Tecnam P2008JC Aircraft Type Rating Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The Rotax 912-S2 engine of the Tecnam P2008JC has four (4) carburetors, one per cylinder.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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2
Q
  1. The Hoffman propeller installed in the aircraft is correctly described as:

a. Two-bladed, Carbon Fiber, Ground Adjustable Pitch
b. Two-bladed, Laminated Hard Wood, Fixed Pitch
c. Two-bladed, Carbon Fiber, Fixed Pitch
d. Two-bladed, Laminated Hard Wood, Ground Adjustable Pitch

A

b. Two-bladed, Laminated Hard Wood, Fixed Pitch

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3
Q
  1. Aside from RON 95 MOGAS, this fuel grade can also be loaded/used for the aircraft:

a. RON 91
b. AVGAS 100LL
c. AVGAS 103LL
d. RON 85

A

b. AVGAS 100LL

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4
Q
  1. The maximum power of 73.5kW/98.6hp is achieved at ______ RPM, for a maximum of
    ____ minutes.

a. 5,900 RPM, 3 minutes
b. 5,500 RPM, 9 minutes
c. 5,600 RPM, 8 minutes
d. 5,800 RPM, 5 minutes

A

d. 5,800 RPM, 5 minutes

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5
Q
  1. The Rotax 912-S2 engine can continuously run at a maximum of _____ RPM.

a. 5,900 RPM
b. 5,500 RPM
c. 5,600 RPM
d. 5,800 RPM

A

b. 5,500 RPM

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6
Q
  1. The Tecnam P2008JC’s wingspan of 9.00m has a wing loading of 53.5 kg/m2 at MTOW of 650 kg.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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7
Q
  1. The Tecnam has an all-moving tail, a fully movable horizontal stabilizer, which is also referred to as a:

a. Horizontal Tab
b. Elevator Trim Pivot
c. Stabilator
d. Actuator

A

c. Stabilator

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8
Q
  1. The anti-servo tab is deflected upward with back pressure and deflected downward when the stick is pushed forward.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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9
Q
  1. The flaps, when deployed in the LAND position, are deflected ____O.

a. 25 o
b. 30 o
c. 35 o
d. 40 o

A

c. 35 o

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10
Q
  1. The Tecnam is certified as an EASA CS-VLA. What does CS-VLA stand for?

a. Current Standard – Fifth Generation Light Aircraft
b. Costruzioni Sicurezza – Very Light Airframe
c. Certified Safe – Very Lightweight Airplane
d. Certification Specification – Very Light Aircraft

A

d. Certification Specification – Very Light Aircraft

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11
Q
  1. Do not exceed this speed, known as the VNE, in any operation of the aircraft.
    a. 140 KIAS
    b. 143 KIAS
    c. 150 KIAS
    d. 153 KIAS
A

b. 143 KIAS

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12
Q
  1. 72 KIAS is the Tecnam’s maximum flaps extended (VFE) speed.
    a. True
    b. False
A

b. False – (70 KIAS)

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13
Q
  1. The Tecnam P2008JC’s normal fuel pressure operating range:
    a. 1.6 – 8.00 psi
    b. 2.6 – 7.22 psi
    c. 2.2 – 7.26 psi
    d. 3.0 – 8.22 psi
A

c. 2.2 – 7.26 psi

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14
Q
  1. The aircraft has a maximum fuel capacity of 124 liters, however only _____ liters are usable.
    a. 120 liters
    b. 121 liters
    c. 122 liters
    d. None of the above
A

a. 120 liters

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15
Q
  1. This is the aircraft’s maximum operating altitude (in feet):
    a. 13,000
    b. 14,000
    c. 15,000
    d. None of the above
A

a. 13,000

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16
Q
  1. The maximum takeoff and maximum landing weight of the aircraft:
    a. 620 Kg.
    b. 630 Kg.
    c. 650 Kg.
    d. 660 Kg.
A

c. 650 Kg.

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17
Q
  1. When doing a Lazy Eight or a steep turn (max. 60o) maneuver, this is the recommended entry speed:
    a. 72 KIAS
    b. 88 KIAS
    c. 98 KIAS
    d. 113 KIAS
A

c. 98 KIAS

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18
Q
  1. The aircraft controllability, during takeoffs and landings, has been demonstrated with a crosswind component of ____ KIAS.
    a. 12 KIAS
    b. 15 KIAS
    c. 18 KIAS
    d. 20 KIAS
A

b. 15 KIAS

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19
Q
  1. This is the list that details the instruments/equipment required to be installed on board under CS-VLA regulations to allow flight operations in VFR Day.
    a. Kinds of Operation Equipment List (KOEL)
    b. Kinds of Ordinary Operation List (KOOL)
    c. Certified Operational Equipment List (COEL)
    d. Certified Ordinary Operation List (COOL)
A

a. Kinds of Operation Equipment List (KOEL)

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20
Q
  1. The aircraft is certified in Normal Category in accordance with EASA CS-VLA regulation applying to airplanes intended for non-aerobatic operation only. Which maneuver is not allowed?
    a. Chandelle
    b. Intentional Spin
    c. Both (a) and (b)
    d. None of the above
A

b. Intentional Spin

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21
Q
  1. The minimum Oil Temperature operating limit.
    a. 50oC
    b. 90 oC
    c. 100 oC
    d. 113 oC
A

a. 50oC

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22
Q
  1. In landing configuration, with full flaps, the stall speed (VSO) is 40 KIAS. This is also the speed at the bottom of the white arc.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

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23
Q
  1. Do not fly when the oil level is out of the specified limits (MAX/MIN). The minimum oil level is:
    a. 2.4L
    b. 2.5L
    c. 2.6L
    d. 2.8L
A

b. 2.5L

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24
Q
  1. The maneuver load factor limits (Flaps Up) are as follows:
    a. +3.8g , -1.9g
    b. +4.5g , -2.1g
    c. +1.9g , 0g
    d. +2.2g , -1,5g
A

a. +3.8g , -1.9g

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25
Q
  1. The maneuver load factor limits (Flaps Extended) are as follows:
    a. +3.8g , -1.9g
    b. +4.5g , -2.1g
    c. +1.9g , 0g
    d. +2.2g , -1,5g
A

c. +1.9g , 0g

26
Q
  1. In case of an emergency, the first thing a pilot should do is to:
    a. Immediately get the Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM)
    b. Look for a suitable landing spot
    c. Keep control of the airplane
    d. Analyze the situation
A

c. Keep control of the airplane

27
Q
  1. If the ALTOUT caution persists to be ON and the Generator switch has been turned off, how many minutes can the battery continue to supply electrical power?
    a. 30 minutes
    b. 20 minutes
    c. 25 minutes
    d. 1 hour
A

a. 30 minutes

28
Q
  1. In an ENGINE FAILURE IMMEDIATELY AFTER TAKEOFF, the landing should be planned straight ahead with only small changes in direction. It is recommended that turns left or right should not exceed:
    a. 45o Left, 45o Right
    b. 15o Left (Pilot side), 45o Right
    c. 30o on heavier side, 45o on lighter side
    d. 15o Left, 15o Right
A

a. 45o Left, 45o Right

29
Q
  1. It means to land without delay at the nearest suitable area at which a safe approach and landing is assured.
    a. Land Immediately
    b. Land as soon as possible
    c. Land at the nearest open field
    d. Land as soon as practical
A

b. Land as soon as possible

30
Q
  1. It means to land without delay at the nearest approved landing area where suitable repairs can be made.
    a. Land Immediately
    b. Land as soon as possible
    c. Land at the nearest open field
    d. Land as soon as practical
A

d. Land as soon as practical

31
Q
  1. In the airplane alerts, this color indicates a no-hazard situation that has to be considered and which require proper crew action.
    a. Amber
    b. Red
    c. Green
    d. Flashing Red
A

a. Amber

32
Q
  1. An engine restart in flight is not recommended after this happens:
    a. Mechanical Engine Seizure
    b. Engine Fire
    c. Major Propeller Damage
    d. All of the above
A

d. All of the above

33
Q
  1. ENGINE SECURING. The following procedures have to be done to shut down the engine in flight.
    a. Throttle Lever……IDLE / Ignition Key…………OFF
    b. Master Switch……..OFF / Generator Switch…..OFF
    c. Ignition Key……….OFF / Fuel Selector………BOTH
    d. Both (a) and (c) only
A

a. Throttle Lever……IDLE / Ignition Key…………OFF

34
Q
  1. If the engine oil pressure is below 12PSI and OP LOW warning is ON, the following are the correct emergency procedures:
    a. Throttle Lever…..REDUCE to IDLE / Land as soon as possible
    b. Throttle Lever…..Set to 2,000RPM / Airspeed…..Maintain 58KIAS
    c. Throttle Lever….REDUCE to minimum practical / Land as soon as practical
    d. Throttle Lever….IDLE (Fully Out and Hold) / Land as soon as practical
A

c. Throttle Lever….REDUCE to minimum practical / Land as soon as practical

35
Q
  1. In the airplane alerts, this color indicates that the pertinent device is turned ON.
    a. Amber
    b. Red
    c. Green
    d. Flashing Red
A

c. Green

36
Q
  1. Which is the correct emergency procedure for ENGINE FIRE IN-FLIGHT (before Landing as soon as possible)?

a.
Generator Switch..OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve…….OFF
Elec. Fuel Pump….OFF
Throttle…..FULL IDLE
(Until engine stops)
Master Switch…….OFF
Cabin Vents……..OPEN

b.
Cabin Heat………OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve….OFF
Elec. Fuel Pump..OFF
Throttle..FULL FORWARD (Until engine stops)
Ignition Key……OFF
Cabin Vents…..OPEN

c.
Generator Switch….OFF
Throttle…………….IDLE
Ignition Key…..ALL OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve……..OFF
Master Switch……..OFF
Cabin Vents………OPEN

d.
Elec. Fuel Pump….OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve…….OFF
Ignition Key………OFF
Cabin Heat…………OFF
Master Switch……..OFF
Cabin Vents..……OPEN

A

b.
Cabin Heat………OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve….OFF
Elec. Fuel Pump..OFF
Throttle..FULL FORWARD (Until engine stops)
Ignition Key……OFF
Cabin Vents…..OPEN

37
Q
  1. Which is the correct emergency procedure for ELECTRICAL SMOKE/FIRE IN CABIN ON THE GROUND?

a.
Generator Switch..OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve…….OFF
Elec. Fuel Pump….OFF
Throttle…..FULL IDLE
(Until engine stops)
Master Switch…….OFF
EVACUATE

b.
Cabin Heat………OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve….OFF
Elec. Fuel Pump..OFF
Throttle..FULL FORWARD (Until engine stops)
Ignition Key……OFF
EVACUATE

c.
Generator Switch….OFF
Throttle…………….IDLE
Ignition Key…..ALL OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve……..OFF
Master Switch……..OFF
EVACUATE

d.
Elec. Fuel Pump….OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve…….OFF
Ignition Key………OFF
Cabin Heat…………OFF
Master Switch……..OFF
EVACUATE

A

c.
Generator Switch….OFF
Throttle…………….IDLE
Ignition Key…..ALL OFF
Fuel Sel. Valve……..OFF
Master Switch……..OFF
EVACUATE

38
Q
  1. To recover from an UNINTENTIONAL SPIN, when your throttle is already at IDLE, the first thing to do is:
    a. Rudder in opposite direction of spin first, then stick to center/neutral position
    b. Stick to center/neutral position first, then rudder in opposite direction of spin
    c. Rudder to neutral first, then stick to opposite direction of spin
    d. Rudder and stick to neutral first, then throttle to slowly add engine power
A

a. Rudder in opposite direction of spin first, then stick to center/neutral position

39
Q
  1. TRIM SYSTEM FAILURE. In a persisting Trim Jam, the trim cutout switch should be ______; while in a Runaway Trim, the trim cutout switch should be _______. In both instances, land the aircraft as soon as possible.
    a. OFF / OFF
    b. ON / OFF
    c. ON / ON
    d. OFF / ON
A

b. ON / OFF

40
Q
  1. In the event of a Flaps Up landing, expect a 35% increase in landing length.
    a. True
    b. False
A

a. True

41
Q
  1. The rotation speed (VR) with T/O Flaps deployed:
    a. 48 KIAS
    b. 50 KIAS
    c. 54 KIAS
    d. 55 KIAS
A

b. 50 KIAS

42
Q
  1. The Final Approach/Touch Down speed with FULL Flaps deployed:
    a. 48 KIAS
    b. 50 KIAS
    c. 54 KIAS
    d. 55 KIAS
A

d. 55 KIAS

43
Q
  1. It is when you check for defects, cracks, detachments, excessive play, unsafe or improper installation as well as for general condition.
    a. Annual Inspection
    b. Walk Around
    c. Preventive Maintenance
    d. Visual Inspection
A

d. Visual Inspection

44
Q
  1. Fuel drainage operation must be carried out with the aircraft parked on a level surface. Set Cockpit Fuel Selector Valve to _____ prior to draining fuel.
    a. ON
    b. OFF
    c. Select Fullest Tank
    d. ON, then OFF
A

a. ON

45
Q
  1. When performing a magneto test, the throttle is advanced to 1,640 prop RPM and the ignition key selected to LEFT and RIGHT. The RPM drop per side should be within _____ prop RPM.
    a. 100 prop RPM
    b. 130 prop RPM
    c. 140 prop RPM
    d. 150 prop RPM
A

b. 130 prop RPM

46
Q
  1. Likewise when performing a Carburetor Heat test, the drop in prop RPM should not exceed:
    a. 100 prop RPM
    b. 130 prop RPM
    c. 140 prop RPM
    d. 150 prop RPM
A

a. 100 prop RPM

47
Q
  1. When doing a normal takeoff, after the flaps are retracted, it is wise to throttle back the engine power to 2,000 prop RPM to prolong engine life and reduce wear and tear.
    a. True
    b. False – (Climb with max. power)
A

b. False – (Climb with max. power)

48
Q
  1. Monitor and manually compensate asymmetrical fuel consumption by switching the fuel selector valve. ________ must be done prior to swapping the fuel feeding from one tank to another.
    a. Switch ON electric fuel pump
    b. Switch OFF electric fuel pump
    c. Reduce throttle to below 2,250 prop RPM
    d. Apply full throttle
A

a. Switch ON electric fuel pump

49
Q
  1. The electric fuel pump must be switched ON during the following:
    a. Engine Starting; Taxiing; Prior to Takeoff; Before Landing
    b. Taxiing; Prior to Takeoff; Before Landing; In a Balked Landing
    c. Engine Starting; Prior to takeoff; Before Landing
    d. Taxiing; Before Landing; In a Balked Landing
A

c. Engine Starting; Prior to takeoff; Before Landing

50
Q
  1. At FLAPS UP, the Tecnam P2008JC’s Best Angle of Climb (VX) and Best Rate of Climb (VY), respectively.
    a. 65 KIAS, 71 KIAS
    b. 66 KIAS, 71 KIAS
    c. 68 KIAS, 72 KIAS
    d. 69 KIAS, 72 KIAS
A

b. 66 KIAS, 71 KIAS

51
Q
  1. The ICAO Standard Atmosphere, like the ISA, proposes a standard for the earth’s atmosphere such that at 0 Ft. MSL, the standard temperature is 15oC with an atmospheric pressure of 1015.25 hPa.
    a. True
    b. False – (1013.25 hPa)
A

b. False – (1013.25 hPa)

52
Q
  1. When computing the weight of fuel, 10 liters is equal to 7.2kg. What is the total fuel weight when fuel on board is 85 liters?
    a. 72.2 kg
    b. 62.1 kg
    c. 61.2 kg
    d. 60.2
A

c. 61.2 kg

53
Q
  1. An imaginary vertical line from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes.
    a. Datum
    b. C.G.
    c. Moment
    d. Arm
A

a. Datum

54
Q
  1. When doing the weight and balance computation, this is the aircraft’s Center of Gravity range. Maximum _____ meters FWD, and _____ meters AFT.
    a. 1.841 m., and 1.978 m.
    b. 1.941 m., and 1.878 m.
    c. 1.418 m., and 1.789 m.
    d. 1.419 m., and 1.788 m.
A

a. 1.841 m., and 1.978 m.

55
Q
  1. Maximum Takeoff Weight (WT) less Empty Weight (WE) gives us:
    a. Max. Weight Moment
    b. Max. Useful Load
    c. Max. Weight Allowance
    d. Max. Empty Weight
A

b. Max. Useful Load

56
Q
  1. Given the empty weight of the aircraft at 369kg., pilot and passenger at 80kg. and 77kg. with no baggage, what is the maximum fuel quantity that can be loaded?
    a. 124.0 liters
    b. 144.4 liters
    c. 98.2 liters
    d. 77.7 liters
A

a. 124.0 liters

57
Q
  1. The nose gear, connected by pushrods to the rudder pedals, is fitted with a hydraulic shock absorber.
    a. True
    b. False – Nose gear is pivoting, not connected to the rudder pedals
A

b. False – Nose gear is pivoting, not connected to the rudder pedals

58
Q
  1. Follow this procedure to start the engine using the external power source:
    a. Magnetos: OFF, Master Switch: ON, Generator Switch: ON
    b. Magnetos: ON, Master Switch: ON, Generator Switch: ON
    c. Magnetos: OFF, Master Switch: ON, Generator Switch: OFF
    d. Magnetos: OFF, Master Switch: OFF, Generator Switch: OFF
A

d. Magnetos: OFF, Master Switch: OFF, Generator Switch: OFF

59
Q
  1. Landing Gear tire pressures:
    a. Main Gear Tire: 40 psi; Nose tire: 32 psi
    b. Main Gear Tire: 32 psi; Nose tire: 32 psi
    c. Main Gear Tire: 40 psi; Nose tire: 40 psi
    d. Main Gear Tire: 32 psi; Nose tire: 40 psi
A

a. Main Gear Tire: 40 psi; Nose tire: 32 psi

60
Q
  1. Butterfly Cam-locks securing the upper cowling should be verified to be CLOSED prior to flight. The Cam-locks are locked/closed when the tabs are:
    a. Vertical
    b. Horizontal
A

b. Horizontal

61
Q

NOT INCLUDED

A

V. Performace
#2-3
#4-5