PPL - Meteorology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
    A) Showery precipitation.
    B) Poor surface visibility.
    C) Turbulent air.
A

B) Poor surface visibility.

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2
Q
  1. The suffix “nimbus,’’ used in naming clouds, means:
    A) a rain cloud.
    B) a cloud with extensive vertical development.
    C) a middle cloud containing ice pellets.
A

A) a rain cloud.

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3
Q
  1. Clouds are divided into four families according to their:
    A) height range.
    B) composition.
    C) outward shape.
A

A) height range.

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4
Q
  1. Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lensshaped clouds known as:
    A) standing lenticular clouds.
    B) roll clouds.
    C) mammatocumulus clouds.
A

A) standing lenticular clouds.

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5
Q
  1. What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
    A) Nimbostratus.
    B) Towering cumulus.
    C) Cumulonimbus.
A

C) Cumulonimbus.

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6
Q
  1. What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
    A) Towering cumulus clouds.
    B) Cirrus clouds.
    C) Nimbostratus clouds.
A

A) Towering cumulus clouds.

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7
Q
  1. Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of
    40 knots or greater blow:
    A) parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.
    B) across a mountain ridge and the air is stable.
    C) down a mountain valley and the air is unstable.
A

B) across a mountain ridge and the air is stable.

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8
Q
  1. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a:
    A) movement of air.
    B) pressure differential.
    C) heat exchange.
A

C) heat exchange.

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9
Q
  1. What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
    A) Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.
    B) Variation of terrain elevation.
    C) Coriolis force.
A

A) Unequal heating of the Earth’s surface.

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10
Q
  1. What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
    A) Actual lapse rate.
    B) Atmospheric pressure.
    C) Surface temperature.
A

A) Actual lapse rate

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11
Q
  1. What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
    A) Cooling from below.
    B) Decrease in water vapor.
    C) Warming from below.
A

C) Warming from below.

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12
Q
  1. What is the characteristic of stable air?
    A) Unlimited visibility.
    B) Cumulus clouds.
    C) Stratiform clouds.
A

C) Stratiform clouds.

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13
Q
  1. Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when:
    A) relative humidity reaches 100 percent.
    B) water vapor is present.
    C) water vapor condenses.
A

C) water vapor condenses.

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14
Q
  1. The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the:
    A) air temperature.
    B) dew point.
    C) stability of the air.
A

A) air temperature.

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15
Q
  1. What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
    A) Super saturation and evaporation.
    B) Evaporation and sublimation.
    C) Heating and condensation.
A

B) Evaporation and sublimation.

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16
Q
  1. What is meant by the term ‘dewpoint’?
    A) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
    B) The temperature at which dew will always form.
    C) The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
A

A) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

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17
Q
  1. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is:
    A) heavy, dirty, and fast.
    B) heavy, clean, and slow.
    C) light, dirty, and fast.
A

B) heavy, clean, and slow

18
Q
  1. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are
    operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to?
    A) Sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft
    generating the turbulence.
    B) Rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
    C) Rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
A

A) Sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

19
Q
  1. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
    A) Hail.
    B) Lightning.
    C) Heavy rain.
A

B) Lightning.

20
Q
  1. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is?
    A) Heavily loaded.
    B) Developing lift.
    C) Operating at high airspeeds.
A

B) Developing lift.

21
Q
  1. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake
    turbulence by staying?
    A) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point.
    B) Below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point.
    C) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point.
A

A) Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown point.

22
Q
  1. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake
    turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft?
    A) Below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
    B) Below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
    C) Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
A

C) Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

23
Q
  1. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a
    thunderstorm?
    A) Frequent lightning.
    B) Continuous updraft.
    C) Roll cloud.
A

B) Continuous updraft.

24
Q
  1. Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
    A) The appearance of an anvil top.
    B) Maximum growth rate of the clouds.
    C) Precipitation beginning to fall.
A

C) Precipitation beginning to fall.

25
Q
  1. What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
    A) High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
    B) High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
    C) Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.
A

B) High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.

26
Q
  1. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized
    predominately by downdrafts:
    A) mature.
    B) cumulus.
    C) dissipating.
A

C) dissipating.

27
Q
  1. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:
    A) downdraft stage.
    B) mature stage.
    C) cumulus stage.
A

B) mature stage.

28
Q
  1. The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a:
    A) front.
    B) frontolysis.
    C) frontogenesis
A

A) front.

29
Q
  1. One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is:
    A) a change in temperature.
    B) an increase in cloud coverage.
    C) an increase in relative humidity.
A

A) a change in temperature.

30
Q
  1. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a
    front is a change in the:
    A) wind direction.
    B) type of precipitation.
    C) stability of the air mass.
A

A) wind direction.

31
Q
  1. Where does wind shear occur?
    A) Only at higher altitudes.
    B) At all altitudes, in all directions.
    C) Only at lower altitudes.
A

B) At all altitudes, in all directions.

32
Q
  1. What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
    A) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
    B) Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
    C) The movement of calm air over much warmer water.
A

A) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.

33
Q
  1. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
    A) A warm moist air mass on the windward side of mountains.
    B) An Airmass moving inland from the coast in winter.
    C) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
A

B) An Airmass moving inland from the coast in winter.

34
Q
  1. If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
    A) Wind-shear turbulence.
    B) Steady rain.
    C) Precipitation static.
A

A) Wind-shear turbulence.

35
Q
  1. One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is:
    A) stratiform clouds.
    B) visible moisture.
    C) small temperature/dewpoint spread.
A

B) visible moisture.

36
Q
  1. Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
    A) When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.
    B) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
    C) When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
A

B) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

37
Q
  1. Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
    A) At standard temperature.
    B) When the altimeter has no installation error.
    C) At sea level, when the temperature is 0 °F.
A

A) At standard temperature.

38
Q
  1. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high
    pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate?
    A) The actual altitude above sea level.
    B) Higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
    C) Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
A

C) Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

39
Q
  1. Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
    A) Air temperature warmer than standard.
    B) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
    C) Air temperature lower than standard.
A

A) Air temperature warmer than standard.

40
Q
  1. Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
    A) An increase in ambient temperature.
    B) A decrease in relative humidity.
    C) An increase in barometric pressure.
A

A) An increase in ambient temperature.