Recurrent Written Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight of the CRJ 900?

A

82,500 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the CRJ 900?

A

73,500 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The maximum total weight in the forward and center cargo compartments is

A

1,700 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the maximum weight that can be supported by the main passenger door?

A

1,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The DC service switch on the overhead panel “ON” is the primary service configuration used on line.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The DC service switch, in the “ON” position, will power the

A

DC Service Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The AC external power “AVAIL” switchlight indicates that:

A

AC external power is connected to the aircraft.
AC external power is at the correct voltage, frequency, and phase.
AC external power is not currently in use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the illumination of the FAULT portion of an IDG switchlight indicate?

A

High oil temperature or low oil pressure in the IDG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

With the hydraulic pumps in the AUTO/ON position, which pumps are running during a normal takeoff?

A

All 6 hydraulic pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When will a hydraulic B pump turn on with the switch in the AUTO position?

A

When the bus is powered, any generator is online, and flaps are out of 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What methods are available to close the hydraulic SOV?

A

A guarded switchlight on the overhead panel.
Pressing the RH or LH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How many DC motors are installed to control the outflow valve?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At what cabin altitude do passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A

14,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Ram Air used for in the CRJ 900?

A

Pack pre-cooling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Illumination of the FAULT portion of a pack switchlight indicates

A

An overpressure or overtemperature condition in the pack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When in manual pressurization mode, placing the MAN ALT switch in the UP position

A

Opens the outflow valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

With a red windshear warning displayed on the PFD, the airplane is experiencing:

A

A decrease in performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the maximum altitude for slat/flap extension?

A

15,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Selecting the EMER FLAP switch to DEPLOY at 250 KIAS would not result in slat/flap movement.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What flap position would deploying the EMER FLAP switch result in?

A

20 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which hydraulic system is used for normal landing gear extension?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If hydraulic system 3 failed, what amount of nosewheel steering movement would be available?

A

8 degrees with the rudder pedals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If the ADG deploys, we must place hydraulic pump 3B switch into the ON position in order to power the pump

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

While single-engine taxiing on the first flight of the day (left engine running), with flaps set for takeoff, how much braking will be available?

A

Full braking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How would we conduct a bleeds closed takeoff?

A

Turn the APU on for takeoff

26
Q

If the APU is not operating and the APU door position is unknown or open, what is the maximum airspeed?

A

220 KIAS

27
Q

When must continuous ignition be selected ON?

A

Takeoffs and landings on contaminated runways

28
Q

What is the maximum speed landing gear can be retracted?

A

200 KIAS

29
Q

If we discharge the cargo fire bottles into the aft cargo compartment, we still have an additional bottle to discharge into the forward/center compartments.

A

False

30
Q

At what amount of imbalance does the EICAS display a FUEL IMBALANCE caution message?

A

800 lbs

31
Q

When will the fuel system computer automatically balance fuel?

A

200 lbs

32
Q

What is maximum fuel capacity for a gravity refuel?

A

14,810 lbs

33
Q

The refuel/defuel panel can be powered when the aircraft is not connected to any source of AC electrical power

A

True

34
Q

What is the maximum pressure differential for the aircraft?

A

8.7 PSI

35
Q

Pressing the EMER DEPRESS switchlight in flight will cause

A

The outflow valve to open.
Cabin altitude to be limited to 14,500 ft +/- 500 ft.

36
Q

What does pressing the ENG START switchlight do?

A

Closes the ISOL valve.
Closes the pack valves.
Closes the bleed air valves (PRSOVs).

37
Q

FADEC provides protection for hot starts only

A

False

38
Q

What is the danger area in front of the aircraf with the weather radar operating?

A

2 ft

39
Q

Pressing the TOGA buttons on the ground causes:

A

TO lateral mode, which will maintain heading at weight-off-wheels with a maximum 5 degree bank angle.
TO vertical mode which results in an optimized pitch-up attitude on the flight director.
Updates the FMS position to the end of the runway.

40
Q

Pressing the TOGA buttons in the air results in:

A

A 10 degree pitch up on the flight director

41
Q

A set of _____ rechargeable batteries powers the emergency lights for ___ minutes in the event of a loss of electrical power.

A

5, 10

42
Q

How often must the emergency equipment in the aircraft be inspected?

A

Every 12 calendar months

43
Q

Caution and status messages can be boxed, while warning and advisory messages cannot.

A

True

44
Q

An advisory message indicates:

A

That a safe condition exists

45
Q

What is the rating of the TRUs?

A

120 A

46
Q

The primary flight controls in the CRJ900 are:

A

Controlled by a system of cables and pulleys

47
Q

After pulling the ROLL DISC handle, an amber ROLL SEL switchlight will illuminate on the glareshield. Selecting that swtichlight will:

A

Provide cross-side MFS panel control to assist in roll

48
Q

The thrust reverser translating cowls are actuated by:

A

The on-side hydraulic system

49
Q

Thrust reversers must be idle or stowed by:

A

60 KIAS

50
Q

When flying a visual approach, the autopilot must be disengaged by:

A

400 ft AGL

51
Q

An engine fire on the ground will cause both engine fire bottles to discharge automatically into the affected engine.

A

False

52
Q

The engine core and turbine sections are equipped with a dual-loop overheat detection system.

A

True

53
Q

What causes the AC ESS XFER switchlight to illuminate?

A

AC ESS bus is being powered by a source other than AC bus 1

54
Q

NAV 2 can be tuned using:

A

Either RTU.
The FMS radio page.
FMS auto tuning.

55
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required on both batteries to start the APU?

A

22V

56
Q

What causes the illumination of the ICE caution message and associated switchlight?

A

Icing conditions detected with wing and/or cowl anti-ice selected off

57
Q

How long after turning the battery master on must we wait prior to completing a fire detection test?

A

30 seconds

58
Q

The pilot is authorized to reset any circuit breaker that may have popped without authorization from maintenance control or a specific procedure.

A

False

59
Q

At what point does the crew oxygen blowout disc blowout?

A

2,800 PSI

60
Q

How long will the chemical oxygen generators for passengers generate oxygen after activation?

A

13 minutes