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UA > Test 2 Speed Study > Flashcards

Test 2 Speed Study Flashcards

1
Q

IgG

A

Chronic

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2
Q

IgE

A

Submucosa

Allergic reaction or autoimmune issue

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3
Q

IgD

A

Works with IgM

Acute infection

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4
Q

IgM

A

Acute infection

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5
Q

IgA

A

Mucosa

Protect body from foreign bodies

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6
Q

Diseases associated with Bence Jones proteins

A 
multiple myeloma 
chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) 
lymphoma 
metastatic lytic bone lesions 
Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia 
end-stage of renal failure 
amyloidosis
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7
Q

Multiple myeloma lab presentation

A 
Decreased RBC
Decreased WBC
Decreased PLATELETS
Increased BLEEDING
Decreased ERYTHROPOETIN
Increased calcium
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8
Q

Low values of HCG in the urine for pregnant women indicate:

A
  • miscarriage
  • death of baby or embryo
  • ectopic pregnancy
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9
Q

High blood level HCG

A

can be used for screening of Down’s syndrome between 15-20 weeks of pregnancy
(it does not indicate 100% presence of this disease)

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10
Q

Edwards syndrome

A

Trisomy 18

Low hCG

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11
Q

Down’s syndrome

A

Trisomy 21

Increased hCG

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12
Q

Schillings test

A

Determines B12 deficiency

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13
Q

Stage I Schilling’s test

A

low vitamin B12 level in food or diet

megaloblastic anemia

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14
Q

Stage II Schilling’s test

A

low intrinsic factor (problems with the stomach)

causing the low vitamin B12 level

(chronic atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy pernicious anemia)

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15
Q

Stage III Schilling’s test

A

abnormal bacterial growth causing the low vitamin B12 absorption in ileum

Tropical sprue, Celiac disease, Crohn’s disease

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16
Q

Stage IV Schilling’s test

A

low vitamin B12 absorption caused by

problems with the pancreas

(malabsorption syndrome, pancreatitis)

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17
Q

enzymatic immunoassay tests (EIAs)

A

used for urine toxicology screening, are useful in detection of classes of drugs (e.g. opiates) but cannot determine which specific drug (e.g. morphine) is present

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18
Q

Uric acid is a product of the metabolic breakdown of

A

purine nucleotides

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19
Q

Types of purines

A

Adenine

Guanine

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20
Q

Hyperuricosuria is associated with

A
  • gout
  • metastatic cancer
  • multiple myeloma
  • cancer chemotherapy
  • high purine diet
  • leukemias
  • intake of uricosuric drugs:
    – ascorbic acid, calcitonin, estrogens, steroids, salicylates
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21
Q

Hypouricosuria is associated with

A
  • kidney diseases
    • chronic glomerulonephritis
    • eclampsia
    • chronic alcohol ingestion with kidney pathology
    • lead toxicity with kidney pathology
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22
Q

Normal urine creatinine (24-hour sample) values

A

can range from 500 to 2000 mg/day.

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23
Q

High creatinine clearance:

A
  • strenuous exercise
  • pregnancy
  • muscle injury (especially crushing injuries)
  • burns
  • hypothyroidism
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24
Q

Low creatinine clearance:

A
  • serious kidney damage (infection, shock, low blood flow to the kidneys, cancer)
  • urinary tract blockage
  • heart failure,
  • dehydration
  • liver disease (cirrhosis)
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25
Q

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) BUN is a measurement of:

A
  • kidney’s excretory function

- liver metabolic function

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26
Q

Abnormally high blood levels of BUN and creatinine is collectively known as

A

Azotemia

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27
Q 
Prerenal azotemia (without primary involvement of the urinary
system):
A
  • hypovolemia due to GI bleeding, dehydration, shock
  • excessive protein ingestion (alimentary tube feeding)
  • starvation
  • excessive protein catabolism (burns, sepsis)
  • congestive heart failure
  • myocardial infarction
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28
Q

Renal azotemia (due to primary kidney diseases):

A
  • renal failure

- nephrotoxic drugs

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29
Q 
Postrenal azotemia (due to primary lower urinary tract
involvement) :
A
  • lower urinary tract obstruction with abnormal

or inadequate excretion of urine

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30
Q

Decreased BUN level develops in the following pathologies:

A
  • liver failure (cirrhosis)
  • overhydration
  • negative nitrogen balance (a diet low in
    protein, malabsorption)
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31
Q

High levels of serum acid phosphatase pAP

A
  • prostate cancer that has metastasized to the bone
  • systemic infection
  • anemia severe
  • multiple myeloma lytic
  • thrombophlebitis
  • Paget’s disease blastic
  • hepatitis
  • kidney diseases
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32
Q

Prostate specific antigen PsA

A

• High level of PsA and enlargement of the prostate during digital rectal exam may indicate: benign prostate hyperplasia, prostatitis (mostly due to venereal diseases)
• High level of PsA and normal or small size of prostate on the
digital exam may indicate prostate cancer.
• But only prostate biopsy (!!!) can be used for diagnosis of
prostate cancer.

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33
Q

Aspartate Aminotransferase - AST-SGOT Blood level of AST will increase in:

A
  • liver parenchymal cell damage
  • myocardial infarction
  • skeletal muscle trauma
  • acute renal diseases
  • acute pancreatitis
  • severe burns
  • hemolytic anemias
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34
Q

Alanin Aminotransferase - ALT-SGPT

A

Caused by liver damage

  • hep
  • cirrhosis
  • liver toxins
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35
Q

ALT / SGPT can elevate in:

A
  • congestive heart failure
  • infectious mononucleosis
  • viral/systemic
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36
Q

GGTP INCREASED IN

A
  • liver diseases
  • biliary system disorders (provided Alkaline phosphatase
    blood level is increased)
  • 1 to 2 weeks after an acute myocardial infarction
  • pancreatitis
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37
Q

Abnormally high ALP blood level is found in

A
  • bilary obstruction
  • osteoblastic tumor/pagets
  • osteomalacia
  • hepatitis
  • leukemia
  • lymphoma
  • sarcoidosis
  • protein malnutrition Celiac
  • deficiency in vit/min
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38
Q

LDH1

A

HHHH

Myocardium and RBC

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39
Q

LDH2

A

HHHM

Reticuloendothelial system WBC

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40
Q

LDH3

A

HHMM

Lung

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41
Q

LDH4

A

HMMM

Kidney, placenta, and pancreas

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42
Q

LDH5

A

MMMM

Liver and striated muscle

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43
Q

Troponin I or T

A

Measured for heart attack

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44
Q

CPK-1 (also called CPK-BB) is found mostly

in the

A 
brain and lungs
Increased CPK-1 (BB) levels may be due to:
- brain cancer 
- brain injury (due to injury, stroke, or bleeding
in the brain) 
- electroconvulsive therapy
- pulmonary infarction 
- seizure
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45
Q

CPK-2 (also called CPK-MB) is found

mostly

A

After a heart attack

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46
Q

CPK-3 (also called CPK-MM) is found

mostly in

A

skeletal muscle injuries, whether it be a car accident, surgery such as appendectomy, seizure, or even just exercise

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47
Q

High myoglobin levels=

A
  • heart attack
  • muscular dystrophy
  • rhabdomyolysis
  • myositis
  • ischemia
  • trauma
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48
Q

Albumin normal levels

A
  • 55%

- 3.5-5g/dl

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49
Q

Normal albumin-to-globulin ratio is

A

Greater than 1 (~1.4)

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50
Q

Globulin normal levels

A
  • 38%

- 2.0-2.5 g/dl

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51
Q

Fibrinogen normal levels

A
  • 7%

- 0.2-0.45 g/dl

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52
Q

Increased serum albumin levels can be found in?

A

Dehydration

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53
Q

Decreased serum albumin levels can be found in?

A
  • advanced malignancy
  • liver disease
    – the liver synthesizes albumin
  • Crohn’s disease
  • starvation
    – inadequate protein intake
  • nephrotic syndrome
  • kwashiorkor
  • hypertensive disorders of pregnancy
    -(pre)-eclampsia
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54
Q

Increased globulin levels can be found in?

A
  • liver disease
  • amyloidosis
  • multiple myeloma
  • leukemia
  • lymphomas
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55
Q

Decreased fibrinogen can be found in?

A

Liver cirrhosis

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56
Q

Total protein

A
  • 6.0-8.3

- may be increased during pregnancy

57
Q

Normal fasting blood glucose test levels

A

70-100 mg/dl

Type 2

58
Q

Persistent hyperglycemia

A
  • diabetes mellitus
  • pancreatitis
  • pancreatic tumor
  • pheochromocytoma
  • Cushings
59
Q

Transient hyperglycemia

A
  • stroke
  • heart attack
  • after surgery
  • shock
  • severe liver damage
60
Q

Persistent hypoglycemia

A

Insuloma
Addison’s disease
Ectopic insulin production

61
Q

Transient hypoglycemia

A

Alcohol intoxication
Severe glycogen storage
Strenuous exercise
Insulin OD

62
Q

Normal glucose tolerance test levels

A

Fasting 70-100mg/dl
1hour <200
2hours<140

63
Q

Increased amylase in blood and urine occur due to?

A
  • acute or chronic pancreatitis
  • pancreatic cancer
  • mumps
64
Q

Higher than normal lipase levels may be due to?

A
  • acute or chronic pancreatitis
  • bowel obstruction
  • celiac disease
  • penetration of ulcer
  • pancreatic cancer
  • infection/swelling of pancreas
65
Q

What organ produces cholesterol?

A

Liver produces 80%

The other 20 is from animal products

66
Q

Normal LDL

A

<130 mg/dL

67
Q

Normal HDL

A

> 40-60 mg/dL

68
Q

Normal total cholesterol

A

160-200 mg/dL

69
Q

Optimal LDL/HDL ratio is?

70
Q

Total cholesterol <160 can be a sign of

A

Hemorrhagic stroke
Depression
Reduced synthesis of hormones
Could indicate liver cancer

71
Q

Total cholesterol >200 can be a sign of

A

Atherosclerosis
Cardiovascular diseases
Ischemic stroke
Obesity

72
Q

Triglycerides are elevated in

A

Obese and or diabetic patients

73
Q

AFP high levels =

A
  • cancer of gonads
  • cirrhosis
  • hep recovery
In pregnancy
High levels
-spina bifida
-tetralogy of fallot
-Turner syndrome
-twins+
Low levels 
-Down's syndrome (21)
-Edwards (18)
74
Q

ANA antinuclear antibodies help diagnose what illnesses?

A
  • LUPUS**
  • chronic liver disease
  • vasculitis
  • dermatomyositis
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • Sjögren syndrome
  • scleroderma
75
Q

Anti-dsDNA antibodies are the best indicators for diagnosing what disease?

76
Q

ASO (antistreptolysin O) test tests for what?

A
  • Strep infection
  • rheumatic fever
  • scarlet fever
  • bacterial endocarditis
  • acute glomerulonephritis
77
Q

CRP has a ______ sensitivity and a is ______ specific

A

Highly sensitive

NOT specific

78
Q

HIV tests

A

ELISA =best
Western blot to verify
PCR (polymerase chain reaction)

79
Q

A positive test means HLA-B27 is present

A
  • psoriatic arthritis
  • ankylosing spondylitis
  • IBD
  • Reiters syndrome AKA chlamydia
  • uveitis aka iritis
80
Q

Positive RF (rheumatoid factor) can be found in what diseases?

A
  • Sjögrens syndrome
  • SLE
  • dermatomyositis
  • sarcoidosis
  • scleroderma
  • chronic hep
81
Q

PT prothrombin time normal values

82
Q

Ammonia test diagnoses what diseases

A
  • liver diseases
  • kidney failure
  • heart failure
  • Reye’s syndrome
83
Q

Left shift means

A

An increase in the number of IMMATURE neutrophils (aka band cells) in the peripheral blood

Normal amount is 2-6%

84
Q

Left shift usually occurs in?

A

Inflammation
Infection
Certain types of cancer

85
Q

Right shift is

A

The ratio of immature - mature neutrophils, it is considered with reduced count or lack of young neutrophils

Is associated with the presence of giant neutrophils

86
Q

Leukopenia
Leukocytopenia
Leucopenia
Develops due to?

A
  • immunodeficiency disorders
  • chemotherapy
  • radiation therapy
  • some medications immunosuppressive drugs
87
Q

Normal values neutrophils

88
Q

Normal values lymphocytes

89
Q

Normal values monocytes

90
Q

Normal values eosinophils

91
Q

Normal values Basophils

92
Q

polymorphonuclear

A
  • neutrophils (2–5 lobes of nucleus)
  • eosinophils (2 lobes of nucleus)
  • basophils (2 - 3 lobes of nucleus)

Granulocytes

93
Q

mononuclear (single nucleus):

A
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes

Agranulocytes

94
Q

Function of neutrophils

A
  • first WBC
  • phagocytosis
  • bacterial or fungal infections
  • inflammation

Lifetime 6hours-few days

95
Q

Neutrophilia (over 70%)

A

Infection bacterial/fungal
Trauma
Inflammation
Stress

96
Q

Neutropenia (less 45%)

A

Bone marrow depression (aplastic or megaloblastic anemia)
Viral infection
Autoimmune disorders

97
Q

Eosinophils

A

Allergic reactions
Bronchial asthma
Parasites

Lifetime 8-12 days

98
Q

Eosinophilia over 6%

A 
Allergic reaction
Atopic bronchial asthma
Parasite
Skin diseases
Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
Hodgkin's disease
99
Q

Eosinopenia less than 1%

A

Stress
Cushings
Aplastic anemia
Brucellosis

100
Q

Basophils

A

Inflammation
Type 1 anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions
Ticks
Cancer

Lifetime is a few hours

Basophils synthesize histamine

101
Q

Basophilia over 2%

A 
Chronic myelocytic leukemia
Hodgkins 
UC
Allergic reactions
Polycythemia
Infection (viral such as TB or chicken pox)
102
Q

Basopenia less than .5%

A 
Hyperthyroidism
Ovulation
Pregnancy
Stress
Aplastic anemia
103
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Antiviral
Antitumor

Lifetime years to weeks

104
Q

Lymphocytosis over 45%

A

Viral infection
Autoimmune disorders
Infectious mono
Lymphatic leukemia

105
Q

Lymphopenia less than 20%

A

Chronic diseases

High corticosteroid levels

106
Q

Monocytes

A

Tissue damage
Autoimmune disease
Chronic infectious diseases
Inflammation

107
Q

Monocytosis over 8%

A 
TB
Hep
Malaria
Typhoid
Leishmaniasis

CT diseases
SBE
Myeloma
Monocytic leukemia

108
Q

Monicytopenia less than 2%

A 
Acute infections
Stress
Treatment with glucocorticoids
Aplastic anemia
Acute myeloid leukemia
109
Q

Increased count of RBC

A

Polycythemia

110
Q

Different sized RBCs/cells

A

Anisocytosis

111
Q

Different shapes RBCs/cells

A

Poikilocytosis

112
Q

Macrocytes

A

Megaloblastic anemia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Alcoholism
Chronic liver disease

113
Q

Microcytes

A

Iron deficiency anemia
Thalassemia
Sickle cell
Spherocytosis

114
Q

Elliptocytes

A

Hemolytic anemia
Thalassemia
Iron deficiency anemia
Myelofibrosis

115
Q

Tear drop

A

Myelofibrosis

116
Q

Sickle cell aka

A

Depanocytes

117
Q

Schistocytes (red cell fragments)

A

Hemolytic anemia
Burns
Iron deficiency anemia
Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

118
Q

Burr cells aka echinocytes

A 
Uremia
Hemolytic anemia
Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Hypomagnesemia, hypophosphatemia
Marathon runners
119
Q

Spur cells aka acanthocytes

A

Liver disease
Uremia
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

120
Q

Target cells aka codocytes

A

Obstructive liver disease
Abnormal hemoglobin diseases (thalassemia )
Iron deficiency anemia

121
Q

Spherocytes

A

Hereditary spherocytosis
Burns
After drug toxicity

122
Q

Hypochromia

A

Iron deficiency
Thalassemia
Sideriblastic anemia

123
Q

Hyperchromic

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Megaloblastic anemias

124
Q

basophilic stippling

A

Lead poisoning
Thalassemia
Sideroblastic anemia

125
Q

Cabot rings

A

Lead poisoning
Pernicious anemia
Thalassemia

126
Q

Howell-jolly bodies

DNA nuclear remnants

A

Megaloblastic anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Post-splenectomy

127
Q

Heinz body

Denatured hemoglobin

A

Glucose 6 phosphate deficiency

128
Q

High Hematocrit HTC indicates polycythemia

A 
• polycythemia vera 
• dehydration 
• COPD  (hypoxia) 
• congenital heart disease 
• kidney tumor that
produces excess
erythropoietin
129
Q

A low HTC (hematocrit) indicates anemia

A 
• bleeding 
• overhydration 
• nutritional deficiencies such
as iron, folate, vitamin B12 
• bone marrow disorders 
• kidney failure (decreased
production of erythropoietin) 
• excessive destruction of RBC
130
Q

A hematocrit of less than 15% can result in

A

cardiac failure

131
Q

A hematocrit of over 60% may result in

A

spontaneous blood clotting

132
Q

Hemoglobin

Hb
HGB

Normal levels

A

11.6-15.2 g/dL

133
Q

Increased HGB/Hb/hemoglobin indicates

A

Polycythemia Vera
Dehydration
Cir pulmonale
Pulmonary fibrosis

134
Q

Decreased HGB/Hb/hemoglobin levels indicate

A 
Iron deficiency anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Sickle cell
Thalassemia
Renal failure
135
Q

Rule of three

A

The hemoglobin should be three times RBC count.

136
Q

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

A

Hct/RBC x 10

Normal range is 80-99 femtoliters or fL

137
Q

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)

A

Hb/ RBC x10

Normal range 27-31 picograms pg

138
Q

If a patient has a high hematocrit what does that mean?

A

Excessive RBC

UA (13 decks)

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