Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The first pandemic ever recorded was caused by _________ virus in 1590 when it spread from Russia to Europe.

A

Influenza Virus

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2
Q

The most lethal outbreak on record killed 50-100 million people in 1918. What virus caused it?

A

Influenza Virus

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3
Q

_________ was the first method used to immunize a person against Smallpox

A

Variolation/Inoculation

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4
Q

Who invented the smallpox vaccine by using “cowpox material”?

A

Edward Jenner

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5
Q

Who invented the rabies vaccine after injecting a rabbit’s brain with potassium hydroxide?

A

Louis Pasteur

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6
Q

Who invented the filter with pores smaller that bacteria?

A

Charles Chamberland

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7
Q

Who discovered the Tobacco Mosaic Virus?

A

Dmitri Ivanovski

DMitri –> Mosaic

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8
Q

Who discovered the cause of foot-and-mouth disease by passing the virus through a filter?

A

Loeffler and Frosch

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9
Q

Named “the conqueror of yellow fever”, who discovered that yellow fever was spread by mosquitoes?

A

Dr. Walter Reed

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10
Q

Who discovered oncogenic viruses and subsequently won a Nobel Prize for its discovery?

A

Peyton Rous

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11
Q

Which two scientists invented the Electron Microscope?

A

Ruska and Knoll

MERK

Microscope Electron invented by Ruska and Knoll

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12
Q

Woodruff, Goodpasture, and Burnet propagated this virus in embryonated eggs.

A

Fowlpox virus

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13
Q

What is the difference between a virion and a virus?

A

A virion is the complete, mature, infective form of a virus.

A virus is a broad, general term that describes any aspect of the infectious agent

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14
Q

What is the name for an infectious particle, smaller than any known viruses, and is an agent of plant disease?

A

Viriod

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15
Q

When was the last reported outbreak of the now eradicated virus Rinderpest?

A

Kenya in 2001

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16
Q

What is the very smallest virus, at 17 nm?

A

Porcine circovirus type 1

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17
Q

What is the very largest virus at 400 nm?

A

Pandoravirus

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18
Q

Spherical viruses, like Rotavirus have what kind of symmetry?

A

Cubic/Icosahedral

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19
Q

The ability of some viruses to alter their size or shape is called _________.

A

Pleiomorphism

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20
Q

What are the four methods used to determine morphology of Viruses?

A

EM
Cryo-EM
X-Ray Crystallography
NMR

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21
Q

Most viruses have 1 capsid. What is the exception?

A

Reoviruses have 2 capsids

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22
Q

What is the basic subunit protein of the viral capsid?

A

Capsomere

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23
Q

All animal nucleocapsids with helical symmetry have what?

A

A lipoprotein envelope

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24
Q

What kind of viruses have naked helical nucleocapsids?

A

Plant Viruses like the Tobacco Mosaic Virus

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25
Q

An Icosahedron is a solid with ____vertices, _____facets, and _____edges.

A

12 corners/vertices, 20 facets, 30 edges

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26
Q

The number of which type of capsomere, a penton or a hexon, varies with the virus group?

A

The # of hexons varies, the pentons are always at the 12 vertices

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27
Q

Only _______ viruses have icosahedral symmetry

A

Spherical

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28
Q

What is the formula for calculating T number?

A

T= (h)2 + (h)(k) + (k)2

h and k are jumps from penton to penton in different directions

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29
Q

What is the simplest icosahedron virus with its T number equal to 1 and 60 copies of capsomere protein?

A

Parvovirus

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30
Q

For Reoviridae, what is the T number for the outer capsid? The inner capsid?

A
Outer = 13
Inner = 2
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31
Q

Poxviruses and Bacteriophage have what kind of symmetry?

A

Complex symmetry

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32
Q

The capsid serves as a core of replication in what two viruses?

A

Reovirus and Retrovirus

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33
Q

Does a naked virus or an enveloped virus cause persistent infections?

A

Enveloped virus

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34
Q

What embedded envelope protein serves as the major antigens of the virus?

A

Glycoprotein (external)

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35
Q

What embedded envelope protein plays a crucial role in virus assembly?

A

Matrix Protein

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36
Q

Hemagglutin (HA) and Neuramidase (NP) are examples of what kind of envelope protein?

A

Viral envelope glycoproteins

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37
Q

Fusion proteins can be pH dependent or pH independent. Name two viruses with pH independent fusion proteins.

A

HIV and Measles

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38
Q

Which is easier to sterilize: enveloped or non-enveloped viruses?

A

Enveloped viruses are easier to sterilize

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39
Q

Which survives longer in the environment: enveloped or non-enveloped viruses?

A

Non-enveloped viruses survive longer in the environment

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40
Q

What kind of solvents can inactivate an enveloped virus?

A

Lipid solvents

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41
Q

Which sense of viral RNA is considered the infectious genome?

A

(+) sense viral RNA is the infectious genome

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42
Q

What mechanism of viral genetic diversity can lead to virus resistance to antiviral drugs?

A

Antigenic Drift can cause virus resistance.

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43
Q

Reassortment and Recombination are types of what mechanism of genetic diversity?

A

Reassortment and Recombination are forms of Antigenic SHIFT

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44
Q

What is the most important mechanism for high genetic diversity?

A

Reassortment – Antigenic Shift

Reassortment

Look at dat ass in those genes”

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45
Q

What is the smallest, double stranded, circular DNA virus at 5 kbp?

A

Polyomaviridae

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46
Q

What is the largest, double stranded, linear DNA virus at 235 kbp?

A

Herpesvirinae

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47
Q

What is the smallest RNA virus at 2 kbp?

A

Deltavirus

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48
Q

What is the largest RNA virus at 30 kbp?

A

Coronaviridae

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49
Q

Viral proteins make up what percent of the virion?

A

50-70%

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50
Q

VP7 and VP4 are examples of ________ proteins that form the capsid in Rotavirus

A

VP7 and VP4 are structural proteins

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51
Q

NSP1 – NSP5 are examples of ________proteins in Rotavirus; proteins that are encoded by the virus but made in the host cell

A

NSP1 - NSP5 are nonstructural proteins

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52
Q

What are the 4 aberrations in virus morphology?

A

Incomplete virions
Defective virions
Pseudovirions
Pseudotypes

Gotta do<strong>DIPPs</strong>to get good<strong>abs</strong>

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53
Q

A virion without a nucleic acid, also known as an empty capsid, is called what?

A

Incomplete virion

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54
Q

A virus that cannon replicate because it lacks a full copy of genes is called what?

A

Defective virion

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55
Q

What is a DIP? What does it do?

A

Defective Interfering Particle

A defective virion that cannot replicate, but can interfere with other mature viruses entering cells

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56
Q

What type of aberration in virus morphology is used to deliver DNA vaccines? Why?

A

Pseudovirions

Because it is a nonviral genome inside a viral capsid

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57
Q

When two viruses infect the same cell and the genome of one virus gets into the capsid of the other, what is this called?

A

Pseudotypes

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58
Q

What are two names for the disease in pigs caused by Pestivirus?

A

Hog Cholera
Classical Swine Fever

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59
Q

The Baltimore Classification System categorizes viruses based on viral genome into how many groups?

A

7 groups

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60
Q

Double stranded DNA is classified into which group of the Baltimore Classification System?

A

Group 1

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61
Q

Single stranded DNA is classified into which group of the Baltimore Classification System?

A

Group 2

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62
Q

Double stranded RNA is classified into which group of the Baltimore Classification System?

A

Group 3

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63
Q

Single stranded RNA (+) sense is classified into which group of the Baltimore Classification System?

A

Group 4

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64
Q

Single stranded RNA (-) sense is classified into which group of the Baltimore Classification System?

A

Group 5

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65
Q

(+) single stranded RNA with a DNA intermediate is classified into which group of the Baltimore Classification System?

A

Group 6

66
Q

Double stranded DNA with a single stranded RNA intermediate is classified into which group of the Baltimore Classification System?

A

Group 7

67
Q

According to the ICTV, an order ends with the suffix ______?

A

–virales

68
Q

According to the ICTV, a family ends with the suffix ______?

A

–viriDae

69
Q

According to the ICTV, a subfamily ends with the suffix ______?

A

–viriNae

70
Q

According to the ICTV, a genus ends with the suffix _______?

A

–virus

71
Q

This family of viruses is characterized by having an envelope and being single stranded. This RNA virus family includes BVD, Hog Cholera, West Nile Virus, Louping Ill, and Equine Arteritis Virus. What is it?

A

Family Flaviviridae

72
Q

Scrapie, Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy, and Mad Cow Disease are all caused by what?

A

Prions

73
Q

What are 4 ways to grow and cultivate viruses?

A

Cell/Tissue Culture

Inoculation in Embryonated Egg

Lab Animals

Organ Culture

74
Q

Can viruses reproduce via binary fission?

A

NO

75
Q

What are the 3 types of cell culture?

A

Primary cell culture

Secondary/Transfer cell culture

Cell lines

76
Q

What kind of cell culture is best for isolating and propagating viruses?

A

Primary cell culture is best for isolating and propagting viruses

77
Q

What kind of cell culture is used for making vaccines?

A

Primary cell culture is used for making vaccines

78
Q

After the first subculture, a primary cell culture becomes a ______ _______

A

cell line

79
Q

How many subcultures can you take from a primary cell culture?

A

5 - 20 subcultures

80
Q

How many subcultures can you take from a Finite Diploid Cell Line?

A

100 subcultures

81
Q

What are Finite Diploid Cell Lines derived from?

A

Embryos or Secondary Cell Cultures

82
Q

WI-38 is a cell culture line made of fibroblasts, derived from the lung tissue of a 3 month old white female fetus. What kind of cell line is WI-38?

A

WI-38 is a Finite Diploid Cell Line

83
Q

What kind of cell line exhibits *contact inhibition *and anchorage dependence?

A

Finite Diploid Cell Line

exhibits contact inibition and anchorage dependence

84
Q

Continuous Cell Lines, also known as Immortal or Heteroploid Cell Lines, are derived from what kind of cells?

A

Continuous cell lines are derived

from cancer cells

85
Q

Which type of cell line has a rapid growth rate, with doubling time from 12 to 24 hours?

A

Continuous cell line

86
Q

HeLa Cells (Henrietta Lacks) are an example of what kind of cell line?

A

HeLa cells are an example of a

Continuous cell line

87
Q

The FDA prohibits the use of this cell line in vaccines

A

Continuous cell lines

are prohibited from being used in vaccines

88
Q

A cell in cell culture is seen with the following morphology:

Bipolar or multipolar

Elongated shape

Growing attached to a substrate

What kind of cell is it?

A

If the cell is bipolar or multipolar with an elongated shape and growing attached to a substrate, the cell is considered

Fibroblastic

89
Q

A cell in cell culture is seen with the following morphology:

Polygonal in shape

Regular dimensions

Growing in patches attached to a substrate

What kind of cell is it?

A

A polygonal cell in culture with regular dimensions seen growing in patches attached to a substrate is an

Epithelial-like cell

90
Q

A cell in cell culture is seen with the following morphology:

Spherical in shape

Growing in a suspension and not attached to any substrate

What kind of cell is it?

A

A spherically shaped cell seen growing in a suspension has

Lymphoblast-like

morphology

91
Q

There are 3 kinds of morphologies seen in cells in culture: Fibroblastic, Epithelial-like, and Lymphoblast-like. Which one is the only one seen growing unattached to a substrate aka in a suspension?

A

Lymphoblast-like

92
Q

What is the purpose of cell culture media?

A

Cell culture media provides all the necessary nutrients required for a cell to grow

Amino acids

Inorganic salts

Vitamins

Glucose

93
Q

Serum is a source of what 4 things?

A
  1. Adhesion factors
  2. Attachment factors
  3. Nutrients
  4. Growth factors
94
Q

What is the *most *widely used serum supplement?

A

FBS

(Fetal Bovine Serum)

95
Q

Growth medium is ____% serum

A

Growth medium is *5-10% *serum

96
Q

Maintenance Medium is ____% serum

A

Maintenance Medium is *0-2% *serum

97
Q

If you’re using *Phenol Red pH Indicator *and your culture turns RED, what does this tell you about your culture?

A

RED = Basicity (Alkalinity)

Your culture has a pH greater than 7

98
Q

If you’re using *Phenol Red pH Indicator *and your culture turns YELLOW, what does this tell you about your culture?

A

YELLOW = Acidic

Your culture has a pH less than 7

99
Q

What is HEPES?

A

An organic buffer used to control the pH of culture

100
Q

What % of CO2is considered normal for cell culture?

A

*4-10% *CO2 is considered normal

101
Q

Gentamicin Sulfate and Kanamycin Monosulfate are examples of what?

A

Antimicrobial agents used to prevent contamination from

Bacteria, mycoplasma, yeast, and mold

102
Q

Damage or morphological changes to host cells during virus invasion is called what?

A

Cytopathic Effect (CPE)

103
Q

Cellular vacuolization, the opening of intercellular junctions, and cell detachment are examples of what?

A

Cytopathic Effect (CPE)

104
Q

What kind of techniques would you use for rapid cell culture?

A

Use the Shell Vial Technique or Co-Cultivated Cell Technique for rapid cell culture

105
Q

What type of rapid cell culture is ideal for the isolation of multiple viruses?

A

Co-Cultivated Cells Technique

106
Q

What is **R-MIX **and what is it used for?

A

R-mix is a mixed monolayer of mink lung cells and human adenocarcinoma cells

It is used for Co-Cultivated Cell Technique in the detection of viral antigens

107
Q

In egg candling, a method of cultivating viruses in eggs, what does a *blood ring *​indicate?

A

A blood ring indicates a

dead embryo

;(

108
Q

What are the 4 routes of egg inoculation?

A

Chorioallantoic Membrane Inoculation (CAM)

Amniotic Inoculation

Allantoic Inoculation

Yolk-Sac Inoculation

109
Q

What does it mean if you see any of the following in an egg inoculation?

Death of embryo Urate deposits in mesonephros

Paralysis or sluggish movement Hemorrhage and congestion

Stunted growth Hemagglutins in embryonic fluid

Urate deposits in mesonephros Extracellular Membrane lesions

                                       Pocks on Chorioallantoic Membrane (CAM)
A

All of these things indicate

virus growth

in egg inoculation

110
Q

What type of centrifugation is based on buoyancy?

A

Isopycnic Centrifugation

is based on buoyancy

111
Q

The point where the buoyant density of the particle equals the surrounding Density Gradient Medium is called what?

A

The *isopycnic point *is when

buoyant density = surrounding density of the medium

112
Q

What two substances can you use for a

Density Gradient Medium?

A

Sucrose and Cesium chloride

can be used as

Density Gradient Mediums

113
Q

The *lowest concentration *of a virus that still infects cells is the what?

A

The Virus Titer is

the LOWEST concentration of a virus that still infects cells

114
Q

The *# of infectious units *per mL of sample is known as

A

Virus Titer

Virus Titer = #infectious units/mL of sample

115
Q

Plaque Assays

Pock Assays

Endpoint Titration Methods

are examples of this type of viral quantification test

A

Biological Quantification Tests

include Plaque and Pock Assays

& Endpoint Titration Methods

116
Q

What are the 5 Physical Quantification Tests?

A

Flow Cytometry

Hemagglutination

Immunological Assays (ELISA)

Quantitative PCR Analysis

EM Particle Count

Remember the Physical Quantification Tests by

using CHIPE

117
Q

What is the most *direct *method to determine concentration of virus particles in solution?

A

TEM

(Transmission Electron Microscopy)

is the most direct method to determine concentration of virus particles in solution

118
Q

What type of virus quantification is *ideal *for viruses with unique shapes?

A

TEM

(Transmission Electron Microscopy)

is great for viruses that have strange shapes!

119
Q

Hemagglutination Assay, ELISA, HPLC, and SRID are all tests based on what property?

A
  • Hemagglutination Assay
  • ELISA
  • HPLC (high performace liquid chromatography)
  • SRID (Single Radial Immunodiffusion)

are all tests based on…

Antigen Concentration!

120
Q

The *inverse *of the *greatest dilution *that completely agglutinates the RBC’s of the virus suspension is known as what?

A

**HA Titer **

HA Titer = 1 /(greatest agglutinated dilution)

121
Q

What is the only quantification test based on gene expression?

A

**qPCR **

is based on gene expression

“OMG those genes are sooo Qute!”

122
Q

A circular zone of necrotic cells

surrounded by viable cells

in a monolayer

is called?

A

Plaque

circular zone of necrotic cells surrounded by viable cells in a monolayer

123
Q

What type of viral quantification test is considered the simplest and most accurate of the biological assays?

A

Monolayer Plaque Assay

is the simplest and most accurate!

124
Q

What is the Principle of Plaque Assay?

A

The<em>Principle of Plaque Assay states that</em>

each plaque represents cell lysis

initiated by 1 viral particle

125
Q

How do you calculate the Titer in a monolayer plaque assay?

A

take the average of the plaque counts

and multiply by

the reciprocal of the dilution selected

x + y / 2 = Average Plaque Count (APC)

1/ mL = Reciprocal Dilution (RD)

APC x RD = Titer

126
Q

Necrotic area on chorioallantoic membrane (CAM) of an embryonated egg is known as

A

a POCK

necrotic area on CAM of an egg

127
Q

What is the difference between a *plaque *and a *pock *?

A

A plaque is a necrotic area in a monolayer

A *pock *is a necrotic area in the CAM of an egg

128
Q

What quantification test is used to determine *titers *of oncogenic viruses ?

A

Transformation Assay

is used to figure out the TITER of ONCOGENIC viruses

129
Q

Oncogenic viruses *transform *cells in culture. What do you see with transformed cells?

A

**Loss of contact inhibition **

and

the cells will

heap-up on one another

130
Q

What kind of assay is used for quantification of viruses that DO NOT form plaques?

A

Quantal Assays

used for viruses that do NOT form plaques

131
Q

The virus dilution that affects 50% of test subjects is called the

A

Endpoint

132
Q

What does TCID50 tell you?

A

It is the tissue culture infective dose that will infect 50% of cell monolayers presented with the virus

133
Q

What is the MOI?

A

MOI is the multiplicity of infection

It is the average # of virus particles infecting each cell

134
Q

How do you calculate TCID50?

What method is used to calculate it?

A

Use the Reed and Muench Method

(%infected above 50%) - 50

(%infected above 50%) - (%infected below 50%)

Then, add the # you get to the dilution above 50%

So if you get 0.3 for your answer and the dilution is 10-2, the Titer = 10-2.3 TCID50/0.1 mL

135
Q

The *burst size *= the height of the curve

But what does this tell you?

A

The burst size or the height of the curve tells you

the # of virions released

136
Q

In the One-Step Virus Growth Curve

the time between uncoating and appearance of virions in the cell

is called

A

The Eclipse Period

137
Q

Can you detect viruses in the Eclipse Period?

A

NO, you cannot detect viruses during the Eclipse Period

138
Q

In the One-Step Virus Growth Curve

the time before new infectious virus appears in medium

is called

A

The Latent Period

139
Q

What kind of viruses are detectable during the Latent Period

in the One-Step Virus Growth Curve?

A

Only *intracellular virions *are detectable during the Latent Period

140
Q

True or False

You can detect extracellular viruses during the Latent Period

in the One-Step Virus Growth Curve

A

FALSE

You can only detect *intracellular viruses *during the

Latent Period

141
Q

What are the 6 steps of Virus Replication?

A

Attachment

Penetration

Uncoating

Synthesis of Viral mRNA

Assembly and Maturation

Release in large #s

APUSAR

A Puppy Uses Shoes As Relaxation

142
Q

What are the 4 methods of Virus Penetration?

A

Endocytosis

Surface Fusion

Pore-Mediated

Antibody-Mediated

APES penetrate

143
Q

What are the 2 types of Receptor-Mediated Endocytosis?

A

A1 Clathrin-mediated endocytosis

and

Caveolin-mediated endocytosis

144
Q

What kind of receptor-mediated endocytosis causes the pH in the endosome to change to acidic?

A

A1-Clathrin-mediated endocytosis

involves a step where the pH changes to *acidic *

in the endosome

A1 = acidic

145
Q

Which method of virus penetration is reserved for ONLY enveloped viruses?

A

Surface Fusion

is only achieved by *enveloped *viruses

146
Q

What method of virus penetration is reserved for ONLY

nonenveloped viruses?

A

Pore-Mediated Penetration

is only accomplished by

nonenveloped viruses

147
Q

Feline Infectious Peritonitis Virus uses which method of virus penetration?

A

FIP uses Antibody-Mediated Penetration

by using **CD13 **receptor and

IgG-Fcŷ

148
Q

What stage of Virus Replication causes a

loss of infectivity of virions?

A

Uncoating

causes a loss of infectivity

149
Q

What are the 3 steps of Primary RNA Transcript Processing?

A

Capping

Addition of Tails

Splicing

150
Q

Capping refers to the addition of *7-methylguanosine *to the

___’ end of RNA

A

Capping refers to the addition of 7-methylguanosine to the

**5’ **end of RNA

151
Q

How many residues does the 3’-poly-adenylated tail have?

A

The *3’-poly-adenylated tail *has 250 A residues

152
Q

What is the 3’ cleavage sequence?

A

AAUAAA

153
Q

After the AAUAAA cleavage sequence, how many nucleotides downstream does the actual cleavage occur?

A

10-35 nucleotides downstream from AAUAAA

154
Q

What is it called when you remove introns and join exons?

A

Splicing

  • Remove *Introns
  • Join *Exons

(Remove and Intron have the same # of letters)

(Join and Exon have the same # of letters)

155
Q

Does an intron or exon encode for amino acids?

A

Exons encode for amino acids

156
Q

When every intron is spliced out and every exon is spliced in, what kind of splicing is it?

A

Constitutive Splicing

157
Q

During the release step of virus replication, what happens to the host cell of a **naked **virus?

A

The host cell is lysed

for a naked virus

158
Q

How are enveloped viruses released from their host cell during virus replication?

A

Enveloped viruses use **Budding **to release from their host cell

159
Q

Monocistronic and Polycistronic are types of what?

A

Monocistronic and Polycistronic are types of

Viral mRNA

that encode either one or multiple polypeptides

160
Q

What are the 4 methods of Cell-to-Cell Spread of Viruses?

A

Extracellular

Intercellular

Intercellular Transmission

Nuclear

161
Q

What type of Cell-to-Cell Spread of Viruses

results in

rapid virus dissemination, evasion of the immune system, and persistent infections?

A

Intercellular spread

results in

rapid virus dissemination, evasion of the immune system, and persistent infections

162
Q

What kind of Cell-to-Cell Spread of Viruses refers to the

viral genome being integrated into the host genome

and is subsequently passed down to the next generation

of host cells?

A

**Nuclear Spread **of Viruses

involves integration of viral genome into host cell genome

and generational transfer