Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What temperature does the instrument/avionics blower switch on?

A

45C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What temperture does the instrument/avionics blower switch off?

A

40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What temperture does the MFD OVERHEAT/AVIONICS OVHT caution trigger?

A

65C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the ADF receiver located?

A

on the avionic deck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is the ADF antenna located?

A

between the rad alt antennas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where is the ADF controller located?

A

on the centre console

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where are the FMS1 and FMS2 switches located?

A

on the intstument panel (below the DME switches)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are the VHF NAV antennas located?

A

Either side of the tail boom?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the DME transceiver located?

A

on the avionic deck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What parts are part of the ILS?

A

localizer, glideslope and marker beacon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is the DME antenna located?

A

lower R/H mid body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is the transponder controlled?

A

by the GTN750

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the ATC antenna located?

A

lower L/H mid body (in front of long marker beacon antenna)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is the ATC transponder powered from?

A

AVI ESS BUS 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FMS is another name for what?

A

GTN750 units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FMS1 is located where?

A

L/H slant console

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where are the GPS antennas located?

A

on the tail fin tip fairing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How mnay GPS antennas are there?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the tail fin tip fairing made of?

A

carbon fibre witha metal mesh and final layer of glass fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is position accuracy enhanced on a GPS system?

A

with the number of tracked satellites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the RAD ALT transceiver?

A

creates a radar wave signal and receives the reflection from the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which RAD ALT antenna transmits?

A

FWD antenna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where is the RAD ALT information displayed?

A

on FND1 and FND2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When is the RAD ALT system tested?

A

during the pre-flight test (P-FLT-TEST switch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is the IESI located?

A

inbetween MFD1 and MFD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the secondary function of the IESI?

A

acts as additional sensor for the IMA and responsible for the BACK-UP SAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where is the IESI powered from in normal operation?

A

ESS BUS 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What information is displayed on the IESI?

A

Airspeed, pitch and roll, and altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

After power up, what is the automatic default config for MFD2?

A

locked on FND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

During flight, what information does the DTD collect?

A

data from the AMCs and MFDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where is the information collected by the DTD stored?

A

on a CF card.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is the power-up test (PBIT) started?

A

automatically as soon as power is supplied and after the AMCs and MFDs are inistialized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How is the data downloaded from th CF card?

A

ona PC via the MGS software

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What information is on the VMD page?

A

N1, N2, NR, TQ, TOT, electrical system, fuel, engine and MGB oil temps and Px, HYD, and DATA PAGE (time zone, weight, hook/hoist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

SnowRunner1 processes all the controls display functions and generates symbol symbology files for what?

A

Flight managment info, Nav managment info, vehicle and engine management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the IMA is connected and communicates by what?

A

Ethernet system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which lights are not included on th LAMP test?

A

the fire warning lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

If two messages are recieved for the same system, which one appears on top?

A

the message of higher priorty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The FMS provies GPS time to what?

A

AMC2

39
Q

What does the UMS automatically do to validate flight report content?

A

Performs a cross-check between flight duration measured by the GPS and AMC time

40
Q

Where are aural alerts generated?

A

in the AMC

41
Q

When would a DOWNLOAD FAIL advisary appear?

A

if a download fails, the card is missing or corrupt of if the DTD cover is not closed.

42
Q

What type of switches monitor the pax and cockpit doors?

A

inductive switches

43
Q

What are the clamsheel doors made from?

A

carbon/glass//amrid fibre with Nomex honeycomb

44
Q

What is the engine deck made from?

A

titanium for fire protection reasons

45
Q

What are the side shells made from?

A

anodized aluminum

46
Q

How is the Hoz stab attached?

A

by two bolts, one each side

47
Q

what is located on the trailing edge of the hoz stab?

A

Gurny flaps

48
Q

How are the Gurny flaps fixed?

A

by rivets on the upper side of the hoz stab

49
Q

Where are the position lights fixed?

A

at the end caps onf the hoz stab

50
Q

What is the rotor star made from?

A

forged blank of titanium alloy

51
Q

What are the amin rotor blades made from?

A

carbon fibre and GFRP

52
Q

What are the skin plies made from on the MRB?

A

carbon fibre

53
Q

Where do the skin plies converge on the MRB?

A

at the trailing edge where they are squeezed together to complete a torsion box

54
Q

WHat is the purpose of the torsion box on the MRB?

A

to ensure torsional stiffness

55
Q

Why, and by how much are the rotor arms pre-coned?

A

by 2.5 degrees to reduce control force

56
Q

Can the timming surfave be adjusted?

A

No, it’s made of glass fiber

57
Q

Can the MRB vibration absorber be swapped with another blade?

A

No, the fit and contour of each one is adpated uniquely by an intermediate layer of resin.

58
Q

How mnay bolts retain each blade?

A

2

59
Q

Where are the dynamic balance weights added?

A

to the hollow MRB bolts

60
Q

What is located on top of the main rotor star?

A

an oil reservoir

61
Q

How does the oil get to the main rotor start arms from the oil reservoir?

A

by internal bore holes

62
Q

How does the collective input move the swashplate?

A

the sliding sleeve moves up or down the support tube

63
Q

how is the gimbal attached to the control ring?

A

by two bearings

64
Q

When is a LOW ROTOR RPM triggered?

A

at:
- 94% NR (by the warning unit)
- 94% NR or nominal NR-3% (by AMC2)

65
Q

When is HIGH ROTOR RPM triggered?

A

at 109% NR

66
Q

What design is the MGB?

A

Lightweight 2-stage reduction

67
Q

What is contained in the lower half of the MGB?

A

input and intermediate stages. accessory drives, collector stage, TR output and oil pumps

68
Q

What does the upper half of the MGB contain?

A

Gear carrier and double-row self-aligning roller bearing, oil filler neck and acts as a cover for the MGB

68
Q

Where is the MGB oil sight glass located?

A

on the lower section at the FWD RH side

69
Q

What type are the mast bearings?

A

double-row self-aligning roller bearings

70
Q

What load acts on the lower mast bearing?

A

axial loads

71
Q

What loads act on the upper mast bearing?

A

radial loads and mast bending

72
Q

What design are the lower part of the transmission mounts?

A

Trunnion

73
Q

What are the design purpose of the trunnion bearings?

A

They act as an emergency stop in combination with the fuelage fittings incase of a TRQ rod failure

74
Q

What are the torque rods made from?

A

titanium

75
Q

What is the purpose of the torque rods?

A

to transfer MR reaction torque and resulting longitudinal forces into the airframe

76
Q

The MGB mounts connect the MGB in what axis?

A

vertical, lateral and longitudinal

77
Q

MGB OIL P on the warning unit and MBG LOW PRESS on master list are displayed when?

A

BOTH circuits are below 1 BAR

78
Q

How is the MGB oil monitored?

A

by two electrically indicated mag chip detectors

79
Q

When is MAST MOMENT indication visible?

A

below 50knts, or above 50knts if mast moment is >54%

80
Q

During the self power-up test, what is the HELIONIX testing on the OIL PX SWITCHES?

A

logic inputs

81
Q

When would MGB PRESS SENSOR advisory appear?

A

after power-up self test if continuity isn’t sensed (plug disconnected or wire damaged)

82
Q

If an abnormal oil Px trend is detected (such as a difference in Px between the two systems), what advisary is illuminated?

A

MGB TREND

83
Q

How is the MGB oil system monitored?

A

High Temp, temp, and ciruit monitoring

84
Q

When are the chip detectors monitored for continuity?

A

At the power up self test and every 10 minutes during flight

85
Q

When are the NR RPM sensors tested?

A

During power up self test

86
Q

When would NR SENSOR advisory be displayed?

A

on the ground

87
Q

If the main NR sensor fails during flight, where is th NR RPM aquired?

A

from the TR mag pick-up

88
Q

When can the rotor brake NOT be applied?

A

above 50% NR or temps below -30C

89
Q

What does the wiper assmbly consist of?

A

one motor, one gearbox, two wiper arms, one blade

90
Q

Where is the hand held fire extinguisher located?

A

rear of centre console

91
Q

Where is the first aid kit located?

A

on the l/h clamshell door

92
Q

The Kannad 406 AP-H ELT transmits at what Mhz and for how long?

A

406MHz for 24 hrs or 121.5Mhz for 48 hrs

93
Q

What is the accuracy of the 406MHz frequency?

A

3km

94
Q

What switch positions are on the ELT?

A

ARM-OFF-ON

95
Q
A