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CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards > Systems Test > Flashcards

Systems Test Flashcards

1
Q

When the main passenger door is unlocked, it will be associated with a

A

Warning message and aural alert

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2
Q

The galley service door is a _____ door.

A

Type 1/semi plug

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3
Q

The maximum weight allowed in the aft cargo compartment is

A

4,375 lbs

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4
Q

The maximum weight allowed in each section of the forward cargo bay is

A

850 lbs

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5
Q

The crew escape hatch is a _____ door.

A

Plug

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6
Q

The DC service switch on the overhead panel gets power from the

A

APU battery direct bus

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7
Q

What is the function of the IDG?

A

To convert variable N2 engine speed to constant generator speed

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8
Q

IDG stands for

A

Integrated Drive Generator

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9
Q

The CRJ900 has _____ TRU’s.

A

4

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10
Q

The function of the TRUs is to

A

Convert 115 V AC to 28 V DC

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11
Q

The TRUs are rated at

A

120 amps

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12
Q

The three main generators are rated at

A

40 KVA up to FL410

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13
Q

The ADG generator is rated at

A

15 KVA

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14
Q

In flight, the ADG will auto deploy with

A

total loss of AC power

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15
Q

If landing on ADG power, you must be fully configured for landing no later than

A

140 KIAS

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16
Q

Normal hydraulic system pressure is

A

3,000 PSI

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17
Q

High hydraulic pressure is

A

3,200 PSI

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18
Q

Hydraulic over pressure relief happens at

A

3,750 PSI

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19
Q

T/F: Hydraulic pump 3B will operate with the ADG regardless of switch position

A

True

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20
Q

T/F: The B hydraulic pump will automatically turn on if an associated A pump
(Switches auto/on)

A

False

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21
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are operating in cruise flight when the hydraulic switch is set to Auto/On?

A

1A, 3A, 2A

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22
Q

In the event of a depressurization, the cabin altitude warning will illuminate at

A

10,000 ft

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23
Q

The passenger oxygen masks will auto deploy at _____ cabin altitude.

A

14,000 feet

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24
Q

The cabin altitude caution will trigger at a cabin altitude of

A

8,500 ft

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25
Q

Anytime there is cargo onboard, we have to be within ____ minutes of a suitable airport.

A

60

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26
Q

The continuous ignition must be selected on during operations on/in

A

Both A. & C. Contaminated runways, the vicinity of thunderstorms

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27
Q

The starter limitation for the first two attempts are

A

90 seconds on, 10 seconds off

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28
Q

The minimum battery voltage to start the APU is

A

22 volts

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29
Q

Where would you check the battery voltage prior to starting the APU?

A

DC synoptic page

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30
Q

The top altitude to start the APU is

A

FL370

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31
Q

The top altitude we can use APU bleed air is

A

FL250

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32
Q

On the overhead panel, the illumination of FAULT on the pressurization controller switchlight, along with the associated master caution indicates the loss of

A

Both pressurization controllers

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33
Q

Ram air is used for

A

All of the above. PACK pre-cooling, hydraulic system 1&2 cooling, unpressurized flight

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34
Q

A PACK fault could be triggered by

A

Both A. & B. PACK overpressure, PACK high temperature

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35
Q

Single PACK operation is limited to

A

FL250

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36
Q

There are _____ ways to keep the fuel balanced.

A

3

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37
Q

The fuel control computer will balance the fuel when there is a _____ imbalance.

A

200 lb

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38
Q

If there are at least 500 lbs of fuel in the center tank, there must be at least ____ of fuel in the wing tanks.

39
Q

The crew oxygen bottle pressure relief happens at

40
Q

The OXY LOW PRES caution will appear when the crew oxygen bottle depletes to

41
Q

The maximum usable fuel when pressure re-fueling is

A

19,594 lbs

42
Q

The maximum usable fuel when gravity refueling is

A

14,810 lbs

43
Q

The engine fuel temperature must be at least ____ for takeoff

A

5 degrees C

44
Q

Selecting DEPLOY on the EMER FLAP switch will deploy the

A

Flaps to 20, slats to 25

45
Q

The EMER FLAP switch is inhibited above

46
Q

What is the maximum available steering with using only the rudder pedals?

47
Q

Which of the following are not depicted on the EICAS DOOR synoptic page?

A

Crew escape hatch, aft equipment door

48
Q

The 5 rechargeable battery packs provide power to the emergency lights for

A

10 minutes

49
Q

“Too Low Gear” will sound with the landing gear retracted and radio altitude

A

<500 AGL and <190 kts

50
Q

The ADG (Air Driven Generator) is rated at

A

15 KVA, 115V(AC), 400HZ

51
Q

How much thrust is provided from the bypass air (N1)?

52
Q

The outflow valve has__electric motors.

53
Q

The FADEC alternator will supply electrical power to both channels above

54
Q

Ailerons provide lateral control with assistance of the MFSs

55
Q

____ smoke detectors in the FWD cargo compartment and ____ in the AFT cargo compartment.

56
Q

The outboard brakes are supplied by

A

Hydraulic system 2

57
Q

Alternate landing gear extension is supplied by

A

Hydraulic system 2

58
Q

Landing gear extension is supplied by

A

Hydraulic system 3

59
Q

Nosewheel steering is supplied by

A

Hydraulic system 3

60
Q

Inboard brakes are supplied by

A

Hydraulic system 3

61
Q

During an engine start, the FADEC will not provide protection for

A

Dry motoring

62
Q

During a normal start, the starter will cut out at

63
Q

How is a cowl duct leak detected?

A

Pressure transducer

64
Q

Hydraulic pumps 1B and 2B will operate when

A

Their respective buses are powered
Any generator operating
Flaps out of zero degrees

65
Q

When operating in icing conditions and both wing and cowl anti-ice is selected on, the ICE caution message will become a green ICE advisory message when

A

Wing leading edge is greater than 39 degree C

66
Q

With the APU door open and the APU not operating, maximum airspeed is restricted to

67
Q

How many outflow valve(s) are there?

68
Q

The APU battery is rated at

A

43 ampere hour, 24 volt

69
Q

During engine start, FADEC will provide protection for

A

Hot start & hung start

70
Q

The nose wheel steering system provides__ degrees of steering.

71
Q

How many APU start attempts can be made in 1 hour?

72
Q

Visible moisture can be defined as fog (1 mile or less), standing water, rain, snow, sleet or ice crystals.

73
Q

In a PC runaway situation (bungee breakout) the SSCU will provide automatic onside MSF control?

74
Q

The maximum fuel imbalance for takeoff is

75
Q

The purpose of the HYD SOV switchlight is

A

To stop the flow of hydraulic fluid to EDP 1A or 2A

76
Q

The minimum battery voltage for an APU start is

77
Q

What is the purpose of the HPV?

A

To provide high pressure 10th stage bleed air if required

78
Q

The APR (automatic performance reserve) will activate on takeoff when

A

During an engine failure and FADEC senses a mismatch of 15% N1 between the two engines

79
Q

On the CF34-8C5 engine, the core air are provides approximately___% of the thrust.

80
Q

How many types of aural WARNINGS are provided to the flight crew?

81
Q

The rudder is powered by 2 PCUs?

82
Q

The Yaw Damper is controlled by the auto pilot system?

83
Q

The AVAIL illumination on the AC External Power Switchlight, indicates

A

Correct, voltage, frequency and phase

84
Q

In flight, what situation will cause the ADG to auto-deploy?

A

Complete loss of AC power

85
Q

The three subsystems of the FADEC consist of fuel control, compressor airflow management, and engine starting ignition control

86
Q

If the ground valve fails to fully close after the main cabin door is closed, an_____message is displayed

87
Q

Maximum pressure relief differential is

88
Q

The green line on the airspeed tape indicates

89
Q

Engine oil is cooled by

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

90
Q

With the horizontal stabilizer in motion for more than___seconds, the clacker will sound.

91
Q

The highest priority when trimming the horizontal stabilizer is

92
Q

The APU fuel source comes from the

A

Left collector tank

93
Q

The pressurization system automatically pre-pressurizes the aircraft to

CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards (9 decks)

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