test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

ACE inhibitor Suffix and Primary Indication/ Desired Effect

A

-pril (ex. catopril, enalapril)
antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

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2
Q

Angiotenisin- 11 receptor blockers Suffix and Primary Indication

A

-sartan (ex. candesartan, losartan)
Antihypertensive, congestive heart failure

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3
Q

Beta Blockers Suffix and Primary Indication/Desired Effect

A

-olol (ex. Metoprolol, propranolol)
Antihypertensive, antianginal, antiarrhythmic, congestive heart failure

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4
Q

Calcium channel blocker Suffix and Primary Indication/Desired Effect

A

-ipine (ex. nifedipine, nicardipine)
antihypertensive, antianginal

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5
Q

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

A

-statin (ex. pravastatin, simvastatin)
Hyperlipidemia

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6
Q

What is defined as the development of unhealthy conditions or disease?

A

Pathogenesis

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7
Q

The WHO describes health as…

A

state of mental, physical and social well being and not merely the absence of disease

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8
Q

Describe illness vs disease

A

Disease- supported by objective data such as elevated temperature or presence of infection

Illness- sickness or deviation from a healthy state

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9
Q

If an individual has experienced brain damage that leads to decreased executive function, which area of the brain is most likely injured?

A

Right hemisphere

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10
Q

Who created the germ theory?

A

Louis Pasteur

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11
Q

Who made a ground breaking study of mitochondrial DNA in the beginning of the 21st century?

A

Douglas Wallace

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12
Q

Describe the difference between Primary, Secondary and Tertiary Care

A

Primary- removing risk of disease risk factors (seatbelts)

Secondary- to promote early detection of disease and to employ preventative measures to avoid further complications (Immunizations)

Tertiary- limit the impact of already established disease (Antibiotics)

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13
Q

When was the Human Genome Project started?

A

1990

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14
Q

Heart disease has been reduced by how much due to changed in diet and lifestyle?

A

52%

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15
Q

Endocrine disrupting compounds may exert what kind of effect?

A

Multigenerational effect

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16
Q

Who are examples of successful aging?

A

Those in their 100s

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17
Q

Healthcare improvements have created an additional how many years of that 35?

A

7 yrs

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18
Q

Which group has seen the most rapid population increase in the past decade?

A

Over age 85

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19
Q

Supercenturians live to be past how many years over 100?

A

10 years

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20
Q

What is the set time frame to define a subacute condition?

A

There is no set time frame

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21
Q

What is the process of growing old that may be the result of cellular metabolism, cellular damage, and inefficient repair systems through the entire lifespan?

A

Senescence

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22
Q

Which of the following age groups is most likely to assume a passive role in their own healthcare?

A

Age 80 and older

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23
Q

Recent epigenetics studies have shown benefits to people with increased blood pressure, high blood sugar, excess body fat around the waist, and abnormal cholesterol levels with what interventions?

A

Therapeutic activities and exercise

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24
Q

What has been shown to have the ability to control DNA accessibility and gene activation or inactivation?

A

DNA methylation and histone acetylation

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25
Q

Which if the following is the product of gene expression?

A

Protein

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26
Q

Preclinical Testing Purpose, Subjects, and Time Period

A

Initial Lab tests to determine drug effects and safety

Lab animals

1-2 years

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27
Q

Phase 1 Purpose, Subjects, and Time Period

A

Determine effects, safe dosage, pharmokinetics

Small number (10-100) of healthy volunteers

Less than 1 Year

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28
Q

Phase 2 Purpose, Subjects, and Time Period

A

Assess drug’s effectiveness in treating a specific disease

Limited number of patients (50-500) with targe disorder

2 years

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29
Q

Phase 3 Purpose, Subjects, and Time Period

A

Assess safety and effectiveness in a larger patient population

Large number of patients (1000-3000) targeted

3 years

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30
Q

Phase 4 Purpose, Subjects, and Time Period

A

Monitor any problems that occur after NDA approval

General patient population

Indefinite

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31
Q

The use of specific drugs to prevent, treat, or diagnose disease is…

A

Pharmacotherapeutics

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32
Q

What is toxicology?

A

the study of harmful effects of chemicals

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33
Q

What is an orphan drug?

A

given special funding for development because it is used in a small patient population

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34
Q

Off label prescribing is…

A

legal and quite common in the US

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35
Q

When two drugs are compared, the drug that requires a lower dosage to produce the same effect as a higher dose is said to be…

A

More potent

36
Q

What is the first-pass effect?

A

when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action

37
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

the extent to which a drug reaches the systemic circulation

38
Q

A drug that has a volume of distribution of approximately 42 L in a healthy 70 kg man will typically be

A

distributed uniformly throughout all of the body fluids

39
Q

What is biotransformation?

A

Drug metabolism that occurs when a drug is changed chemically following transformation

40
Q

Most drugs are metabolized by ____ to the molecule and the enzymes that catalyze these reactions are typically located at the _____ of specific cells

A

adding an oxygen or removing a hydrogen; smooth ER

41
Q

What is enzyme induction?

A

Prolonged administration of therapeutic drugs and other substances that may enhance the liver’s ability to metabolize certain drugs

42
Q

Where are drugs and metabolites excreted in the body?

A

Kidneys

43
Q

The AcH pore functions as a

A

ion channel or pore

44
Q

What is a partial agonist?

A

A drug that fails to evoke a maximal response even though it occupies all available receptors

45
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

The study of how the body deals with a drug absorption, distribution, and elimination

46
Q

Enteral vs Parenteral Routes for Drugs?

A

Enteral Routes- Oral, Buccal, and Rectal
Parenteral Routes- Inhalation, Injection (IV, intramuscular, intra arterial, subcutaneous)Topical (applied to skin), Transdermal

47
Q

The first pass effect is of particular concern when drugs are administered…

A

Orally, Enterally

48
Q

When crossing cell membranes, drugs will diffuse more readily through the lipid layer if they are

A

In a neutral, non ionized form

49
Q

Simple Diffusion, Active Transport and Facilitated Diffusion

A

Simple Diffusion- No energy required down concentration gradient

Active Transport- energy required against concentration gradient

Facilitated Diffusion- form of passivee transport that uses a carrier protein

50
Q

If there is no existing patent for a drug, or if the patent has expired, the same drug may be marketed by separate drug companies under different

A

Trade Names

51
Q

The primary location for receptors that recognize drugs and endogenous compounds is…

A

On the surface on the cell

52
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

-olone, -sone
Anti inflammatory
Immunosuppressants

53
Q

Cyclooxygenase type 2
(COX-2) inhibitors

A

-coxib
Pain, inflammation

54
Q

What are the phases of healing?

A
  1. Homeostasis and degeneration- stop the bleeding and begin breaking down damaged cells
  2. Inflammation- the body’s defense mechanism kicks into protect and repair
  3. Proliferation and migration- new cells start growing and moving into the damaged area
  4. Remodeling and maturation- the new tissue strengthens and matures
55
Q

What is ischemia?

A

Less oxygen to the cell because of reduced blood flow (blood clot)

56
Q

What condition is generally not thought to be caused by free radicals?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

57
Q

During acute reversible cell injury, the concentrations of which two elements are increased?

A

Sodium and calcium

58
Q

Necrosis Plasma membrane, adjacent inflammation, cell contents, and cell size

A

Disrupted, Frequent, may leak out of the cell, enlarged

59
Q

What chemical mediator is responsible for increasing vascular permeability and causing vasodilation during an acute inflammatory response?

A

Histamine, stored in granule cells

60
Q

Inflammatory exudate Sanguineous appearance

A

bright red or bloody and signals the presence of red blood cells

61
Q

Inflammatory exudate serosanguineous appearance

A

blood tinged yellow or pink, presence of RBC

62
Q

Inflammatory exudate serous appearance

A

thin, clear yellow or straw colored contains albumin and immunoglobins

63
Q

Inflammatory exudate purulent appearance

A

viscous cloudy, pus, cellular debris from necrotic cells

64
Q

Inflammatory exudate catarrhal appearance

A

thin, clear mucus

65
Q

What is the approximate life cycle of a neutrophil after extrusion from the circulation?

A

24 hours

66
Q

What is the first step in the migration of leukocytes from the vasculature to the interstitial tissues?

A

Binding of leukocytes to receptors on endothelial cells of venules

67
Q

What is the sequence for leukocyte accumulation during an inflammatory response?

A

Margination- adhesion- diapedesis- chemotaxis

68
Q

What is the role of diapedesis in the inflammatory response?

A

Diapedesis is the active migration of leukocytes out of the blood vessels and into the interstitial tissues, enabling them to reach the site of injury

69
Q

What releases histamine?

A

mast cells, basophils, and platelets

70
Q

What is phagocytosis and its purpose?

A

The process of ingestion of microorganisms, other foreign substances by specialized cells

Purpose: to inactivate and remove the inflammatory stimulus and to begin the process of healing

71
Q

What is fibronectin?

A

Acts like a scaffold that holds cells together, making the tissue strong

72
Q

What is secreted by fibroblasts early during the tissue repair reaction?

A

Proteoglycans

73
Q

Which collagen type is first deposited during wound healing, contributes to the elasticity of skin and blood, and is eventually replaced by type 1 collagen?

A

Type 3 collagen

74
Q

What type of collagen is the predominant component of growth plates in bones?

A

Type 2 collagen

75
Q

What tissues have delayed healing because of low blood supply?

A

tendons, ligaments, cartilage, disc

76
Q

What role do myofibroblasts play during the remodeling and maturation phase of tissue healing?

A

Contribute to tissue contraction by containing contractile proteins that help shrink the healing tissue

77
Q

What is a labile cell and examples?

A

Cell that divides continuously, epithelial cells of the skin

78
Q

What is a permanent cell and examples?

A

Regeneration does not occur and tissues cannot divide, cardiac myocytes

79
Q

What is a stable cell and examples?

A

does not divide but can be induced to undergo mitosis by an appropriate stimulus, kidney cells and skeletal muscle fibers

80
Q

Lung tissue repair after injury

A

Regeneration can only occur only when the basement membrane is intact
Healing is also achieved by fibrosis and scar formation

80
Q

Peripheral nerve repair after injury

A

Rapidly undergoes myelin degeneration, within 24 hours new axonal sprouts from the central stump are observed, nerve gap less than 3 mm, and the most important factor for repair is the maintenance of the neurotubules

81
Q

How much of skeletal tissue is cortical bone and cancellous bone?

A

80% cortical- compact bone, hard
20% cancellous- spongy bone, surrounded by cortical

82
Q

What is the reparative phase of a bone fracture?

A

When the soft callus seen on x rays around 2 weeks is eventually replaced by the hard callus

83
Q

Tendinitis vs Tendinosis?

A

Tendinitis- inflammatory response

Tendinosis- a degenerative process with no inflammation but changed to collagen matrix

84
Q

Where is it vascular and not vascular in meniscus and significance?

A

Outer 1/3 of meniscus is vascular meaning more effective healing

Inner 2/3 of meniscus not vascular meaning not effective healing

85
Q

What are some issues with disc degenration?

A

dehydration and loss of shock absorption capability due to aging