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CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards > Oral Study Guide (green writing) > Flashcards

Oral Study Guide (green writing) Flashcards

1
Q

What does the AVAIL light mean?

A

AVAIL switch light indicates correct voltage, frequency, and phase.

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2
Q

What are the sources of AC power in the CRJ 900?

A
  • 2 engine driven generators
  • APU Generator
  • 1 Air Driven Generator
  • 1 AC External Power Plug In
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3
Q

What does the Generator Control Unit do?

A

Controls and monitors the generators and provides protection and voltage regulation for each generator.

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4
Q

What is the main battery rated to?

A

17 amps 24 volt

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5
Q

How long can the battery master be left on without another power source?

A

5 minutes

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6
Q

Why does the CRJ 900 have this limitation? (Battery master can only be left on for 5 mins)

A

5 minutes because ED1 and ED2 utilize AC cooling fans. ED1 and ED2 will overheat after 5 minutes.

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7
Q

What is an IDG and what does it do?

A

The Integrated Drive Generators convert variable N2 speed to a constant 12,000 RPM generator speed.

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8
Q

What are the generators rated to?

A

40KVA, 115VAC, 400HZ

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9
Q

What is the APU Generator rated to?

A

40KVA, 115VAC, 400HZ

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10
Q

When would the ADG automatically deploy?

A

When AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 lose power

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11
Q

What is the ADG rated to?

A

15KVA, 115VAC, 400HZ

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12
Q

What does the ADG power?

A
  • AC ESS Bus
  • HYD Pump 3B
  • STAB TRIM CH2
  • FLAPS/SLATS 1/2 Speed
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13
Q

What would cause the FAULT light on the IDG to illuminate?

A

High oil temperature and/or low oil pressure

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14
Q

What will cause the AC ESS XFER switch light to illuminate?

A

The AC ESS XFER switch light will illuminate anytime the AC ESS Bus is not being powered by AC BUS 1.

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15
Q

What is the priority for the Auto XFER?

A
  • On side generator
  • APU
  • Off side generator
  • External Power
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16
Q

What would cause the FAIL light to illuminate on the AUTO XFER switch light?

A

The GCU has detected a Bus Fault or a Generator Overcurrent

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17
Q

When the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switch lights are selected, what happens?

A
  • Fuel SOVs Close
  • Hydraulic SOVs Close
  • Bleed Air SOVs Close
  • IDGs are taken offline
  • Engine bottle squibs are armed
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18
Q

What happens if a crewmember selects the L HYD SOV?

A

The Left HYD SOV closes and the flow of hydraulic fluid is shut off to the engine driven pump.

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19
Q

The QRH asks the crew to verify that the SOV is closed, where is the L HYD SOV located?

A
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20
Q

How many hydraulic systems does the CRJ900 have?

A

Hydraulic power is provided by 3 independent systems

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21
Q

What is the hydraulic system normal pressure?

A

3000 PSI

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22
Q

What is the normal hydraulic fluid quantity?

A

45%-85%

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23
Q

During normal cruise flight, how many pumps would be operating?

A

3 hydraulic pumps

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24
Q

What causes the backup (b) pumps to turn on?

A

Flaps greater than zero

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25
Q

What lighting should be on when instructed to “Line Up and Wait”?

A

All lights except landing and taxi lights

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26
Q

What would cause a boost pump to automatically turn on?

A

Low fuel pressure at the main ejector

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27
Q

In AUTO Mode, when would the system begin to transfer fuel?

A

When an imbalance of more than 200 lbs exists

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28
Q

When will the system stop transferring fuel?

A

When the fuel tanks are balanced plus 50 lbs

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29
Q

What would cause the GRAVITY XFLOW FAIL light to illuminate?

A

The gravity crossflow valve is in the uncommanded position

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30
Q

Can you identify the gravity crossflow valve?

A
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31
Q

How many fuel pumps does the CRJ 900 have?

A

5 total
• 2 engine driven
• 2 boost pumps
• 1 APU pump

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32
Q

What is the max fuel imbalance for takeoff?

A

300 lbs

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33
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance for all other phases of flight?

A

800 lbs

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34
Q

What would cause the fuel SOVs to close?

A

The engine fire push switch

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35
Q

After selecting the APU PWR FUEL switch, what must the crew observe prior to selecting the START/STOP switch?

A
  • APU SOV OPEN status message
  • APU IN BITE status message
  • APU RPM and EGT gauges are displayed
  • APU DOOR OPEN message is displayed
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36
Q

When will the APU AVAIL light illuminate?

A

At 99% RPM plus 2 seconds

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37
Q

What is the maximum altitude for operating the APU?

A

FL410

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38
Q

What is the maximum altitude to start the APU?

A

FL370

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39
Q

What is the maximum altitude for bleed air extraction?

A

FL250

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40
Q

If the APU door position is unknown or OPEN with the APU not operating, what airspeed is the crew restricted to?

A

220 KIAS

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41
Q

What APU exhaust hazard area exists for the CRJ 900?

A

No hazard area due to the height of exhaust

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42
Q

Where does the APU receive its fuel from?

A

Left collector tank

43
Q

In the event that the APU pump fails, will the APU continue to operate?

A

Yes, if the APU pump fails, an internal bypass valve opens

44
Q

How much voltage must batteries have prior to start attempt?

A

22 Volts on each battery

45
Q

If there is a fire in the APU, what prevents/contains the fire from spreading to other areas?

A

The APU is surrounded by a titanium fire proof container

46
Q

In the event of an emergency and the crew is not present, how can the ground crew shut down the APU?

A
47
Q

What would happen if the APU caught fire and the aircraft was unattended?

A

The APU will automatically shut down and the APU bottle will discharge after 5 seconds

48
Q

What would happen if the APU caught on fire when airborne?

A

The APU will shut down but the crew must discharge the bottle

49
Q

What are the engine starter limitations?

A
  • Attempts 1 and 2: 90 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF

* Attempts 3 through 5: 90 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF

50
Q

What are the HOT START memory items?

A

Affected Thrust Lever………SHUTOFF
Dry Motor……..UNTIL ITT IS REDUCED BELOW 120°C OR STARTER LIMIT, WHICHEVER COMES FIRST
Affected engine, ENG STOP switch…….STOP

51
Q

When must continuous ignition be used?

A
  • Takeoff and landings on contaminated runways
  • Flight through moderate or heavy rain
  • Flight through moderate or greater turbulence
  • Flight in vicinity of thunderstorms
52
Q

How can the crew set Go Around Thrust?

A

TOGA

53
Q

How can the crew set Max Continuous Thrust?

A

CLIMB

54
Q

How can the crew set APR Thrust?

A

MAX POWER

55
Q

What speed must the thrust reversers be idle power?

A

60 KIAS

56
Q

Why does the CRJ 900 have this limitation? (Thrust reversers idle at 60 KTS)

A

FOD Ingestion hazard

57
Q

When do icing conditions exist on the ground?

A

OAT is 10 degrees Celsius or below and visible moisture is present or surface contamination exists

58
Q

What visibility value would be considered visible moisture?

A

1 SM or less

59
Q

When do icing conditions exist in the air?

A

TAT is 10 degrees Celsius or below and visible moisture is present; Except when SAT is -40 degrees Celsius or below

60
Q

What is bleed air used for in the CRJ900?

A
  • Engine START
  • Anti Ice
  • Pressurization
  • Air Conditioning
  • Avionics cooling
61
Q

What stage of the engine normally supplies bleed air?

A

The 6th stage is the normal source of bleed air

62
Q

What happens when there is a higher demand for bleed air than that stage is capable of producing?

A

When demand exceeds the 6th stage capability, the HPV opens to supply 10th stage bleed air

63
Q

What PSI does the pressure regulating function limit the bleed air output to the packs?

A

The pressure regulating function regulates the PSI to 45 PSI

64
Q

At what cabin altitude would we receive the Cabin Altitude CAUTION?

A

CABIN ALT caution message: cabin altitude >8,500’

65
Q

At what cabin altitude would we receive the Cabin Altitude WARNING?

A

CABIN ALT warning message: Voice message - “CABIN PRESSURE” cabin altitude >10,000’

66
Q

How can the crew manually decrease cabin altitude?

A
  • Select PRESS CONTROL to MAN
  • MAN ALT ON
  • Adjust MAN RATE to desired rate
67
Q

How many pressure controllers does the CRJ900 have?

A

2

68
Q

Do both pressure controllers operate at the same time?

A

No

69
Q

How is it determined which PC is used?

A

WOW + 3 minutes

70
Q

When EMER DEPRESS is selected, what happens to the aircrafts pressurization state?

A

The aircraft will depressurize to 14,500’ +/- 500’

71
Q

What would cause a pack fault?

A

Over temperature or over pressure

72
Q

What is the single pack limitation?

A

FL250

73
Q

What is the maximum altitude to select RAM-AIR?

A

15,000’

74
Q

How can the crew manually cool down the cabin?

A
75
Q

When must the CARGO COND AIR be selected ON?

A

When live animals are in the cargo hold

76
Q

Which side of the mixing manifold does the RAM-AIR supply air to?

A

RAM-AIR provides ram air to the right side of mixing manifold

77
Q

Which of the cargo bays are pressurized?

A

Both FORWARD and AFT Cargo Bays are pressurized

78
Q

Can we carry live animals in both cargo bays?

A

Live animals may only be carried in the AFT cargo bay

79
Q

What is the aft cargo weight limitation?

A

4375 lbs

80
Q

What is the forward cargo weight limitation?

A

850 lbs each

81
Q

What is the cargo floor loading limitation?

A

75 lbs per square ft

82
Q

What can be done if an item exceeds this limitation? (Cargo bay pounds per square footage limit)

A

Pallet the item

83
Q

If we are flying at 250 knots, temperature is 3C, we are in the clouds, there is NO “ICE” annunciated, what should be on wings or cowls?

A

Cowls

84
Q

What airspeed determines wing anti-ice usage?

A

230 KIAS

85
Q

Which hydraulic system is used for landing gear extension and retraction?

A

Hydraulic system 3

86
Q

Which hydraulic system is requested for alternate landing gear extension?

A

Hydraulic system 2

87
Q

What is the maximum speed for landing gear retraction?

A

200 KIAS

88
Q

What is the maximum speed for landing gear extension?

A

220 KIAS

89
Q

What is the maximum tire speed?

A

195 knots

90
Q

After Type 4 fluid has been applied, if needed for taxi, what anti ice system should be on? Wings? Cowls?

A

Only cowls should be selected on

91
Q

What are the effects of ice and front contamination?

A
  • Increased weight
  • Loss of lift
  • Increased drag
  • Loss of control
92
Q

When must we hold short of the ILS critical area marking?

A

When instructed by ATC

93
Q

While holding short, what margin of safety does the taxiway hold position markings provide?

A

Wingtip clearance from passing aircraft

94
Q

If we are flying into an uncontrolled airport during hours of darkness, how will we turn on the runway lighting?

A

Click the mic 3 for low, 5 for medium, 7 for high

95
Q

What is the lowest reported RVR required to initiate a CAT II approach?

A

1200 RVR

96
Q

When setting up for a CAT II approach what is decision height determined by?

A

Radar Altitude

97
Q

What is the lowest visibility required for takeoff per Mesa Operations Specifications?

A

500 RVR

98
Q

What is the lowest visibility for a First Officer to conduct a takeoff?

A

1 SM

99
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

If weather reports indicate that:
• 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA
• Ceiling will be at least 2000’ AGL
• Visibility must be at least 3 S/M

100
Q

How many RVR reporting systems are required for a 500 RVR takeoff?

A

Minimum of 2 reporting systems

101
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind?

A

32 KTS

102
Q

Is the max demonstrated crosswind a limitation?

A

No

103
Q

Maximum tailwind for takeoff?

A

10 KTS

CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards (9 decks)

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