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VAP Lab and Lecture > Test 2 (Lectures 5-8) > Flashcards

Test 2 (Lectures 5-8) Flashcards

1
Q

what is an animal with single true stomach

A

monogastric

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2
Q

examples ruminants

A

deer, moose, cows, sheep, goats

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3
Q

examples of monogastrics

A

horses, cats, dogs

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4
Q

ruminants have 4 stomachs what are they

A
  • reticulum
  • rumen
  • omasum
  • abomasum
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5
Q

5 digestive organs in order

A
  • mouth
  • esophagus
  • stomach
  • small intestine
  • large intestine
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6
Q

the small intestine includes what 2 other organs

A

liver and pancreas

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7
Q

do carnivores have mouth enzymes to breakdown food

A

no

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8
Q

herbivore

A

plant eater

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9
Q

Carnivore

A

meat eater

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10
Q

Omnivore

A

both plants and meat eater

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11
Q

the start of food breakdown is what

A

Food is typically chewed

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12
Q

what are Herbivore teeth designed for

A

designed for grinding plant material

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13
Q

what are Carnivore teeth designed for

A

tearing and biting

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14
Q

what are Carnassial teeth

A

shearing and cutting flesh

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15
Q

what are Omnivore teeth designed for

A
  • flat teeth at the back for grinding

- sharp teeth at the front for tearing and biting

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16
Q

carnivores genrally have what kind of teeth

A

a high number of highly curved teeth

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17
Q

herbivores genrally have what kind of teeth

A

have teeth with flat occlusal surfaces

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18
Q

Omnivores genrally have what kind of teeth

A

sharp and flat

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19
Q

the process of chewing is called

A

mastication

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20
Q

what enzymes aid in pre-digestion of food in the oral cavity

A

amylase

lipase

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21
Q

what does amylase aid in

A

breakdown of starch

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22
Q

which enzyme is present in carnivores

A

amylase

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23
Q

what is bovine

A

cow saliva

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24
Q

how much saliva do cows produce per day

A

25-50 gallons

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25
Q

when is lipase normally present orally

A

in animals on a high milk diet

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26
Q

what is the esophagus

A

Is a muscular tube connecting the oral cavity with the stomach

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27
Q

the esophagus is _____

A

multi-layered

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28
Q

the esophagus is made up muscles what do the two different muscles do

A

outer longitudinal muscles: shorten and contract

circular layer: constricts

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29
Q

peristalsis occurs in the esophagus what is it

A

coordinated effort of squeezing and stretching, simultaneously, results in rhythmic contraction

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30
Q

how long does it take for food to move from the mouth to the stomach

A

20-30 seconds

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31
Q

what controls the reflux

A

a sphincter muscle at the stomach end of the esophagus

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32
Q

ruminants esophagus operates how

A

bi-directionally

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33
Q

which is the smallest part of the stomach

A

reticulum

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34
Q

when smaller digesta or liquid particles enter the reticulum where do they move

A

to the omasum

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35
Q

when large particles enter the reticulum where do they move

A

into the rumen for further digestion

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36
Q

the reticulum traps specific things what are these specific things

A
  • heavy dense object that the animal consumes (metal)
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37
Q

how many L does the reticulum hold?

A

19 L

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38
Q

which two stomachs are considered the same

A

the rumen and reticulum are considered one organ

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39
Q

reticulorumen

A

small muscular fold of tissue separating the rumen and reticulum

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40
Q

the structure of the rumen is what

A

a series of muscular sacks

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41
Q

the main purpose of the rumen is

A

fermentation

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42
Q

what does anaerobic mean

A

no oxygen

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43
Q

what gases are produced in the rumen

A
  • carbon dioxide
  • methane
  • hydrogen sulfide
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44
Q

the rumen and reticulum combined make up how much volume of the stomach

A

84%

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45
Q

how many L does the rumen hold

A

150 L

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46
Q

what shape is the omasum

A

spherical

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47
Q

how does it connect to the reticulum

A

by a short tunnel

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48
Q

the omasum is made up of what

A

muscular folds

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49
Q

the omasum has muscular folds which do what

A

the surface area, which increases the area that absorbs nutrients from feed and water

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50
Q

the main 3 purposes of the omasum

A
  • Breaks down food and conveys it into the abomasum

- Removes excess fatty acids and bicarbonate ions

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51
Q

how many Ls does the omasum hold

A

57 L

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52
Q

the abomasum is the _____ stomach

A

true

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53
Q

what does the abomasum produce?

A
  • hydrochloric acid

- digestive enzymes

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54
Q

what is an example of a digestive enzyme and what does it do

A
  • pepsin

- breaks down proteins

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55
Q

what does the abomasum receive and from what

A
  • digestive enzymes secreted by the Pancras
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56
Q

the secretions form the Pancras into the abomasum do what

A

secretions help prepare proteins for absorption in the intestines

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57
Q

there are chief cells in the abomasum what do they do

A

secrete mucous to protect the abomasal wall from acid damage

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58
Q

how many L does the abomasum hold

A

26 L

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59
Q

B12 vitamens do what

A
  • help with DNA production

- keep nerve cells healthy

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60
Q

B9 vitamens do what

A
  • efficient use of iron

- make red blood cells

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61
Q

the monogastric stomach main function is to

A

Digestion of simple carbohydrates only

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62
Q

the monogatric stomach lining produces what 3 things

A
  • mucous
  • hydrochloric acid
  • enzymes
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63
Q

all the energy gained from food goes where

A

released into the blood stream excluding the energy used to walk, drink etc

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64
Q

how long is the small intestine

A

2.5 times the length of the animals body

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65
Q

what happens in the small intestine

A

absorption of almost all nutrients into the blood occurs

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66
Q

in the small intestine what happens to the food

A
  • exposed to enzymes and bile

- this converts the food to even smaller particles capable of being absorbed into the blood

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67
Q

what else does the small intestine absorb

A
  • water
  • electrolytes
  • other molecules
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68
Q

3 parts of the small intestine

A

duodenum, jejunum and ileum

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69
Q

the duodenum is short or long

A

relatively short

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70
Q

what other 2 organs are attached to the duodenum

A

pancreas and gall bladder by the pancreas and gall bladder ducts

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71
Q

which is the longest part of the small intestine

A

the jejunum

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72
Q

what things are in the jejunum

A

finger-like projections called villi

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73
Q

after food contents have been through the jejunum what happens

A

contents of the jejunum empty into the ileum and from there pass into the large intestine

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74
Q

what do villi do

A

protrude inward into the food contents and provide a large surface area to absorb nutrients

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75
Q

what drug affects the small intestine

A

antibiotics

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76
Q

what can cause diarrhea

A

under-active small intestine rather than an over-active one

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77
Q

what compounds can affect intestinal activity

A

hormones

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78
Q

what is bile

A

a fluid
essential for digesting food in the
stomach and intestines

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79
Q

what does the bile duct do

A

transports bile from liver to the gall bladder and then into the small intestine

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80
Q

what is the gall bladder

A

storage receptacle for bile

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81
Q

how does the liver function

A

in the secretion of the bile

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82
Q

what does insulin do

A

Insulin allows glucose in bloodstream to leave and enter cells

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83
Q

what thing breaks down into glucose and then enters the blood stream

A

carbohydrates

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84
Q

the pancreas does what 2 things

A
  • Produces insulin which regulates glucose in the body

- Produces digestive enzymes to help digest food

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85
Q

protease

A

breaks down protein

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86
Q

what is the protein called in dogs

A

trypsin

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87
Q

lipase

A

breaks down fat

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88
Q

amylase

A

breaks down carbohydrates

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89
Q

do humans have a cecum

A

NO

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90
Q

what is the cecum

A

secondary fermentation system

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91
Q

what are the four parts of the large intestine

A

cecum
colon
rectum
anal canal

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92
Q

what is the longest part of the large intestine

A

colon

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93
Q

3 parts of the colon

A

ascending, transverse and descending colon

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94
Q

main function of the colon

A

recover water from feces as needed to keep hydration levels consistent

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95
Q

secondary function of the colon

A

store fecal matter awaiting passage from the body

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96
Q

the rectum has 2 types of sphincter muscles

A

internal and external sphincter muscles

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97
Q

internal sphincter muscles are under ______ control

A

autonomic

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98
Q

external sphincter muscles are under ______ control

A

voluntary

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99
Q

what are structures external to the lungs are known as

A

upper respiratory tract

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100
Q

what are structures internal known as

A

lower respiratory tract

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101
Q

when do the respiratory and digestive tract come in contact

A

the back of the throat

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102
Q

upper resp tract consists of

A 
nose
mouth
pharynx
larynx 
trachea
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103
Q

where is air drawn into the lungs

A

through openings in the nose called nostrils

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104
Q

when is the sense of smell activated

A

As air passes over the back portion of the nose

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105
Q

what are the nasal passages seperated by

A

nasal septum

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106
Q

what happens in the nasal passages

A

warm, filter and humidify incoming air

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107
Q

where is the olfactory region located

A

in the back of the nasal cavity

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108
Q

the olfactory region has a mucous membrane which contains what

A

special nerves designed for smell

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109
Q

do dogs have sweat glands

A

No except for on their feet

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110
Q

how do dogs cool down?

A

by panting

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111
Q

how does panting cool a dog down

A

By breathing faster, warm air is exchanged from the body for the cooler outside air.

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112
Q

what specific things are found in the nasal cavity

A

Cilia and mucous

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113
Q

Cilia and mucous in the nasal cavity do what

A

trap and remove materials that otherwise might be inhaled

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114
Q

what are sinuses and where are they found

A

in various pouches in various skull bones within the nasal passage and they do the same thing as the Cilla

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115
Q

dogs have how many sinuses and what are they called

A

2

frontal and the maxillary

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116
Q

other sinus possibilities

A

sphenoidal and ethmoida

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117
Q

why do sinuses become irritated or swollen

A

infection, allergies, or cancerous conditions

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118
Q

swollen and irritated sinuses is a general condition referred to as

A

sinusitis

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119
Q

what meds can be used to treat sinusitis

A

antibiotics and deconges

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120
Q

where do the nasal passages lead into

A

pharynx

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121
Q

the pharynx is also called the ______

A

throat

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122
Q

the pharynx is also a part of the _______ system

A

digestive

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123
Q

what does the larynx contain

A

many segments of cartilage, connected by muscle

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124
Q

what is the larnyx held in pace by

A

the hyoid bone

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125
Q

how many cartilage components make up the larynx

A

varies between animal species

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126
Q

what is the most important cartilage component of the larynx

A

epiglottis

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127
Q

what happens when an animal swallows

A

the epiglottis is normally pulled back to cover the opening of the larynx

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128
Q

the larynx has 3 functions what are they

A
  • makes sounds
  • prevents materials from entering the lungs
  • controls the flow of air into and out of the lungs
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129
Q

the trachea is a _____ and _____ tube

A

The trachea is a short, wide tube

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130
Q

what keeps the trachea open

A

hyaline cartilage rings

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131
Q

structure of the trachea

A

a tube of fibrous tissue and smooth muscle

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132
Q

what is the trachea’s lining similar to

A

that of the nasal passage

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133
Q

what helps with the removal of trapped materials

A

Cilia and mucous

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134
Q

how can you clear the trachea

A

by coughing

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135
Q

what tube like structure enters the lungs on either side

A

bronchi

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136
Q

where are the lungs located

A

located above the diaphragm

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137
Q

what is the diaphragm

A

a sheet of muscle separating the abdominal and thoracic cavity

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138
Q

another word for branches

A

bifurcates

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139
Q

the right and left bronchus divide into what

A
  • bronchioles
  • alveolar ducts
  • group of alveoli
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140
Q

what is surfactant

A

a substance in the alveoli that promotes gas exchange by reducing surface area tension

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141
Q

what is the structure of the alveoli

A

small, thin-walled sac

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142
Q

what are the alveoli responsible for

A

for the exchange of respiratory gases

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143
Q

the respiratory gases are what

A

oxygen and carbon dioxide

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144
Q

what are the alveoli surrounded by

A

capillary bed of branches from the pulmonary arterioles and venules

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145
Q

what covers the various organs of the thorax and also lines the thoracic cavity

A

pleural membrane

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146
Q

the pleural membrane has 2 layers which are called what

A

visceral layer and the parietal layer

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147
Q

the space between the visceral layer and the parietal layer is filled with what

A

pleural lubricating fluid

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148
Q

what is the tidal volume

A

is the volume of air taken in and expelled during one respiratory cycle of breath

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149
Q

what is the minute volume

A

the volume of air taken in and expelled during one minute

150
Q

how is gas exchange during respiration controlled

A

by the process of diffusion

151
Q

what is the residual volume

A

the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximum expiration

152
Q

how much oxygen and carbon dioxide is present in inhaled air

A

21% oxygen

0.03% carbon dioxide

153
Q

The alveolar capillary bed contains what (levels)

A

relatively low levels of oxygen and much higher levels of carbon dioxide

154
Q

how does oxygen typically diffuse

A

from alveolar air into the blood of the alveolar capillary bed

155
Q

how does carbon dioxide typically diffuse

A

in the opposite direction of oxygen

156
Q

where is the respiratory centre of the brain

A

located in the medullary oblongata

157
Q

what does the respiratory centre of the brain do

A

control the respiratory muscles at a subconscious level

158
Q

can the autonomic system (breathing) be overridden

A

yes consciously

159
Q

how is normal breathing maintained

A

a mechanical control system with stretch receptors in the lungs

160
Q

what is Agonal breathing

A

not enough oxygen from breathing to support the brain

161
Q

what does Agonal breathing lead to

A

lends to unconsciousness

162
Q

during Agonal breathing what is not happening

A

it is not actually oxygenation happening at all

163
Q

what do Chemical receptors in blood vessels do

A

monitor physical and chemical blood constituents

164
Q

what are chemical blood constituents

A

oxygen, carbon dioxide and blood pH

165
Q

what happens after the chemical control system monitors these levels

A

signals the respiratory centre to modify the breathing process in an attempt to maintain homeostasis

166
Q

what do senses allow the animal to do

A

to monitor what is happening both internally and externally

167
Q

what are sense organs an extension of

A

central nervous system (CNS)

168
Q

what do all senses contain

A

modified nerve endings called sensory receptors

169
Q

what happens when the sensory receptors receive stimuli

A

nerve impulses are sent to the CNS

170
Q

3 types of mechanical senses

A
  • touching
  • hearing
  • balance
171
Q

2 types of thermal senses

A
  • hot

- cold

172
Q

1 type of Electromagnetic senses

A
  • vision
173
Q

2 types of chemical sense

A
  • Taste

- smell

174
Q

visceral sensations are generally _____ and poorly ______

A

visceral sensations are generally vague and poorly localized

175
Q

what kind of stimuli trigger visceral sensations

A

chemical or mechanical

176
Q

why is the GI tract sensitive to pain

A

because of stretch receptors

177
Q

which organs are less sensitive to pain

A

bladder and other hollow organs

178
Q

the pleura and peritoneum have lots of what which can lead to what

A

sensory receptors which can lead to pleuritis or peritonitis being very painful

179
Q

what is touch monitored by

A

receptors

180
Q

2 types of receptors

A

superficial and central

181
Q

what kind of receptors are found in the skin

A

superficial receptors

182
Q

superficial receptors in the skin do what

A

generate nerve impulses when the external temperature is either too hot or too cold

183
Q

what monitors the “core” body temperature and how

A
  • Central temperature receptors

- by monitoring the temperature of the blood

184
Q

where are the Central temperature receptors located and how do we get to them?

A
  • hypothalamus

- obtained rectally

185
Q

how is temperature control achieved (5)

A
  • blood flow
  • piloerection
  • sweating
  • shivering
  • thyroid hormones
186
Q

taste is also called what

A

Gustatory sense

187
Q

what are the taste buds of the tongue called

A

papillae

188
Q

where are the majority of last receptor located

A

on the sides of the taste buds

189
Q

how do we pick out a taste (substances, triggers)

A
  • Dissolved substances enter the taste buds and contact the sensory receptors
    – this contact triggers a nerve impulse that travels to the brain where it is interpreted
190
Q

where could other taste receptors be found

A

lining of the mouth and throat

191
Q

which animals have greater developed olfactory senses

A

dogs and bear

192
Q

nasal passages are more important in which species

A

animals over humans

193
Q

where is the sense of smell localized

A

in two areas or patches of olfactory epithelium located dorsally in both nasal passages

194
Q

what happens when odors dissolve in the mucus

A

they stimulate sensory areas on olfactory hairs, or cilia, and generate nerve impulses

195
Q

what olfactory cells project into the mucus layers and cover the surface of the epithelium of the nasal area

A

Hair-like processes

196
Q

how do we hear

A

Converts vibrations of air molecules into nerve impulses

197
Q

what are the 3 functional areas associated with hearing

A

external, middle and inner ear

198
Q

where the 3 parts of the ear found

A

within the temporal bones of the skull

199
Q

what does the external ear do

A

Collects sound waves and vibrations

200
Q

what makes up the external ear

A
  • pinna
  • external auditory canal
  • tympanic membrane (eardrum)
201
Q

what is the tympanic membrane made up of

A

a thin layer of connective tissue

202
Q

what happens when sound waves hit the tympanic membrane

A

cause it to vibrate at the same frequency and transmit these vibrations to the middle ear

203
Q

the pinna collects and funnel vibrations into

A

the external auditory canal called the vertical and horizontal ear canal

204
Q

what is the vertical and horizontal ear canal

A

soft membrane-lined tube the ends at the tympanic membrane

205
Q

what does the middle ear do

A

Amplifies and transmits vibrations

206
Q

what links the tympanic membrane with the inner ear

A

Three small bones called ossicles

207
Q

name of the 3 small bones

A
  • malleus (hammer)
  • incus (anvil)
  • stapes (stirrup)
208
Q

what do the ossicles do

A

act as a system of levers that transmit the sound wave vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea

209
Q

where is the stirrup attached

A

to the membrane that covers the oval window of the cochlea

210
Q

what does the inner ear do

A

Contains sensory receptors that convert vibrations to nerve impulses

211
Q

where is the hearing portion of the inner ear contained

A

in a cavity of the temporal bone called the cochlea

212
Q

what is the receptor organ of hearing filled with and what does it run along

A
  • endolymph

- runs the length of the cochlea

213
Q

receptor organ of hearing is also known as

A

the organ of corti

214
Q

The receptor cells of hearing consist of what

A

hairs that also run the length of the organ of corti

215
Q

when bending sensory hairs what happens

A

generate nerve impulses that in turn are sent to the brain

216
Q

what does the eye contain to help detect images and generate visual nerve impulses

A

photoreceptors

217
Q

what are the photoreceptors made up of

A

a single layer of cells

218
Q

where are the photoreceptors located

A

in the retina at the back of the eyeball

219
Q

3 layers of the eyeball

A
  • outer fibrous
  • middle vascular
  • inner nervous
220
Q

what does the outer fibrous do

A

admits light and gives shape and strength to the eye

221
Q

what is the outer layer composed of

A

cornea and sclera

222
Q

what is the cornea

A

a transparent window that admits light and contains collagen fibres

223
Q

what doesn’t the cornea contain

A

blood vessels

224
Q

what does the eye also contain

A

pain receptors

225
Q

what is the

A

the largest component of the outer eye

226
Q

what is the sclera

A
  • the white of the eye

- is a dense fibrous connective tissue

227
Q

5 parts of the female reproductive system

A
  • Ovaries
  • Uterus
  • Vagina
  • Vulva
  • Mammary glands
228
Q

where are ovaries suspended from

A

the top of the abdomen

229
Q

what are the ovaries suspended by

A

a broad ligament called the suspensory ligament

230
Q

what are oviducts

A

small tubes that extend from the ovaries to the uterine horns

231
Q

the funnel-like structure, found at the end of the oviduct nearest the ovary is called what

A

the infundibulum

232
Q

what does the infundibulum do

A

catches the egg (ovum) when it is released from the ovary

233
Q

what shape is a cat uterus

A

Y shape

234
Q

which part of the Y is longer

A

arms of the Y are longer

235
Q

what are the arms of the Y and the stem of the Y called

A

arms: horns
stem: body

236
Q

what do the uterine horns do?

A

extend from each ovary and join to form the body of the uterus

237
Q

what happens when a female gets pregnant (fetuses)

A

the fetuses are arranged in a row in both horns

238
Q

what is the very tip or base of the Y called

A

cervix

239
Q

what are the walls of the uterus lined with

A
  • vascular and glandular lining called mucosa

- smooth muscles

240
Q

what is the muscular substance of the uterus called

A

myometrium

241
Q

what is the inner lining of the uterus called

A

endometrium

242
Q

what are mammary glands composed of

A

connective tissue

243
Q

the connective tissue in the mammary glands does what

A

provide support and structure, blood vessels, lymphatic vessels and glandular tissue

244
Q

what do mammary glands contain

A

small saclike glands that secrete and store milk

245
Q

how does milk travel in the glands

A

Milk eventually travels through a duct system to empty into the teat

246
Q

how many PAIRS of mammary glands does a cat have

A

4

247
Q

what are the ovaries located behind

A

kidney’s

248
Q

the cervix separates what

A

the uterus from the vagina

249
Q

when is puberty/sexual maturity is reached

A

6 months in GENERAL

250
Q

small breeds can get there first estrus cycle when

A

earlier than 6 months

251
Q

large breeds can get there first estrus cycle when

A

18 month - 2 years of age

252
Q

how often do dogs come into heat

A

2 times a years or once every 6 months

253
Q

how long does heat last

A

2-3 weeks

254
Q

what will happen first when a dog goes into heat

A

swelling or engorgement of the external vulva

255
Q

what can happen with a breeding queen

A

Queens can be bred by more than one male during a heat period, resulting in kittens from the same litter with different sires.

256
Q

gestation period for dogs and cats

A

63 days

257
Q

cats are considered

A

induced ovulators

258
Q

what does induced ovulators mean

A

the act of breeding stimulates or induces ovulation or the release of eggs from the ovaries

259
Q

how many matings must occur in 24 hours in order for ovulation to occur

A

3-4 matings

260
Q

when can a queen be bred

A

can be bred at any time during the active stage of estrus or heat

261
Q

Estrus is usually ________

A

Estrus is usually seasonal

262
Q

other factors (3) that effect Estrus

A
  • # of daylight hours
  • health of cat
  • age
263
Q

typical feline mating season

A

spring till autumn

264
Q

polyestrous means what

A

more than one heat cycle in a year

265
Q

can a cat have a litter in the winter or late fall

A

yes

266
Q

how long does estrus last in cats

A

7-10 days

267
Q

how often will estrus repeat until the cat gets pregnant

A

14 to 21

268
Q

whelping

A

is the term for giving birth

269
Q

queen

A

female unspayed cat

270
Q

Tom

A

male unneutered cat

271
Q

bitch

A

female unspayed dog

272
Q

dog

A

male unneutered dog

273
Q

male reproductive system (9)

A
  • Penis
  • 2 testicles
  • scrotum
  • prostate gland
  • 2 bulbourethral glands
  • epididymis
  • ductus deferens
  • spermatic cords
  • the urethra
274
Q

another name for bulbourethral glands

A

Cowper’s glands

275
Q

another name for ductus deferens

A

vas deferens

276
Q

what structure is found at the base of the penis

A

bulbus glandis

277
Q

what is the bulbus glandis

A

a knot of tissue that surrounds the penis and becomes enlarged during erection

278
Q

what does the bulbus glandis do

A

“knot” that locks them into a female during breeding

279
Q

the erected knot is called what

A

“the tie”

280
Q

how long does “the tie” last?

A

5 – 20 minutes

281
Q

what can happen in neutered dogs when they

are excited.

A

the knot can get enlarged

282
Q

what is an Ovariohysterectomy

A

Surgery removes the ovaries, fallopian tubes and uterus

283
Q

is an Ovariohysterectomy a major surgery

A

YES

284
Q

another name for an Orchidectomy

A

castration

285
Q

Orchidectomy is _____ invasive than an Ovariohysterectomy

A

less

286
Q

what is a cryptorchid male

A

one or both testicles are retained in the abdomen

287
Q

in cat what is different about an Orchidectomy

A

Involves just a tiny incision right over the testicles

- minimal invasive and no sutures

288
Q

what is Pyometra

A

Infection of the uterus

289
Q

what is a Pyometra considered

A

serious and life threatening

290
Q

why does a Pyometra happen

A

a result of hormonal changes and lack of breeding

291
Q

what kind of dogs does a pyometra happen in

A

middle to older female dogs 2-8 weeks after last heat

292
Q

pyometras can be what

A

open or closed

293
Q

4 S + S of pyometra

A
  • Anorexic
  • Listless and depressed
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Increased water consumption
  • Increased body temperature
  • Pus dripping from vulva (if open)
294
Q

what is a vaginal prolapse

A

refers to a mass which protrudes from the vaginal area

295
Q

what kind of animals can a vaginal prolapse affect

A
  • all animals of any age typical in younger animals
296
Q

is the prognosis for a prolapse good

A

yes but may secure again requiring surgery

297
Q

if the prolapse is serious what can it prevent

A

normal urination

298
Q

what is a prolapse similar to in nature

A

fluid-filled tissue called an edema

299
Q

mammary tutors can be

A

Benign andmalignant

300
Q

in which dogs do tumors of themammary glandsoccur fairly frequently in

A

unspayed female dogs

301
Q

what can prevent mammary gland cancer/tumours

A

spaying before going into first heat

302
Q

exocrine glands do what

A

secrete their products on to epithelial surfaces through tiny ducts

303
Q

endocrine glands are _______ glands

A

ductless

304
Q

endocrine glands do what

A

secrete tiny amounts of hormones directly into the bloodstream

305
Q

hormones in general do what

A

circulate through body and produce effects when they find specific receptors

306
Q

6 glands

A
  • Hypothalamus
  • Thyroid
  • Parathyroid
  • Adrenal glands
  • Pancreas
  • Gonads
307
Q

the endocrine glands work together with the what to accomplish what

A

the endocrine glands work together with the nervous system to maintain homeostasis

308
Q

the

Parathyroid gland is ______

A

very small

309
Q

where is the Pituitary gland

A

in the brain

310
Q

the Hypothalamus is a part of what

A

the brain

311
Q

a nickname for the Hypothalamus might be

A

mission control

312
Q

the Hypothalamus links what two things together

A

Links the conscious mind with the rest of the body

313
Q

the Hypothalamus connects certain parts of the brain all together what are these parts

A

the cerebral cortex with lower brain centres and endocrine system

314
Q

what does the Hypothalamus control (3)

A
  • appetite
  • body temp regulation
  • wake-sleep cycle
315
Q

6 primary hormones the Anterior Pituitary Gland produces

A 
GH
Prolactin
TSH
FSH
LH
ACTH
316
Q

what does the GH hormone do

A

promotes bone and muscle growth and regulates the metabolism of CHO’s, fats and proteins

317
Q

what does prolactin do

A

triggers and maintains lactation

318
Q

what does TSH do

A
  • stimulates the growth and development of the thyroid gland

- regulates the production of hormone from the thyroid gland

319
Q

prolactin is only in ______

A

females

320
Q

what does FSH do

A
  • stimulates the growth and development of ovarian follicles

- stimulates the follicles to produce and secrete estrogen

321
Q

what is the relation between LH and FSH

A

Generally as FSH decreases, LH increases

322
Q

LH does what

A

completes follicle development

323
Q

ACTH does what

A

– stimulates the growth and development of the cortex of the adrenal gland and its secretion of hormones

324
Q

what is the Pituitary Gland connected to

A

hypothalamus gland

325
Q

what is the size of the Pituitary Gland

A

Pea sized

326
Q

2 parts of the Pituitary Gland are

A

Anterior (production) and posterior (storage) pituitary glands

327
Q

does the Posterior Pituitary Gland produce hormones?

A

NO. just stores them

328
Q

what does the Posterior Pituitary Gland do?

A

releases 2 hormones produced in the hypothalamus (ADH, oxytocin)

329
Q

ADH affects what organ

A

kidney

330
Q

what does ADH do

A

conserve water producing more concentrated urine

331
Q

what does oxytocin do

A
  • promoting uterine contractions at birth

- milk let-down during lactation

332
Q

where are the thyroid glands

A

2 lobes located on either side of the larynx

333
Q

what do the thyroid glands do?

A
  • Produces two hormones that help regulate metabolic functions and calcitonin
334
Q

what does calcitonin do

A

regulates blood calcium levels

335
Q

what happens when the thyroid gland is stimulated from the anterior pituitary gland

A

it produces T3 and T4

336
Q

what is Calcitonin also important for (4)

A
  • blood clotting mechanisms
  • secretion of milk
  • muscle contraction
  • maintenance and formation of bone tissue
337
Q

what is the Calorigenic effect

A

impact of body’s energy expenditure

338
Q

what does the thyroid hormone effect

A
  • Regulates metabolic rate of all body’s cells
  • Calorigenic effect
  • maintain constant internal body temperature
339
Q

what are thyroid hormones Necessary for

A

normal growth and development of CNS, muscles and bones in young animals

340
Q

how do thyroid hormones affect metabolism

A
  • synthesis of proteins
  • encourages catabolism of lipids
  • maintains homeostasis of blood glucose level
341
Q

where and what are the parathyroid glands

A

Several small nodules located on or near the thyroid gland

342
Q

what does PTH do

A

regulates blood calcium levels

343
Q

what does an increase in PTH cause

A

force the kidneys and intestines to retain calcium as well as cause calcium to be released from bone supplies

344
Q

PTH is the opposite of what

A

calcitonin

345
Q

what are Epinephrine and norepinephrine involved in

A

the “fight or flight” response

346
Q

what do Glucocorticoid hormones do

A
  • increase BG levels
  • decrease inflammation
  • maintains blood pressure
  • reduces stress
347
Q

2 sex hör Mohnes

A

estrogen & androgens

348
Q

what do Mineralocorticoid hormones do

A
  • directs the kidney in controlling NA, K, and H ions

- controls acid/base balance and ultimately water

349
Q

where are the adrenal glands located

A

near the cranial (top) end of the kidneys

350
Q

what 2 parts make up the adrenal glands

A
  • medulla

- cortex

351
Q

medulla produces what

A

Epinephrine and Norepinephrine

352
Q

cortex produces what

A

Glucocorticoids, Mineralocorticoids, Sex Hormones

353
Q

the pancreas is a what kind of gland

A

endocrine and exocrine gland

354
Q

what is the pancreas

A

Accessory digestive organ

355
Q

how is it an exocrine gland

A

Produces enzymes that are released in the duodenum

356
Q

how is it an endocrine gland

A

Produces hormones

357
Q

why is insulin necessary

A
  • the body to uses it as fuel

- prevents abnormally high blood glucose through absorption into cells

358
Q

what does Glucagon do

A

increases blood glucose levels by stimulating cells in the liver to convert glucagon to glucose.

359
Q

to hormones the pancreas produces

A

insulin

Glucagon

360
Q

gonads are

A

Sex-cell producing organs

361
Q

males have what kind of sex hormones

A

testosterone

362
Q

females have what kind of sex hormones

A

estrogen and progesterone

363
Q

what is Testosterone responsible for

A

development ofmale sexual characteristics

364
Q

do females produce testosterone

A

yes in small amounts

365
Q

6 things Testosterone regulates

A
  • sex drive
  • bone mass
  • fat distribution
  • muscle size and strength
  • red blood cell production
366
Q

how is progesterone produced

A

LH from pituitary gland causes the follicle to rupture and release ovum

367
Q

progesterone does or does not impact behaviour

A

DOES

368
Q

what does progesterone do

A

prepares the lower reproductive tract for breeding as well as mammary development

369
Q

what produces the estrogen hormone

A

the follicles

370
Q

Levels of hormones produced by the ovaries fluctuate in a _______ fashion

A

Levels of hormones produced by the ovaries fluctuate in a cyclical fashion

VAP Lab and Lecture (7 decks)

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