PPL- AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Flashcards

1
Q
  1. An airplane said to be inherently stable will:

be difficult to stall.

require less effort to control.

not spin.

A

require less effort to control.

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2
Q
  1. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on;
    118.0 and 118.8 MHz.
    121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
    123.0 and 119.0 MHz.
A

121.5 and 243.0 MHz.

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3
Q
  1. When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable):

after one-half the battery’s useful life.

during each annual and 100-hour inspection.

every 24 calendar months.

A

after one-half the battery’s useful life.

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4
Q
  1. When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested;

anytime.

at 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.

during the first 5 minutes after the hour.

A

during the first 5 minutes after the hour.

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5
Q
  1. Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated:

turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.

ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.

monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

A

monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

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6
Q
  1. A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant- speed propeller is to:

avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

A

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

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7
Q
  1. How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller:

the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold
pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold
Pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant
blade angle.

the throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and
the mixture control regulates the power output.

A

the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold
Pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant
blade angle.

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8
Q
  1. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should:

check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

A

visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

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9
Q
  1. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of
    Aircraft:

normal, utility, acrobatic.

airplane, rotorcraft, glider.

landplane, seaplane.

A

normal, utility, acrobatic.

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10
Q
  1. What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily
    accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft:
    certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.

a pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment
of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of
experience.

an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical
certificate if required.

A

an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical
certificate if required.

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11
Q
  1. Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each Flight:

check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

become familiar with all available information concerning the
flight.

review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

A

become familiar with all available information concerning the
flight.

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12
Q
  1. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the
    pilot in command to:

review traffic control light signal procedures.

check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency
locator transmitter (ELT).

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the
aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

A

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the
aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

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13
Q
  1. With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
Transport, restricted, provisional.

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

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14
Q
  1. What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller:

permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.

permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient
performance.

provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates
vibrations.

A

permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient
performance.

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15
Q
  1. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:

the designation of an alternate airport.

a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as
planned.

A

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as
planned.

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16
Q
  1. Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

Aircraft power, pitch, bank, and trim.

Starting, taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

A

Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents.

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17
Q
  1. Recovery from a stall in any airplane becomes more difficult when its:
    center of gravity moves forward.
    elevator trim is adjusted nosedown
    center of gravity moves aft.
A

center of gravity moves aft.

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18
Q
  1. Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns?

The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed.
The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.
Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick.

A

The raising of flaps increases the stall speed.

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19
Q
  1. If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its:
    vertical axis.
    lateral axis.
    longitudinal axis.
A

lateral axis.

20
Q
  1. What is one purpose of wing flaps?
    To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing
    without increasing the airspeed.
    To relieve the pilot of maintaining continuous pressure on the controls.
    To decrease wing area to vary the lift.
A

To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing
without increasing the airspeed.

20
Q
  1. One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to:
    decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed,
    permit a touchdown at a higher airspeed.
    increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
A

increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

21
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
    To control yaw.
    To control over banking tendency.
    C) To control roll.
A

To control yaw.

22
Q
  1. When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
    During unaccelerated flight.
    When the aircraft is accelerating.
    C) When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.
A

During unaccelerated flight.

23
Q
  1. The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle?
    Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.
    Between the airplanes’ climb angle and the horizon.
    C) Formed by longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the
    wing.
A

Between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

24
Q
  1. An airplane said to be inherently stable will:
    be difficult to stall.
    require less effort to control.
    not spin.
A

require less effort to control.

24
Q
  1. The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will?
    Increase if the CG is moved forward.
    Change with an increase in gross weight.
    C) Remain the same regardless of gross weight.
A

C) Remain the same regardless of gross weight.

25
Q
  1. What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?
    The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.
    The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder, and the rudder
    trim.
    C) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
A

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift.

26
Q
  1. What causes and airplane (except T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted:
    the CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.
    the downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is
    reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.
    when thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the
    wings can no longer support the weight.
A

the CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced.

27
Q
  1. When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
    When at low angles of attack.
    When at high angles of attack
    C) When at high airspeeds
A

When at high angles of attack

28
Q
  1. Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will?
    Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines
    to the engine..
    Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
    C) Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the
    tanks.
A

C) Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the
tanks.

29
Q
  1. What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
    The next higher octane aviation gas.
    The next lower octane aviation gas.
    C) Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
A

The next higher octane aviation gas.

30
Q
  1. During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft in safe for flight?
    The pilot-in-command.
    The owner or operator
    The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection
A

The pilot-in-command.

31
Q
  1. The airworthiness certificate, registration certificate, radio station
    license, operating limitations, including _______ must be onboard the
    aircraft prior to early flight:
    life jackets.
    weight and balance data.
    C) airframe and engine logbooks.
A

C) airframe and engine logbooks.

32
Q
  1. Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?
    In the airworthiness Certificate.
    In the current, FAA- approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof
    In the aircraft airframe air frame and engine and engine logbooks.
A

In the current, FAA- approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof

33
Q
  1. Preflight action require pilots to determine current weather reports, full requirements, alternate course of action, traffic delays, including
    __________________.:
    runway lengths at airports of intended use.
    any preventive maintenance done to the aircraft.
    C) the schedule for aircraft inspection.
A

runway lengths at airports of intended use.

34
Q
  1. Excessively high engine temperatures will:
    cause loss power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engines damage.
    cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling
    fins.
    not appreciably affect engine.
A

cause loss power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engines damage.

34
Q
  1. The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:
    decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density
    decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for
    increased air density.
    increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in
    pressure and density.
A

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density

34
Q
  1. What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
    Never-exceed speed
    Maneuvering speed.
    Turbulence or rough-air speed.
A

Never-exceed speed

35
Q
  1. An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would:
    probably experience failure of the engine ignition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lightning system, and avionics equipment.

probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current

experience avionics equipment failure.

A

experience avionics equipment failure.

36
Q
  1. What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
    Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine
    gauges.
    Place the magneto origination switch momentarily in the OFF position to
    check for proper grounding.
    Test each break and the parking brake.
A

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine
gauges.

37
Q
  1. The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is:
    magnetic deviation.
    magnetic variation.
    compass acceleration error.
A

compass acceleration error.

38
Q
  1. What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is
    overheating during a climb?
    Reduce climb speed increase RPM.
    Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
    Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
A

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

39
Q
  1. What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on
    airspeed indicators?
    Maneuvering speed
    Never-exceed speed.
    Maximum Structural cruising speed.
A

Maneuvering speed

40
Q
  1. What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended
    octane is not available?
    The next lower octane aviation gas.
    Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
    The next higher-octane aviation gas
A

The next higher-octane aviation gas

41
Q
  1. If the pilot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which
    instruments would be affected?
    The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
    The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and slip indicator.
    The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and slip indicator.
A

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.