normally to sympathoadrenal

A

200 to 220

128
Q

Can we measure BP w/ an Arterial line?

A

YES

129
Q

What is the normal systemic arterial pressure for systolic (range)

A

90 to 140 mm Hg

130
Q

What is the normal systemic arterial pressure for diastolic?

A

60 to 90 mm Hg

131
Q

A normal mean arterial pressure ranges from?

A

70 to 100 mm Hg

132
Q

When does a pt have systemic hypertension?

A

When systolic arterial pressures are greater than 140 and diastolic greater than 90

133
Q

Systemic hypotension

A

systolic less than 100 mm Hg, diastolic less than 60 mm Hg

134
Q

What is a critical MAP

A

60 mm Hg

135
Q

Once MAP gets below 60 mm Hg it is very difficult to perfuse the body

A

something to know

136
Q

What is a wide pulse pressure associated with?

A

an increased SV and decreased arterial compliance

137
Q

What is a narrow pulse pressure associated with

A

a decreased SV and an increased arterial compliance

138
Q

Right Atrial pressure (RAP) is also know as

A

Central venous pressure (CVP)

139
Q

RAP can be monitored through the __________ lumen of a PA catheter or through a ______ line

A

proximal; CVP

140
Q

Pulmonary artery pressure (PA) is measured by the __________ lumen of a PA cather

A

distal

141
Q

Left atrial and ventricular can be measured during

A

PAOP (PCWP)

142
Q

Left atrial pressure (PCWP) is measured when the

A

balloon is inflated (wedged). The measurement can only be obtained when you inflate the balloon

143
Q

What can PAOP distingusih?

A

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema or non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

144
Q

Cardiogenic pulmonary edema is interchangeable with

A

increased pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure

145
Q

Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema is interchangeable with

A

normal pulmonary hydrostatic pressure or ARDS

146
Q

Normal PCWP is

A

5 to 12 mm Hg

147
Q

PCWP greater than ____ mm Hg means a pt has…

A

25;
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema

148
Q

Tricuspid =

A

RIGHT SIDE of the heart

149
Q

Mitrial=

A

LEFT SIDE of the heart

150
Q

Normal PA systolic pressure is

A

15- 35 mm Hg

151
Q

Normal PA diastolic pressire is

A

5- 15 mm Hg

152
Q

Use of ______ levels at greater than ____ cm H20 can produce erroneously elevated pressure readings

A

PEEP;
15 cm H20

153
Q

Pulmonary hypertension is determined by the

A

pulmonary artery pressure

154
Q

Systolic greater than ___ and diastolic greater than ____ is considered ____________ ________________

A

35;
15;
pulmonary hypertension

155
Q

Define CO

A

the volume of blood pumped out by the heart per min

156
Q

Normal CO is

A

4 to 8 L/min

157
Q

What is the equation for CO?

A

CO= SV x HR

158
Q

Define Stroke Volume

A

the volume of blood pumped out by the heart per beat

159
Q

What is a normal Cardiac index (CI)

A

2.5 to 4.0 L/min/m2

160
Q

What is a normal Stroke index?

A

35 to 55 mL/beat/m2

161
Q

What is a normal SaO2

A

98%

162
Q

What is a normal CaO2

A

20 vol%

163
Q

Can you start with normal arterial oxygenation and still have decreased venous oxygenation? and why?

A

Yes, b/c of shunting or increased oxygenation consumption (i.e., fever or exercise)

164
Q

Can you start with a normal arterial oxygenation and still have a higher than normal (increased or elevated) mixed venous oxygenation? and why?

A

Yes, b/c the body is not using ANY of the oxygen (i.e., histotoxic hypoxemia). The body is not using it or its not delivering to the tissues

165
Q

DO2 is the product of

A

CO and arterial O2 content and represents the total amount of O2 that is carried in the blood to the tissues

166
Q

Normal DO2 is

A

1000 mL/min (1L/min) or about 550 to 650 mL/min/m2

167
Q

DO2 is increased when

A

CO and CaO2 content is elevated hyperdynamic state (i.e., septic shock)

168
Q

DO2 is decreased

A

when CO and CaO2 content is decreased (i.e., hemorrhage or anemic)

169
Q

A shunt is the portion of the CO that does not

A

participate in gas exchange w/ alveolar (perfusion w/o ventilation)

170
Q

Normal shunt is ____% to ____% of CO

A

2% to 3%

171
Q

Shunt between 15 -20% we start to think of MV

A

something to know

172
Q

Shunts 30% and greater we put them on MV

A

something to know

173
Q

Vascular resistance represents the impedance or opposition to blood flow offered by the

A

systemic and pulmonary vascular beds and it influences the force that the ventricular must must generate during CO contraction

174
Q

Calculation for SVR?

A

(MAP-CVP)/Q x 80

175
Q

Calculation for PVR

A

(MPAP-PAOP)/Q x 80

176
Q

What is the normal SVR?

A

900 to 1500 dyne x second x cm-5

177
Q

What is the normal PVR

A

100 to 250 dyne x second x cm-5

178
Q

SVR is increased if

A

blood viscosity increases as occurs in polycythemia

179
Q

SVR is decreased during

A

systemic vasodilation (i.e., moderate hypoxemia)

180
Q

PVR increases during periods of

A

alveolar hypoxia or in cases in which high positive pressure ventilation low CO

181
Q

PVR is decreased by the administration of

A

pulmonary vasodilator drugs such as tolazoline and prostacyclin

182
Q

Ejection Fraction (EF) provides an estimate of

A

ventricular contractility; how much blood is being ejected out of the ventricles

183
Q

Normal EF is

A

0.5 to 0.7

184
Q

EF less than _____ is associated w/ heart failure

A

0.30

Topics of Respiratory Care (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions