Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

VIROLOGY Practice Questions > Test 1 Deck 2 > Flashcards

Test 1 Deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

The ability of a virus to cause disease in a host is called

A

Pathogenicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The mechanism of disease development is called

A

Pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The degree of pathogenicity of a virus is called

A

Virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What 3 ways can you numerically measure virulence by using lab animals?

A

LD50

ID50

ID50 : LD50 ratio

LD = Lethal Dose

ID = Infectious Dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The dose of the virus that kills 50% of animals is called

A

LD50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The dose of a virus that will *infect *50% of animals is called

A

ID50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does a **low **ID50 and LD50 tell you?

A

A **low **ID50 and LD50 indicate a

**more virulent **organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A **high **ID50 and LD50 tell you what about the organism?

A

A **high **ID50 and LD50 mean that the organism is

less virulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 4 routes of viral entry into a host?

A

Skin

Mucous Membrane

GI Tract

Respiratory Tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What kind of antibodies are found in mucous membranes?

A

IgA antibodies

are found in mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The *mucociliary blanket *is a defense of which portal of viral entry?

A

The *mucociliary blanket *is a defense of the

Respiratory Tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the only portal of entry into a host that utilizes a **temperature gradient **as a defense?

A

Respiratory Tract

has a temperature gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do viruses get to *subepithelial levels *?

A

Viruses can invade *subepithelial tissues *because

**inflammation **destroys epithelium

*or by using *

Transcytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An infection that spreads beyond the primary site of infection is called

A

A Disseminated Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Viruses can shed directionally from infected epithelium.

**Apical Release **of a virus facilitates what?

A

Apical Release

facilitates

Virus Dispersal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Viruses can shed directionally from infected epithelium

Basolateral Release

facilitates what?

A

Basolateral Release

facilitates

Systemic Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is viremia?

A

Viremia is

the presence of a virus in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a virus is **free **in the blood, how long with the viremia last?

A

A **free **virus causes

Short-duration viremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If a virus is **in a cell **like a lymphocyte in the blood, how long will the viremia last?

A

Viruses that are **in a cell **like a lymphocyte in the blood

cause

Prolonged Viremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The initial entry of virus into blood is called

A

Primary Viremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The viremia caused when a virus has replicated in major organs and once more entered circulation

is called

A

Secondary Viremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This type of Viremia is caused by direct inoculation of virus into blood

A

Passive Viremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

List the types of Viremia from shortest time to longest time

A

Shortest time–>Longest time

Passive, Primary, Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List the types of Viremia from low infectivity to high infectivity

A

Low infectivity –> High infectivity

Primary, Passive, Secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of viremia is characterized by

long time

and

high infectivity?

A

Secondary Viremia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A virus in blood interacts with macrophages

and creates a trojan horse.

What does this mean?

A

Trojan Horse

is when

trafficking monocytes transport the virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does the host clear viruses from the bloodstream?

A

The host clears viruses from the bloodstream by using

Mononuclear phagocytes

Antibodies

Complement System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where are mononuclear phagocytes generated?

A

Mononuclear phagocytes are generated in the

Spleen, Liver, and Bone Marrow

and help to clear viruses from the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A virus that can infect neural cells is called

A

Neurotropic Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A virus that enters the CNS after infection of a peripheral site is called

A

Neuroinvasive Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A virus that **if **it enters the CNS, causes disease of neural tissue

leading to neurological symptoms and death

is called

A

Neurovirulent Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 4 routes of Neural Spread of Viruses?

A

Axons

Perineural Lymphatics

Endoneural Space

Schwaan Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of neural spread travels the same direction of the nerve impulse from cell body to dendrite to axon?

A

Cell body –> Dendrite –> Axon

Anterograde Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of neural spread travels the *opposite *direction of nerve impulse flow from axon to dendrite to cell body?

A

Axon –> Dendrite –> Cell Body

Retrograde Spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When a virus travels **towards **the brain and CNS, what kind of movement is it exhibiting?

A

**Towards **the brain and CNS

Centripetal Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A virus that travels **away from **the brain and CNS and to the periphery is exhibiting what type of movement?

A

**Away from **the brain and CNS

**Centrifugal **Movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When viruses spread to the CNS via olfactory routes, what type of neural spread do they use?

A

Olfactory routes –> CNS

via

Anterograde spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do viruses get through the blood-brain barrier?

A

By secreting TNF

(To increase endothelial permeability)

By using MMP

(To breakdown endothelial cell junctions)

By using a Trojan Horse

(Getting trafficked by monocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of viral infection do you have if the virus sheds intensively for a short period of time?

A

Acute Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What kind of viral infection do you have if the virus sheds at

low titers for a long period of time?

A

Persistent Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The specificity and affinity of a virus for a particular host tissue is called

A

Tropism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What do you call viruses that can replicate in more than one host organ/ tissue?

A

Pantropic Viruses

can replicated in more than one host tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A bullseye red rash is pathognomonic for what disease?

A

Lyme Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

This type of skin ailment is characterized by a sloughing off of necrotic tissue

A

Ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A benign skin growth that appears when a virus infects the top layer of skin

A

Warts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A skin ailment with solid elevations, no fluid, and has sharp borders

A

Papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The reddening of skin caused by a systemic viral infection is called

A

Erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Viral-Bacterial Synergism is exhibited in which portal of viral entry?

A

Respiratory tract

has Viral-Bacterial Synergism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are 5 injuries sustained by viral transplacental infection ?

A

Teratogenesis

Cerebellar Hypoplasia

Arthrogryposis

Porencephaly

Congenital hydraencephaly

Are caused by viral transplacental infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Susceptibility to teratogens ________ with fetal age

A

Susceptibility to teratogens decreases with fetal age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Persistent infections, PI Calves, and Immunotolerant calves are seen in transplacental infection of Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) between __ to __ months.

A

When a cow fetus contracts BVD between

2 to 4 months

The calves will live, but have persistent infections, or be immunotolerant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

If BVD is contracted while the fetus is between 5-9 months, what is the result?

A

Abortion or Deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is tissue damage caused in virus-induced immunopathology?

A

Tissue damage is from hypersensitivity reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

*Moon- Blindness *is an example of what type of disease in horses?

A

Moon-Blindness

is an

Autoimmune Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

True or False

Latent, Chronic, and Slow Infections are all types of Persistent Infections

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What type of viral infection is only demonstrated when reactivation occurs (during periods of immunosuppression)?

A

Latent (Persistent) Infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

**Cold Sores **and **Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis **are examples of what type of viral infection?

A

Latent (Persistent) Infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A viral infection with a prolonged incubation period is called

A

Slow (Persistent) Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Slow viral infections are progressive and lethal. What causes these types of infections and give an example.

A

**Prions **cause Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are cytocidal effects of viruses on host cells?

A

Lysis and Apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A non-cytocidal effect of a virus on a host cell is

A

Persistent Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cell Transformation is an effect of a virus on a host cell that leads to what type of cell?

A

Tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Damage or morphological changes to host cells during virus replication is called

A

CPE or

Cytopathic Effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Complete destruction of cells, subtotal destruction of cells, and focal destruction of cells are all forms of what?

A

All are forms of

CPE- Cytopathic Effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Histologically, what do you see in cells undergoing Cytopathic Effect?

A

Cell Lysis

Cell Rounding

Cell Detachment (death)

Vacuolation of Cytoplasm

Inclusion Bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

An inclusion body that is an accumulation of *viral components *called Negri bodies is produced by which virus?

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What virus causes Owl’s Eye inclusion bodies, the result of degenerative changes in cells?

A

**Herpes Virus **

causes Owl’s Eye inclusion bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Inclusion bodies composed of *crystalline aggregates of virions *is caused by what virus?

A

Adenovirus

causes

crystalline virion inclusion bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Herpes virus, Morbillivirus, and some Paramyxoviruses can cause the formation of this.

A

Syncytium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The fusion of **4 or more **plasma membranes to produce an enlarged cell with 4 or more nuclei is called _________ formation

A

Syncytium formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

True or False

Only naked viruses are capable of syncytium formation.

A

FALSE

Only *enveloped *viruses can form syncytium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Syncytia formation may be the only detectable CPE (cytopathic effect) in which kind of viruses?

A

Synctia formation may be the only detectable CPE in

Paramyxoviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are 4 mechanisms employed by viruses to cause cell injury or death?

A

Inhibition of Host Cell:

Nucleic Acid Synthesis

RNA Transcription

Protein Synthesis

Cell Membrane Function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When viruses interfere with host cell membrane function, this promotes ________ formation

A

Syncytia/ Cell fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How is Apoptosis different from Lysis

A

Apoptosis is a last ditch effort to eliminate viral factories within the cell.

Lysis happens when the virions have already been made, and are released when the cell is lysed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Non-cytocidal changes in virus infected cells are often associated with persistent infections.

These changes mostly occur in

________ virus infections.

A

Non-cytocidal changes in virus infected cells are often associated with persistent infections.

These changes mostly occur in

RNA virus infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 2 Apoptotic Pathways?

A

Mitochondrial (Intrinsic) Pathway

and

Death Receptor (Extrinsic) Pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

This apoptotic pathway is initiated when **TNF **and **Fas **membrane receptors are activated

A

Death Receptor (Extrinsic) Pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

**Perforin **and **granzyme **are used in which apoptotic pathway?

A

Death Receptor (Extrinsic) Pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity is something only ______ viruses can do.

A

Enveloped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

An enveloped virus can fuse to the surface of a host cell which causes cross-linking. This cross-linking tells NK cells to kill the host cell by APOPTOSIS.

Essentially, the host cell has become the target of its own immune system.

Name this mechanism of virus-induced cell death

A

Antibody Dependent Cell Mediated Cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is neoplasia?

A

Abnormal tissue overgrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The study of neoplasms and neoplasia is called

A

Oncology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Neoplasms (tumors) are derived from what?

A

A single genetically altered progenitor cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the steps of the Cell Cycle?

A

G1

S

G2

M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Growth and DNA replication happen in what phase of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Encoded proteins that function for *regular *cell growth and differentiation are known as

A

Proto-oncogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Tumor-suppressor genes inhibit uncontrolled growth of cells by holding them in this phase of the cell cycle

89
Q

Rb (Retinoblastoma Protein), P16, and P53 are example of what?

A

Rb, P16, and P53 are

tumor suppressor genes

90
Q

What is the role of unphosphorylated Rb?

A

To bind to E2F and *prevent *its activity

The binding *stops *G1 from going to S phase

91
Q

Which form of Rb Protein cannot bind to E2F?

A

**Phosphorylated Rb **cannot bind to E2F

so G1 proceeds to S phase

92
Q

What is the function of P16 tumor suppressor gene?

A

To block CDK so it cannot phosphorylate Rb

resulting in NO cell division

93
Q

What does P53 tumor suppressor gene do?

A

P53 activates the DNA repair cycle and stops the cell cycle at G1

94
Q

When a proto-oncogene is mutated, it forms an oncogene. What can cause this mutation to occur?

A

Virus, UV rays, and Chemicals

95
Q

Receptors encoded by oncogenes do not require this regulatory step to become active.

A

Oncogene encoded receptors do not require the binding of a ligand to become active

96
Q

A mutation in a tumor suppressor gene like Rb, P16, and P53, results in what?

A

An ineffective protein which causes cancer

97
Q

What kind of viruses are the most important oncogenic viruses?

A

RETROVIRUSES are the most important oncogenic viruses

98
Q

Retroviruses, Papillomaviruses, Polyomaviruses, and Herpesviruses can all cause

99
Q

What does it mean when a viral genome remains episomal?

A

The viral genome is episomal because it

never integrates into the host genome.

It instead has an

autonomous replicating system

100
Q

_______ oncogenes induce transformation and have no homolog or direct ancestors

A

DNA oncogenes have no homolog or direct ancestors

101
Q

A productive infection by a **DNA oncogenic virus **does what to the host cell after completing replication with in it?

A

A productive infection by a DNA oncogenic virus

causes cell lysis of the host cell

102
Q

An autonomously replicating plasmid is called

A

an EPISOME

103
Q

Episomes are associated with what type of DNA oncogenic virus infection?

A

Non-Productive Infections

are associated with

Episomes

104
Q

The viral DNA of a benign wart caused by oncogenic Papillomaviruses is ________

A

The viral DNA of a benign wart caused by oncogenic Papillomaviruses is episomal

105
Q

The viral DNA of malignant cancers like HPV is _________

A

The viral DNA of malignant cancers like HPV is integrated into the host cell

106
Q

Papillomaviruses, Polyomaviruses, and Herpesviruses

are all _______ oncogenic viruses

A

Papillomaviruses, Polyomaviruses, and Herpesviruses

are all DNA oncogenic viruses

107
Q

The only RNA viruses come from which RNA virus family?

A

Retroviridae Family

108
Q

Which type of RNA oncogenic virus has V-ONC ?

A

Acutely transforming retroviruses have V-ONC

109
Q

V-ONCs are under the control of _______

A

V-ONCs are under the control of the strong promoter LTRs (Large Terminal Repeats)

110
Q

E1A and E1B

are the oncoproteins of which DNA virus?

A

Adenovirus

has E1A and E1B

111
Q

E6 and E7 are oncoproteins of which DNA Virus?

A

Papillomavirus (HPV)

have

E6 and E7 oncoproteins

112
Q

Transformed (neoplastic) cells have what 3 characteristics?

A

Transformed cells are

spindle-shaped, have a loss of contact inhibition, and show tumor antigens on their surface

113
Q

**Defensins **are a first line defense component of Innate Immunity found in what part of the body?

A

**Defensins **are found in the GI Tract

114
Q

The **mucociliary blanket **of the **Respiratory Tract **can trap particles larger than ____µm

A

The mucociliary blanket can trap particles larger than

10 µm

115
Q

The mucociliary blanket is mainly composed of this type of cell.

A

**Goblet Cells **

116
Q

NK cells, a component of Innate Immunity, contain two types cytoplasmic granules. What are they?

A

**NK cells **contain

**Perforin **and Granzyme

117
Q

**TLRs **(Toll-like Receptors) are a type of _______ receptor

A

**TLRs **are a type of PRR (Pattern Recognition Receptor)

118
Q

Cytokines secreted by somatic cells in response to viral infection are called

A

Interferons (IFNs)

119
Q

True or False

RNA viruses are stronger inducers of IFNs than DNA viruses

A

TRUE

**RNA viruses **induce **IFNs **stronger

120
Q

**IFN-a **is a Type 1 interferon produced by virus-infected

________ _______

A

**IFN-a **is produced by virus-infected

dendritic cells

121
Q

**IFN-B **is a **Type 1 **interferon produced by

virus-infected _________

A

**IFN-B **is produced by

virus-infected fibroblasts

IFN-<strong>B</strong>= fi<strong>B</strong>roblasts

122
Q

Which type 1 interferon is host specific?

A

**IFN-B **is host specific

123
Q

IFN-y is a type __ interferon

A

IFN-y is a type **2 **interferon

124
Q

Type 2 **IFN-y **is produced by antigen stimulated

__ cells and ___ cells

A

IFN-y is produced by

**T cells **and NK cells

125
Q

**Type 3 **interferons are expressed when ______ are activated

A

**Type 3 **interferons are expressed when TLRs are activated

126
Q

NK cells, IFNs, Cytokines, PRR, PAMPs, and TLRs are all components of what?

A

Innate Immunity

127
Q

What are the two host specific IFNs?

A

IFN-B and IFN-y

are host specific interferons

128
Q

Humoral Immunity, a component of Adaptive Immunity is mediated by antibodies released from _______

A

Antibodies released from

B-lymphocytes

mediate Humoral Immunity

129
Q

Cellular Adaptive Immunity is mediated by

__________

A

Cellular Adaptive Immunity is mediated by

T-Lymphocytes

130
Q

What type of immunity elicits CMI response?

A

**Cellular **immunity elicits CMI response

131
Q

Which T-lymphocytes are the “helper” T-lymphocytes?

A

CD4+

helper T-lymphocytes

132
Q

Which lymphocytes are cytotoxic?

A

CD8+ cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

133
Q

What do CD4+ helper T-lymphocytes activate?

A

CD4+ activates:

Macrophages, inflammation, and B-lymphocyte stimulation

134
Q

True or False

CMI (cell mediated immunity) is initiated by both internal and surface viral antigens

A

TRUE!

CMI initiated by both!

135
Q

Only ______ viral antigens elicit a Humoral response

A

Only surface viral antigens elicit a Humoral Response

136
Q

T/F

Antigenic plasticity is how a virus becomes resistant

A

TRUE

Antigenic Plasticity = Virus Resistance

137
Q

Serotypes are an example of antigenic _______

A

Serotypes are an example of antigenic multiplicity

138
Q

_______ synthesize homolog proteins to cytokines/IFNs

139
Q

________ encode homolog proteins to compete with cytokine receptors

A

Viroceptors

140
Q

These two viruses make *caspase inhibitors *inhibit apoptosis

A

Poxviruses and Herpesviruses

make caspase inhibitors

141
Q

The % of deaths among clinically ill animals

A

Case Fatality Rate

142
Q

The % of animals that die from a disease

A

Mortality Rate

143
Q

The % of animals that develop clinical signs over a period of time

A

Morbidity Rate

144
Q

The # of new cases in a population

145
Q

The # of old and new cases in a population

A

Prevalence

146
Q

When a virus is constantly present in a certain region, it is called

A

Enzootic

(endemic)

147
Q

When more cases of a viral disease occur in a region than expected, it is called

A

Epizootic

(epidemic)

148
Q

When an enzootic viral disease occurs over a very large area and effects a large portion of the population, it is called

A

Panzootic

(pandemic)

149
Q

What type of epidemiology determines efficacy of vaccines?

A

Molecular Epidemiology

150
Q

What are the 5 forms of Horizontal Transmission?

A

Contact

Vector

Vehicle-Borne

Iatrogenic

Nosocomial

151
Q

Sneezing and coughing are forms of ______ contact

A

direct contact

the droplet travels **less than 1 meter **from the source

152
Q

If a virus travels **more than 1 meter **it is considered _______ contact

A

Indirect contact; Airborne

153
Q

_________ can transmit viruses indirectly and include things like

shared eating containers

bedding

dander

clothing

vehicles

154
Q

Transovarial Transmission and Trans-stadial transmission are both forms of ________

A

Overwintering

155
Q

Which mechanism of overwintering involved vertical transmission?

A

Transovarial Transmission

156
Q

When a virus is transmitted from a *primary insect vector *to a WILD animals, what transmission cycle is it considered?

A

Enzootic Transmission Cycle

Wild animal <– –> Primary Insect Vector

157
Q

What transmission cycle is it when a virus is transmitted from a

*Primary or Accessory Insect Vector *to a DOMESTIC animal?

A

EPIzootic Transmission Cycle

Domestic <– –> Primary or Accessory insect

158
Q

When a human gets a virus from an insect vector, it is called _______ Cycle of Transmission

A

Urban Transmission Cycle

Human <– –> Insect

159
Q

An infection transmitted during medical or surgical practice is called ______ infection

A

Iatrogenic

160
Q

A hospital acquired infection is called ________ infection

A

Nosocomial infection

161
Q

When a virus is transmitted from the mother to the fetus/neonate, it is called _________ transmission

A

VERTICAL transmission

162
Q

Akabene, Bluetongue, and Feline Parvovirus are viruses that are transmitted vertically and cause ______ _______

A

Congenital Defects

163
Q

BVD, Border Disease, and Porcine enterovirus are viruses transmitted vertically that can cause

_____ _____

A

Congenital DISEASE

164
Q

What are the 5 periods in the course of a typical infectious disease?

A

Incubation Period

Prodromal Period

Acute Period

Decline Period

Convalescent Period

165
Q

A pathogen that is unlikely to cause human or animal disease is classified into what risk group in the Box 1 Classification System?

A

Risk group #1

no or low risk pathogen

166
Q

A pathogen that can cause *moderate individual risk *and **low **community risk is found in which Box 1 risk group?

A

Risk Group **#2 **

moderate individual and low community

167
Q

A pathogen that is *high individual risk *and **low **community risk is

in which Box 1 Risk Group?

A

Risk Group #3

high individual risk

low community risk

168
Q

A pathogen with *high individual risk *and **high **community risk is in

which Box 1 Risk Group?

A

Risk Group #4

HIGH individual and HIGH community

169
Q

Effective treatment is NOT available for pathogens in which Box 1 risk group?

A

Risk Group #4

170
Q

What are features of a maximum containment BSL-4 Lab?

A

Positively air pressurized **(+) suits **with HEPA filtration and air supply

Negative air pressure maintained in the (-)lab

Incoming and outgoing air is HEPA filtered

Sterilization through double door autoclaving system

Suit decontamination **shower **when leaving

171
Q

For **virus isolation **specimens should be collected as soon after the onset of symptoms as possible, during which periods?

A

Virus Isolation specimen

collected during

Prodromal or Acute Periods

172
Q

For serological tests, two blood specimens are collected. During which periods are they collected?

A

Serological Tests

need blood specimens from

Acute Period AND Convalescence Period

173
Q

Samples for **Molecular Diagnostics **should be collected during the _______ part of the illness

A

Molecular Diagnostics

need sample from the

EARLY part of illness

174
Q

What samples are taken from a live animal with a

Respiratory or Ocular Disease

A

Nasal and Conjunctival Swabs

and

Blood

175
Q

What samples are taken from a live animal with a

Skin Disease

or

Lesions of Mucous Membranes?

A

Scrapings of lesion

Swab of the affected area

and

Blood

176
Q

What samples are taken from a live animal with a

Gastroenteritis Disease?

A

Feces and blood

177
Q

What samples are taken from a live animal with a

Systemic Disease?

A

Blood

Nasal and Urogenital Swabs

Feces

178
Q

What samples are taken from a live animal with a

CNS Disease?

A

Blood

Cerebrospinal Fluid

Feces

Nasal and Urogenital Swabs

179
Q

What samples are taken from a live animal with a

Urinary Tract Disease?

A

Urogenital swab

Urine

Blood

180
Q

What samples are taken from a live animal that has had an

Abortion?

A

Blood from mother

Vaginal mucus

181
Q

What samples are taken from an animal

POSTMORTEM?

A

For most diseases, take

tissue from the affected area

and

lymph nodes

EXCEPT FOR: Gastroenteritis- need intestinal contents

                     Systemic Disease- various organ tissues

                      Abortion- Tissues from placenta and fetus, blood                                            from fetal heart and intestinal contents
182
Q

What type of speciment should NEVER be frozen?

A

A specimen for

Histopathologic Examination

183
Q

Instead of freezing a specimen for histopathologic examination, you should fix it with what?

A

10 % buffered formalin

184
Q

Viral Transport Medium (VTM) is made of what two things?

A

VTM is a

buffered salt solution

with added

protein

185
Q

Which types of added protein are okay for use in VTM?

A

Gelatin, Albumin, or Fetal Bovine Serum (FBS)

186
Q

Homogenization is how you process samples of

_______

187
Q

A vortex mixer and phosphate buffer saline or water are used to process _______

188
Q

What type of electron microscopy utilizes a heavy metal salt and a carbon coated copper grid?

A

Negative Stain EM

189
Q

For Negative Stain EM, the fluid matrix must contain how many virions per mL?

A

106 - 107 virions per mL

190
Q

Which type of EM focuses on viral surfaces and composition?

A

Scanning EM (SEM)

191
Q

What type of electron microscopy focuses on the inside of a virus, beyond the surface?

A

TEM (transmission electron microscopy)

192
Q

Which EM produces 3D images?

A

**SEM **produces 3D images

193
Q

Which EM produces images with **higher resolution **and higher magnification?

194
Q

The probability that cases with the infection will have a positive test result is called

A

Sensitivity

195
Q

The probability that cases **without the infection **will have a **negative **test result is called

A

Specificity

196
Q

You use a RED top vacutainer tube to collect _______

A

Serum

is in the **RED **top tube

197
Q

You use a PURPLE top EDTA vacutainer tube to collect _____

A

Plasma

is in the **Purple **Tube

198
Q

The purple top vacutainer tubes are treated with what?

A

An anticoagulant

This is so the blood won’t clot, but the plasma will

199
Q

Antigens are immobilized and enzyme conjugate *primary *antibodies are used in ______ ELISA

A

Direct ELISA

200
Q

Enzyme conjugated *secondary antibodies *are used in

_______ ELISA

A

Indirect ELISA

201
Q

The antigen is bound between a layer of *capture antibodies *and a layer of detection antibodies in _______ ELISA

A

Sandwich ELISA

202
Q

The antigen and purified immobilized antigen compete for binding with the capture antibody in _______ ELISA

A

Competitive ELISA

203
Q

In Competitive ELISA, a decrease in signal signifies what?

A

Decrease of signal = PRESENCE of antigens in sample

204
Q

What two compounds can be used to fluorescently label antibodies in the FAT test?

A

FITC or Rhodamine

205
Q

When will you see visible fluorescence in a FAT test?

A

When there is an Ag-Ab reaction

206
Q

What type of serological assay uses Horseradish Peroxidase to tag the antibody?

A

Immunohistochemistry

207
Q

In what type of serological assay is a colored product seen in the infected cells using a standard light microscope?

A

Immunohistochemistry

208
Q

What serological assay is a POC (point of care) test?

A

Immunochromatography (Lateral Flow Devices)

209
Q

The Ab is labeled with colloidal gold in what serological assay?

A

Immunochromatography (Lateral Flow)

210
Q

In order to confirm Avian Influenza and PPR (peste des petits) in cows, which serological assay is used?

A

Hemagglutination Inhibition Test

211
Q

Which serological assay tests for ANTIBODIES against

Avian Influenza, Equine Infectious Anemia, and Enzootic Bovine Leukosis?

A

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion Test

212
Q

In a complement fixation test, RBCs settling in a pellet indicate what?

A

No lysis, reactive

213
Q

A nonreactive complement fixation test indicates ______ of RBCs

214
Q

What serological assay involves a separation gel and autoradiography?

A

Immunoblotting

215
Q

Ab binding to viral glycoprotein spikes that results in inhibited RBC binding is descriptive of what serological assay?

A

Hemadsorption Inhibition Assay

216
Q

The fact that a virus loses infectivity when it binds to a specific antibody, is the basis of this serological assay

A

Neutralization Assay

217
Q

IgM antibodies in a sample are indicative of what?

A

A recent infection = IgM

218
Q

Which method of IgM Antibody Assay starts with a labeled anti-canine IgM antibody and ends with a virus?

A

Indirect IgM Antibody Assay

219
Q

Which IgM Antibody Assay method starts with a labeled antivirus antibody and ends with an anti-canine IgM antibody?

A

IgM Antibody Capture method

VIROLOGY Practice Questions (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions