Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Child Psychology > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who was the founder of child development?

A

Stanley Hall (1844-1924)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Freud’s Psychosexual Theory?

A

Libido needs at each psychosexual stage must be met but not exceeded.
- Oral (0-1)
- Anal (1-3)
- Phallic (3-6)
- Latent (6-ado)
- Genital (Ado)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Freud’s Personality (Structural) Theory?

A

The Ego must balance the Id and Superego.
- Ego
- Id (devil)
- Superego (angel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the psychodynamic perspectives?

A

Sigmund Freud (1856-1939):
- Freud’s Psychosexual Theory
- Freud’s Personality (Structural) Theory
Erik Erikson (1902-1994):
- Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Erikson’s Psychosocial Theory?

A

Social challenge at each psychosocial stage must be met.
- Trust vs mistrust (0-1)
- Autonomy vs doubt (1-3)
- Initiative vs guilt (3-6)
- Industry vs inferiority (6-ado)
- Identity vs identity crisis (ado)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the learning perspectives (behaviourism)?

A
  • Classical conditioning
  • Operant conditioning
  • Social Cognitive Theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Ivan Pavlov (1849-1936):
- Physiological father of CC
- Associative learning - environment
- Salivating dogs

John B. Watson (1878-1958):
- Applied CC to psychology
- Associative learning - environment
- Poor little Albert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

B.F. Skinner (1904-1990):
- Learning by consequence - environment
- + - reinforcement and punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Social Cognitive Theory?

A

Albert Bandura (1925-):
- Learning by observing - environment
- Modeling/imitating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the cognitive perspective?

A

Jean Piaget (1896-1980):
Natural scientists - motivated to make sense of the physical and social world. 4 distinct stages:
- Sensorimotor: senses and motor / look, touch (0-2)
- Preoperational: self centered (2-6)
- Concrete operational: logical (7-11)
- Formal operational: abstract (12 +)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the biological perspectives?

A
  • Maturational theory
  • Ethological theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the maturational theory?

A

Gessell (1880-1961):
- Natural unfolding of biological plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the ethological theory?

A

Lorenz (1903- 1989):
- Behaviours have survival value (inherited)
- Critical periods, imprinting, attachment
(need exposure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the contextual perspectives?

A
  • Sociocultural theory
  • Ecological theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the sociocultural theory?

A

Lev Vygotsky (1896-1934):
- Adults teach culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is scaffolding?

A

Help just the right amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the ecological theory?

A

Urie Bronfenbrenner (1917-2005):
- Multiple systems teach culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are debates in HDEV?

A
  • Nature and Nurture: biological and experience
  • Continuity and Discontinuity: quantitative and qualitative
  • Active and Passive roles: internal and external motivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the data collecting methods?

A
  • Survey
  • Observation
  • Case study
  • Tasks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of surveys?

A

Strengths:
- Large sample
- Time efficient
- Cost efficient

Weaknesses:
- Honesty?
- Memory?
- Prediction?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of observation?

A

Strengths:
- Don’t need to rely on self report
- Natural behaviour and setting

Weaknesses:
- Can’t study rare or private behaviour
- Time consuming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of case studies?

A

Strengths:
- In depth info
- Opportunity to learn from uncontrollable circumstances

Weaknesses:
- Not generalizable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of tasks?

A

Strengths:
- Convenient
- Don’t need language

Weaknesses:
- May be invalid if unnatural setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the general designs for research?

A
  • Correlation
  • Experiment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of correlation?

A

Strengths:
- Relationships can be studied

Weaknesses:
- Not causation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is correlation?

A
  • Putting things together.
  • 2 or more variables.
  • Positive vs negative.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an experiment?

A
  • Trying things out.
  • Independent and dependent variables
  • Manipulate the IV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of experiments?

A

Strengths:
- Control
- Causation

Weaknesses:
- Artificial setting/experience
- Participant bias
- Researcher bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the 3 methods for studying development over time?

A
  • Longitudinal
  • Cross-sectional
  • Sequential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is longitudinal?

A
  • One group, all the same age
  • Tested multiple times, over time, as they develop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of longitudinal?

A

Strengths:
- Track development within individuals

Weaknesses:
- Loss of participants
- Cohort (common experiences)
- Long
- Costly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is cross-sectional?

A
  • One group, multiple ages
  • Tested once
33
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of cross-sectional?

A

Strengths:
- No cohort
- Time efficient
- Cost efficient

Weaknesses:
- Doesn’t track development within individuals

34
Q

What is sequential?

A
  • One group, multiple ages
  • Tested multiple times
35
Q

What are the strengths and weaknesses of sequential?

A

Strengths:
- Same as cross-sectional for each testing
- Same as longitudinal overall

Weaknesses:
- Same as cross-sectional for each testing
- Same as longitudinal overall

36
Q

What are the ethics?

A
  • Not too much deception
  • Consent
  • Anonymous and confidential
  • Minimize physical and emotional risks
37
Q

What is heredity?

A

The transmission of genetic material from one generation to another.

38
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Experiences can affect gene expression (whether the gene will turn on/activate).

39
Q

What is the biology of heredity?

A

Father’s sperm + mother’s egg (gametes):
- 46 chromosomes total (23 each)
- Each cell contains all 46, except gametes
- Each chromosome = 1 molecule DNA
- Each molecule DNA = several hundred genes

40
Q

What is genotype?

A

Our genes.
- 20 000 - 25 000

41
Q

What is phenotype?

A

Our features.
- Physical, cognitive, social/personality
- Genes + environment

42
Q

What is a gene?

A

A pair of alleles (not fused).

43
Q

What is homozygous?

A

Identical alleles (both say to make straight hair).

44
Q

What is heterozygous?

A

Different alleles.

45
Q

What is the dominant allele?

A

Leader.

46
Q

What is the recessive allele?

A

Follower.

47
Q

What is incomplete dominance?

A

Sickle cell trait:
- Need the sick allele from mom and dad, if not it’s okay because healthy is dominant.

48
Q

What are the dominant single gene phenotypes?

A
  • Curly hair
  • Normal hair
  • Dark hair
  • Thick lips
  • Cheek dimples
  • Normal hearing
  • Normal vision
  • Normal colour vision
  • Type A or B blood
  • Rh-positive blood
49
Q

What are the recessive single gene phenotypes?

A
  • Straight hair
  • Baldness (men)
  • Blond or red hair
  • Thin lips
  • No dimples
  • Some types of deafness
  • Myopia
  • Red-green colour blindness
  • Type O blood
  • Rh-negative blood
50
Q

How do we study behavioural genetics?

A
  • Twins
  • Adoption studies
51
Q

What are monozygotic twins?

A
  • Identical
  • One egg and sperm, they split
52
Q

What are dizygotic twins?

A
  • Fraternal
  • Different egg and sperm
53
Q

What are the strong cases for inheritance?

A
  • Intelligence
  • Psychological disorders
  • Personality
    Identical twins more similar to each other and adopted kids more similar to biological parents.
54
Q

What are challenges for inheritance?

A
  • How are identical twins vs fraternal twins treated by others?
  • Parents with 2+ kids (non-shared or shared experiences)
  • Child not passive (who the child is will impact how people treat them)
55
Q

What are genetic abnormalities?

A

Inherited disorders are rare. Usually 2 recessive alleles:
- Albinism (lack of pigment melanin)
- PKU (build up of phenylalanine in body)
- Tay-Sachs (degeneration of nervous system in preschool years)
- Cystic fibrosis (mucus-lungs and digestive)
Rarely 1 dominant allele:
- Huntington’s (degeneration of nervous system in adulthood)

56
Q

What are chromosomal abnormalities?

A

Too many, too few, or damaged chromosomes.
- Down syndrome (extra 21st chromosome)

57
Q

What are sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities?

A
  • Abnormal number of sex chromosomes
58
Q

What are sex-linked genetic abnormalities?

A
  • Hemophilia
  • Muscular dystrophy
  • Colour blindness
59
Q

What are the 3 stages of prenatal development?

A
  • Zygote (1-2)
  • Embryo (3-8
  • Fetus (9-38)
60
Q

What is stage 1 of prenatal development?

A

Zygote: weeks 1-2 (sperm penetrates egg = zygote).
- Egg is fertilized in fallopian tube
- Rapid cell division
- Zygote travels down tube and is implanted in uterus wall

61
Q

What is stage 2 of prenatal development?

A

Embryo: weeks 3-8.
- Body parts are formed (XX/XY)
- Embryo in amniotic sac (helps cushion, protect, regulate temperature)
- Umbilical cord joins embryo to placenta (brings good and removes bad)
- Size:
- 6 weeks: apple seed
- 7 weeks: grape
- 8 weeks: strawberry

62
Q

What is stage 3 of prenatal development?

A

Fetus: weeks 9-38.
- Increase in size and system functions
- Age of viability (baby has chance of survival): 22-28 weeks

63
Q

What are the general risk factors?

A
  • Nutrition (folic acid and spina bifida)
  • Stress (decreases oxygen to fetus and weakens mom’s immune system)
  • Mother’s age (not too young or old)
  • Teratogens
64
Q

What are teratogens?

A

Agents disrupting development.
- Infections and diseases pass through placenta
- Drugs pass through placenta
- Environmental hazards

65
Q

How teratogens influence depend on?

A
  • Genotype
  • Timing
  • Damage not always evident at birth
  • How strong/resistant the baby is to toxins
66
Q

What are prenatal diagnosis and treatments for deformities and genetic disorders?

A
  • Blood tests
  • Ultrasound
  • Chorionic villus sampling (8 weeks)
  • Amniocentesis (16 weeks)
67
Q

When split occurs within 72 hours?

A
  • Looks like fraternal twins
  • Own sac and placenta
68
Q

Split occurs within 4-7 days?

A

Own sac but same placenta

69
Q

Split occurs day 8 or after?

A

Share sac and placenta.

70
Q

How many stages are there in labour and delivery?

A

3 stages.

71
Q

What is stage 1 of labour and delivery?

A
  • Uterus contracts
  • Cervix enlarges (fully = 10 cm)
  • Long: 12-24 hours
  • Painful
72
Q

What is stage 2 of labour and delivery?

A
  • Baby is pushed down the birth canal
  • Baby is born
  • 1 hour
73
Q

What is stage 3 of labour and delivery?

A
  • Placenta is expelled
  • 10-15 minutes
74
Q

What are the approaches to childbirth?

A
  • Prep: childbirth classes
  • Partner is involved
  • Where? hospital, home
  • Assisted by doula, midwife, obstetrician
75
Q

What are birth complications?

A
  • Lack of oxygen or baby position (c-section)
  • Placenta abruption
  • Premature (before 38 weeks)
  • Small for date (low birthweight)
76
Q

What is apgar?

A

The examination of the baby after birth.
- Activity
- Pulse
- Grimace
- Skin
- Breathing

77
Q

What are the 4 primary states of the newborn?

A
  • Alert inactivity
  • Waking activity
  • Crying
  • Sleeping
78
Q

What is postpartum depression?

A
  • Affects warmth and enthusiasm of mothering
  • Children are at risk of depression and behavioural problems
  • 50% new moms feel sadness
  • 10-15% postpartum depression

Child Psychology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions