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GROUND SCHOOL > PPL – OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES > Flashcards

PPL – OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should:

a. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated
b. fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL
c. enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AGL

A

a. make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated

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2
Q
  1. To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required?

a. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, but the airplane need to be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums
b. The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area
c. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight

A

c. The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight

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3
Q
  1. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control tower, within the Class C airspace area?

a. Prior to entering the airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain
communication with the ATC serving facility
b. Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder
c. Prior to takeoff, a pilot must establish communication with the ATC controlling facility

A

a. Prior to entering the airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain
communication with the ATC serving facility

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4
Q
  1. When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communication prior to:

a. 8 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL
b. 5 NM, and up to and including 3,000 feet AGL
c. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

A

c. 4 NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

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5
Q
  1. When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must established communication prior to:

a. 10 NM, up to and including 3,000 feet AGL
b. 30 SM, and be transported equipped
c. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

A

c. 4 NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL

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6
Q
  1. After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary
    considerations should include:

a. turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing
b. planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area
c. maneuvering to and landing on a lighted highway or road

A

b. planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area

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7
Q
  1. When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of:

a. all VORs to be used en route
b. airport rotating light beacons
c. destination airport lightning system

A

c. destination airport lightning system

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8
Q
  1. For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the:

a. pupils of the eyes have become dilated in approximately 10 minutes
b. rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in
approximately 30 minutes
c. cones in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 5 minutes

A

b. rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in
approximately 30 minutes

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9
Q
  1. A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?

a. Maintain altitude and airspeed
b. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air
c. Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed

A

b. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air

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10
Q
  1. Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?

a. Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed
b. Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude
c. Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering
speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and
altitude

A

c. Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering
speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and
altitude

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11
Q
  1. If serve turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to:

a. minimum control speed
b. design-maneuvering speed
c. maximum structural cruising speed

A

b. design-maneuvering speed

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12
Q
  1. When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should:

a. rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation
b. climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identity checkpoints
c. apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible

A

c. apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible

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13
Q
  1. A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:

a. maintaining a safe airspeed
b. landing directly into the wind
c. turning back to the takeoff field

A

a. maintaining a safe airspeed

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14
Q
  1. When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason?

a. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control
b. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane
c. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible

A

a. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control

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15
Q
  1. Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind
    conditions?
    a. A power-on approach and power-on landing
    b. A power-off approach and power-on landing
    c. A power-on approach and power-off landing
A

a. A power-on approach and power-on landing

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16
Q
  1. A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the:

a. directional of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to
the runway
b. directional of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be
parallel to the runway
c. downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the
airplane to drift

A

b. directional of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be
parallel to the runway

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17
Q
  1. With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use:

a. aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel and nosewheel-type airplanes
b. right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle and conventional-gear airplanes
c. rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure
into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both
conventional and nosewheel-type airplanes

A

c. rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure
into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both
conventional and nosewheel-type airplanes

18
Q
  1. When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

a. Neutral
b. Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
c. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

A

c. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

19
Q
  1. While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned:

a. neutral at all the time
b. toward the direction from which the wind is blowing
c. opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing

A

c. opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing

20
Q
  1. Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

a. Power, pitch, bank, and trim
b. Thrust, lift, turns, and glides
c. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descent

A

c. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descent

21
Q
  1. Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its

Center of gravity moves aft 0

Center of gravity moves forward

Elevator trim is adjusted nosedown

A

Center of gravity moves aft 0

22
Q
  1. Light beacons producing red flashes indicate:

End of runway at departure end

A pilot should remain clear of an airport traffic pattern and continue circling

Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation

A

Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation 0

23
Q
  1. Why should flight speeds above Vne be avoided?

Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure

Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered

Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable

A

Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered 0

24
Q
  1. Which action is appropriate if a pilot becomes involved in hijacking?

Transmit code H on 121.5

Append the code PAPA to the aircraft call sign during all radio transmissions.

Set codes 7500 on the aircraft transponder.

A

Set codes 7500 on the aircraft transponder. 0

25
Q
  1. A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is:

Maintaining a safe airspeed.

Landing directly into the wind.

Turning back to the takeoff field.

A

Maintaining a safe airspeed.

26
Q
  1. The pilot-in -command of an aircraft operated under IFR, in controlled airspace, shall report as soon as practical to ATC when:

Climbing or descending to assigned altitudes.

Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.

Requested to contact a new controlling facility.

A

Experiencing any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communications equipment, occurring in flight.

27
Q
  1. When an aircraft is rapidly accelerated in straight and level, such as take-off, what inhderent precession characteristics, if any will be displayed?

The miniature aircraft would indicate a descent.

The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.

It depends on whether the altitude indicator is an electric or vacuum type.

No precession characteristic is evident unless a force.

A

The miniature aircraft would indicate a climb.

28
Q
  1. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is:

Not recommended because of excess time involved in its proper utilization.

Discouraged because of possible failure of the cockpit lightning system.

Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.

A

Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.

29
Q
  1. Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence.

The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airline is heavy, clean and fast.

Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll.

A

The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.

30
Q
  1. When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should:

Rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation.

Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate
shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible.

Climb to a higher altitude because it will easier to identify checkpoints

A

Apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate
shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible.

31
Q
  1. Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead at your altitude?

Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course.

Make sure you are slightly above patch of the jet.

Make sure you are slightly below the patch of the jet and perpendicular to the course.

A

Make sure you are slightly above patch of the jet.

32
Q
  1. When receiving radar vectors, if an airplane is approaching on a collision course from your left, what action should you take?

Take whatever action is necessary to avoid collision.

Expect the other pilot to give way as required by regulations.

Wait until ATC issues a new heading altitude that will ensure adequate
separation.

A

Take whatever action is necessary to avoid collision.

33
Q
  1. To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to
    become airborne?

Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down.

At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point.

Past the point where the jet touched down.

A

Past the point where the jet touched down.

34
Q
  1. During landing on a runway covered with water or slush which braking technique is most effective?

Refrain from using brakes because the wheels will lock and cause uncontrollable skidding.

Apply breaks firmly and immediately upon runway contact to establish a squeegee or drying action of the tires against the runway surface and use differential braking.

Apply moderate braking after wheels have had ample time to spin up. If a skid develops, release completely and apply moderate differential braking.

A

Apply moderate braking after wheels have had ample time to spin up. If a skid develops, release completely and apply moderate differential braking.

35
Q
  1. How can you determine if another aircraft is on collision course with your
    aircraft?

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.

The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same print in space.

A

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

36
Q
  1. What procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate
    embedded thunderstorm activity?

Set power for recommended turbulence airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

The pilot should reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.

Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and thereafter maintain a constant altitude.

A

Set power for recommended turbulence airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

37
Q
  1. Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?

A power-on approach and power-on landing

A power-off approach and power-on landing

A power-on approach and power-off landing

A

A power-on approach and power-on landing

38
Q
  1. Pilots are required to have the anti-collision light system operating:

During all types of operation, both day and night

Anytime the pilot is in the cockpit

Anytime an engine is in operation

A

During all types of operation, both day and night

39
Q
  1. When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron position should be used?

Neutral

Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

A

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

40
Q
  1. If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to:

Minimum control speed

Design-maneuvering speed

Maximum structural cruising speed

A

Design-maneuvering speed

41
Q
  1. After experiencing a powerplant failure at night, one of the primary
    considerations should include:

Turning off all electrical switches to save battery power for landing

Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area 0

Maneuvering to, and landing on a lighted highway or road

A

Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area 0

GROUND SCHOOL (11 decks)

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