final Flashcards

1
Q

In 2016, what percentage of the population lived with a disability?

A

25% or 1 in 4 people

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2
Q

What is the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention?

A

Primary- removing or reducing the risk factor
Secondary- to promote early detection of the disease
Tertiary- rehabilitation

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3
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

The study of how biology and environmental signals determine gene expression

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4
Q

What is pharamacology?
What is toxicology?

A

the use of specific drugs to prevent, treat, or diagnose a disease

the study of the harmful effects of chemicals

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5
Q

Brand Names for Acetaminophen, Aspirin, Ibuprofen, and Naproxen

A

Acetaminophen- tylenol
Aspirin- Bufferin, Aspirin
Ibuprofen-advil, motrin
Naproxen- aleve

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6
Q

Drug development and approval process: subjects and time period

A

Testing phases
Preclinical phase- initial testing, lab animals, and 1-2 years
Phase 1- determine effects, safe dosage, less than 100 healthy volunteers, less than 1 year
Phase 2- assess drugs effectiveness in treating a specific disease, 200-300 with disorder, 2 years
Phase 3- assess safety and effectiveness in large population, 1,000-3,000 people, 3 years
Phase 4- monitor any problems that occur after NDA approval, general patient population, indefinite

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7
Q

What is an orphan drug?

A

given small funding for small population with the rare disease

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8
Q

What is off label prescribing?

A

the use of a drug to treat conditions other than those that the drug was originally approved to treat

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9
Q

What are the enteral routes of drug administration?
What are the parenteral routes of drug administration?

A

Oral buccal rectal

Inhalation, injection, topical, transdermal

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10
Q

What is bioavailability?

A

the extent to which the drug reaches the systemic circulation

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11
Q

What is the primary site for drug excretion?

A

kidneys

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12
Q

Necrosis vs Apotosis
Cell size
Plasma membrane
Cellular contents
Adjacent inflammation

A

Cell size
necrosis is enlarged and apoptosis is reduced

Membrane
necrosis is disrupted and apoptosis is intact

Contents
Necrosis may leak out of cell and apoptosis is intact

Adjacent inflammation
Necrosis is frequent and apoptosis is no inflammation

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13
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

erythmea
heat
edema
pain

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14
Q

Inflammatory Exudates
Sanguineous
Serosanguineous
Serous
Purulent
Catarrhal

A

bright red or bloody; presence of RBC

blood tinged yellow or pink, RBC

thin, clear yellow or straw colored, contains albumins and immunoglobins

viscous cloudy pus cloudy debris from necrotic cells

thin, clear mucus

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15
Q

What is the lifespan of neutrophils?
What replaces neutrophils to clean up cellular debris?

A

24 hours
Macrophages

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16
Q

histamine is in what cells?
Important for?

A

Mast cells, basophils, and platelets
allows fluids and blood cells to exit into the interstitial spaces

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17
Q

What are the phases of healing?

A

Homeostasis and degeneration, inflammation, proliferation and migration, remodeling and maturation

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18
Q

Regeneration of what can only occur when the basement membrane is in tact?

A

The lung

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19
Q

Cortical bone is how much of skeletal tissue?
Cancellous bone is how much of skeletal tissue?

A

80 percent
20 percent

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20
Q

What is the reparative phase?

A

Begins during the next few weeks and includes the formation of the soft callus seen on x rays around 2 weeks after the injury, which is replaced by the hard callus

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21
Q

What part of the meniscus has blood supply?

A

Inner 2/3 has no blood supply
Outer 1/3 has blood supply

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22
Q

What is metaplasia?
What is anaplasia?
What is hyperplasia?

A

The first level of dysplasia, reversible but benign

Loss of cellular differentiation, advanced form of metaplasia

Increased number of cells in tissue

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23
Q

Stages of cancer?

A

Stage 0- carcinoma in situ
Stage 1-early stage local cancer
Stage 2- increased risk of spread because of tumor size
Stage 3- local cancer has spread
Stage 4- cancer has spread to distant sites

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24
Q

How does the TNM staging work?

A

T- primary tumor
N- lymph node
M- metastasis

T0, N0, M0- no metastasis
T1, N1, M1- increasing involvement of metastasis

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25
Q

What is the most prevalent cancer in the world?
For men and women?

A

Lung cancer and is the most deaths worldwide
Men prostate
Women breast

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26
Q

Abut what percentage of clients have newly diagnosed cancers with detectable metastases?

A

30 percent

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27
Q

Cancer pain occurs in approx.

A

1/4 adults with newly diagnosed malignancies
1/3 individuals undergoing treatment
3/4 with advanced disease

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28
Q

What may increase the person’s perception of cancer pain?

A

Depression and anxiety

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29
Q

Chemotherapy is most effective in what stage?
Cells are most sensitive to radiation therapy in what stage?
Stem cells in what phase are resistant to chemotherapy and radiation therapy?

A

DNA synthesis and mitosis

G2

G0

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30
Q

What are the two types of lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocutes
T lymphocytes
Helper T Cells
Cytotoxic T cells

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31
Q

What are the 3 different types of immunglobulins?

A

IgM- first secreted antibody, produced by B cell

IgG- secondary response

IgA- in serum and secretions

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32
Q

Mechanisms of Tissue Destruction
Rate of Development, Antibody Involved, Principal Cell, Disorders
Type 1 IgE
Type 2 Tissue Specific Reaction
Type 3 Immune Complex mediated reaction
Type 4 Cell mediated reaction

A

Type 1- immediate, IgE, Mast cells, Seasonal allergic rhitnis
Type 2- immediate, IgG and IgM, macrophages, graves disease
Type 3- immediate, IgG and IGM, neutrophils, systemic lupus erythematosus
Type 4- delayed, none, lymphocytes and macrophages, contact sensitivity

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33
Q

Elevated WBC count?
Decreased WBC count?
Most abundant WBC type?

A

Leukocytosis
Leukopenia
Neutrophil

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34
Q

Chain of transmission steps

A
  1. pathogen
  2. reservoir
  3. portal of exit
  4. mode of transmission
  5. portal of entry
  6. host susceptibility
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35
Q

What is the Varicella Zoster virus?
What type is mononucleosis?

A

Herpes virus type 3 and is very contagious also known as chicken pox or shingles

Type 4

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36
Q

Common patterns of pain referral?
Pancreas, liver spleen, gallbladder?

Shoulder?

Heart?

A

shoulder mid thoracic and low back

neck, upper back

Shoulder neck upper back and TMJ

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37
Q

What are the three major types of antigen presenting cells?

A

Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells

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38
Q

MHC class 1 vs class 2?

A

Class 1- can be recognized by Cytotoxic T cells CD8

Class 2- can be recognized by helper t cells CD4

39
Q

What is the correct order for the HIV life cycle?

A

Bind, fusion, reverse transcription, integration, replication, assembly, budding

40
Q

What virus is a DNA virus?
What virus is a herpes virus?
What virus is a respiratory infection?

A

Hep B and Hep C
Varicella-zoster virus
Flu and Covid 19

41
Q

What is somatic mutation theory?

A

Early in the study of cancer, the concept that neoplasia originates in a single cell

42
Q

What are carcinogens?

A

etiologic agents capable of malignant transformation of a cell

43
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of cancer?

A

Most are asymptomatic

44
Q

What is an example of adaptive immunity?

45
Q

What is in the body’s third line of defense?

A

T cells and B cells

46
Q

Cancer pain in hospice care how can It be treated?

A

Biophysical agents

47
Q

Etiology and pathogenesis of cancer pain?

A

some pain is caused by pressure on nerves or by the displacement of nerves

48
Q

What is the physiologic effect of cortisol?

A

increases output of glucose from liver

49
Q

Most common site of diverticular disease?

A

sigmoid colon

50
Q

What will likely refer pain to the left shoulder?

A

After rupture of the spleen

51
Q

What is the appropriate action for a patient who comes in complaining of headache?

A

check patient’s vital signs and blood sugar level

52
Q

What is the position to promote optimal respiratory function?

A

Semi fowler’s

53
Q

Which islet cells produce somatostatin?

A

Delta cells

54
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of metabolic syndrome?

A

atherogenic dyslipodemia

56
Q

What % off BW does skin consist of?

57
Q

Aging contributes to what deficiency which can lead to what?

A

Vitamin D deficiency, Osteoperosis

58
Q

Bacterial infections?
Viral infections?
Fungal infections?

A

Cellulitis, impetigo

Herpes zoster, warts

Athletes foot, ringworm, yeast

59
Q

First vs Second vs Third Degree burn?

A

Superficial- EpidermisSunburn and UV exposure

Partial Thickness-dermis,scalding liquids

Full Thickness- sub cutaneous, prolonged exposure y]to flame

60
Q

What kind of burns account for 75% of all burn center admissions?

A

Thermal burns

61
Q

What is the most common and life threatening complication or burn injuries?

62
Q

What are the 3 stages of medical management of severe burn?

A
  1. Emergent phase
  2. Acute phase
  3. Rehab phase
63
Q

What are the different skin transplantations?

A

Autograft- persons own skin, treat full thickness burn
Allografts- homografts, cadaver skin
Xenografts- heterografts, typically pig skin
Bio synthetic grafts- combo of collagen and synthetics

64
Q

Neuropathic ulcers may be classified using what system?

A

Wagner system

65
Q

Pressure injuries usually occur over?

A

Heels sacrum ischial tuberosities greater trochanter, elbow and scapula

66
Q

What are the stages of pressure injuries?

A

Stage 1- nonblanchable erythema of intact skin
Stage 2- partial thickness skin loss with exposed dermis
Stage 3- full thickness skin loss
Stage 4- full thickness skin and tissue loss

67
Q

What scale is used to determine if someone will get a pressure ulcer?

A

Braden scale

68
Q

Cardiovascular disease accounts for what % of death of people aged 65 and older?

69
Q

Optimal cholesterol levels?
BP? Waist Circumference?

A

HDL- 40 in men nd 50 in women
Total cholesterol- 150
LDL- about 100
Triglycerides- less than 150

BP- 130/85
Waist circumference- 40 in men and 35 in women

70
Q

Categories of BP in adults?

A

Normal- <120/80
Elevated- 120-129/<80
Stage 1 HTN- 130-139/80-89
Stage 2 HTN- >140/90

71
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Decrease of 20 mmHg or greater in SBP or drop of 10 mmHg or more in systolic and diastolic

72
Q

What is an aneurysm?
Most common type?

A

An abnormal stretching in the wall of an artery vein or heart by 50 %

Abdominal aortic aneurysm

73
Q

Deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism referred to as____
VTE is the most common reason for?

A

Venous thromboembolism VTE

Hospital readmission and death after total hip and knee arthroplasty

74
Q

Primary hemostasis?
What is VWF?

A

Formation of platelet plug at the site of vascular injury normal number of platelets and VWF

Plasma proteins that mediates the Initial adhesion, Binds and stabilizes blood clotting 8 in circulation

75
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?
Common causes?
Main symptom?

A

A decrease in platelet blood count below 150,000 of blood caused by inadequate platelet production

Medications or supplements are common causes

Main symptom is mucosal bleeding

76
Q

What is hemophillia?
Hemophillia A?
Hemophillia B?

A

A bleeding disorder inherited as an x linked chromosome autosomal recessive trait

A- 80% lack of clotting factor 8
B- 15% Lack of clotting 4

77
Q

Severe hemophillia?

A

60% of people
May bleed spontaneously or with slight trauma particularly into joints and deep muscle

78
Q

What is starling law?

A

Fluid at the arterial end of the capillary will tend to flow into the tissue spaces

79
Q

The lymphatic organs include»

A

Thymus, bone marrow, spleen, tonsils, Peter patches of small intestine

80
Q

Right extremity and thoracic lymphotome drain into?
Left extremity left thoracic lymphotome drain into?

A

Right lymphatic duct
Left subclabian vein

81
Q

Lymphangitis?
Lymphadenitis?
Lymphedema?
Lymphadenopathy?

A

Inflammation of lymphatic vessel
Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes
An increase amount of lymph fluid
Enlargement of the lymph nodes

82
Q

Normal PaO2?
Normal SaO2?

A

PaO2- 80-100 mmHg
SaO2 and SpO2: 95-100%

83
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia?
Viral Pneumonia?
Bacterial Pneumonia?

A

Fluids or other material from oral cavity is aspirated the Lower tract

Respiratory syncytial virus common in infants

Streptococcus pneumoniae the most preveoant bacterial pathogen

84
Q

Acute bronchitis?
Caused by?

A

An inflammation of the trachea and bronchi that is short duration 1-3 weeks
Caused by viral infection

85
Q

Chronic bronchitis?

A

Condition of productive cough lasting at least 3 months per year for 2 consecutive years

86
Q

What is emphysema?
Main etiologic factor?

A

Enlargement of the air spaces beyond terminal bronchioles and is associated with loss of elasticity in the distal airways, airway collapse and gas trapping

Cigarette smoking

87
Q

Pathogenesis of Asthma?
Mechanisms of airway obstruction by the immune system

A

T helper cells secrete cytokines which contributes to inflammation mediated by IgE
IgE is present on mast cells and other airway cells

88
Q

What % of people with sleep apnea are obese?

89
Q

Drug Drug Interaction?
Drug-Disease interaction?
Overdosage toxicity?

A

Drug Drug- medication interact unfavorably
Drug Disease-medication causes an existing disease to worsen
Predictable toxic effect that occurs with dosages in excess of therapeutic range for persom

90
Q

ADE is a national health problem… over ____ million people misuse opioid. more than ____ people dying each day from opioid overdose

A

!1.4 million
130 people

91
Q

In developed countries approx ___ % of patients aged 65 or older are prescribed how many drugs?

A

30% and 5 drugs

92
Q

Normal serum pH is….

A

7.35 to 7.45

93
Q

Acidosis vs Alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis vs alkalosis?

A

Acidosis is when H+ increases and pH decreases
Alkalosis is when H+ decreases and pH increases

CO2 increases, pH decreases
CO2 decreases, pH increases

94
Q

Peripheral nerve repair?

A

Rapidly undergoes myelin degeneration, within 2e hours new Asian, sprouts from central stump are observed