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CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards > Oral Exam > Flashcards

Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When do we need a second alternate?

A

Marginal conditions at our destination and first alternate: 500 ft ceilings & 1 mile visibility above the lowest compatible approach (ex: less than 700 & 1 & a half at the destination and first alternate would require you to have a second)
OR
If we’re using Exception 17347

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2
Q

What type of hypoxia is caused by carbon monoxide?

A

Hypemic hypoxia. Caused by the reduced ability of the blood to carry oxygen.

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3
Q

Can we have hypemic hypoxia in our aircraft?

A

Yes. Environmental and bleed system malfunction

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4
Q

What are signs of hypoxia?

A

Varied based on the person but usually involve increased breathing rate, headache, lightheadedness, dizziness, tunnel vision, poor coordination, impaired judgement, euphoria.

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5
Q

Can we carry hazardous materials?

A

Dry ice: each passenger can carry 5.5 lbs of dry ice & 441 lbs is permitted per aircraft.
Ammunition: each passenger can carry 11 lbs of ammunition & 110 lbs is permitted per aircraft.
Batteries in wheelchairs.
Blood which has been collected for the purpose of transfusion.
Tissues or organs intended for transplant.

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6
Q

What are our holding entries? Holding speeds/altitudes?

A

Direct, parallel, teardrop.
0-6,000: 200 KIAS
6,001-14,000: 230 KIAS
14,001+: 265 KIAS
Or as depicted on the chart near the hold.
If you can’t comply, tell them unable & what the min airspeed you can hold is.
Look in the CFM for Ch 7 performance.

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7
Q

At a high altitude your center of pressure shifts aft, what is that called?

A

Mach tuck.
Mach trim prevents this when hand flying.
Auto trim prevents this when on autopilot.

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8
Q

Time card 1245 start and 4 legs. Can those times be extended?

A

Table A: no unless extenuating circumstances after takeoff.

Table B: yes.

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9
Q

Airworthiness and registration picture, what are these?

A

An airworthiness certificate is an FAA document which grants authorization to operate an aircraft in flight.

The registration certificate is a certificate validating the aircraft’s registration with the FAA, a required document as per Federal Aviation Regulations.

There is also a radio operator’s permit and an air carrier operator’s permit.

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10
Q

Gear and ADG pins

A

Ensure landing gear pins (3) and ADG Safety Pin (1) are on board.
An AML write-up is required when gear pins are installed & removed.

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11
Q

Jump seat oxygen mask picture: does anyone else know how to operate these besides the captain, FO, and jump seater?

A

I will tell FAs how to operate them when they are on IOE.

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12
Q

Why do we have a cockpit safety check?

A

This is an inspection to determine if airplane systems are configured to safely place AC electrical power on the airplane busses. These procedures should be performed on through flights (enroute stops) if AC electrical power is removed from the airplane, or if there is any doubt that all aspects of the prevailing situation can be covered. Completion of this check ensures that there will be no danger to the airplane and/or personnel when powering the systems. This checklist shall be executed prior to assuming normal crew position.

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13
Q

How do we test the oxygen system?

A

Press the TEST/Reset button and observe the yellow “X” appear to signify a successful O2 flow test.

• Crew O2 Masks - Check that OXYGEN ON flag (white) is not displayed. If displayed, stow the mask properly.
• INT SVC Switch - Adjust volume for oxygen flow test.
• I/C-R/T Switch - IC microphone switch is selected to IC.
• SPKR Switch - Select and adjust volume for oxygen flow test.
• MASK/BOOM Switch - Select to MASK and adjust volume.
• Regulator Flow Selector - Set to 100%
• PRESS TO TEST AND RESET Lever - Push down and simultaneously push I/C switch on audio control panel. Listen for oxygen flow
sound through speaker, check that the flow indicator shows a yellow cross, then turns black and that the bag inflates.
• MASK/BOOM Switch Release - Maintain PRESS TO TEST AND RESET lever pushed.
• Emergency Flow Control Switch - Push and check that flow indicator shows a yellow cross.
• Emergency Flow Control Switch - Release and check that flow indicator turns black. Maintain PRESS TO TEST AND RESET lever pushed.
• Mask Operating Levers (Red) - Squeeze and check harness inflation and observe flow indicator shows yellow cross.

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14
Q

How many life vests?

A

3 in the flight deck (one under each pilot’s seat, and one to the left of the jump seat).
Life vests located near the Flight Attendant’s jump seats.

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15
Q

What are we checking for on the fire extinguisher?

A

Gauge is in the green, locking pin is intact and tamper seal is unbroken, examine for any physical damage, inspections are current.

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16
Q

What are we checking for on the PBE?

A

Check general condition and that tamper evident seals are unbroken. Ensure the Replace By Date sticker is present and unexpired. Dot inside changes color, if it’s changed color you know it’s bad. Blue is good, and discoloration is bad.

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17
Q

Doors/types

A 
Non-Plug Doors
▪ Main passenger door (locking pins, upper cam latching) (only one that’s a warning, rest are caution)
Semi-Plug Doors
▪ Galley Service
▪ Fwd Cargo
Plug-Type
▪ Crew Escape Hatch 
▪ Over Wing Exits
▪ Avionics Door
▪ Aft Cargo Door
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18
Q

Does the flight deck escape door have an associated EICAS message?

A

No

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19
Q

Can we pressurize the plane when on the ground?

A

No. Pressurization occurs at weight off wheels. The outflow valve begins to close and the cabin starts to pressurize. Ground valve is also open on the ground that doesn’t allow it to pressurize

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20
Q

When would you leave the pressure relief flap and door handle open?

A

When the APU is running or ground air supply is connected. (Equalizes the pressure)

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21
Q

Egress light for main door

A

Powered by 5 independent rechargeable battery packs that provide 10 mins of energy.

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22
Q

Main door limitations

A

4 people or 1,000 lbs

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23
Q

Nose wheel actuators and the turning limits w/ w/o tiller

A

With tiller: 80 degrees

With rudder: 8 degrees

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24
Q

Proximity sensor for gear

A

The proximity sensing system consists of the PSEU proximity sensors and proximity switches. The PSS sequences the landing gear operation. It also monitors the aircraft doors and flap position.

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25
Q

Crew oxygen service panel

A

Low: 1,410 PSI
Min for dispatch: Ch. 4 CFM
Full: 1,850 PSI
Pressure relief: 2,800 PSI

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26
Q

AC service panel

A

Green light AVAIL: correct voltage (115V), frequency (400HZ) & phase (3)

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27
Q

Galley door type

A

Semi plug type 2

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28
Q

Pressurization and gravity fueling limits and why they’re different?

A

Gravity is like filling up a Cessna. Pressure gets the fuel deeper into the wings.
Pressure total: 19,594 lbs
Pressure mains: 7,492 lbs
Pressure center: 4,610 lbs

Gravity total: 14,810 lbs
Gravity mains: 7,405 lbs

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29
Q

What does the EICAS show when the aircraft is being fueled?

A

AUTO XFLOW INHIBIT

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30
Q

Hyraulic 3 door, how is system 3 cooled?

A

Hydraulic system 3 components are not in close proximity to any appreciable heat sources (EDPs, engines) and relies only on natural convection and radiation for dissipating fluid heat. The system does not use a heat exchanger.

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31
Q

Normal, high, pressure relief numbers for hydraulics

A

3,000
3,200
1,800

3,750 is over pressure & will blow into ecology bottle

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32
Q

Firex bottles, why are they different?

A

One is slow releasing & one is fast.

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33
Q

If we walk around and MX has removed the main landing gear door, where would we find it written up?

A

AML & CDL

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34
Q

Is there a limitation for the APU door?

A

If APU is not on we are limited to 220 KIAS.

If APU is on we are not limited. (Mach .85)

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35
Q

Is there a limitation for the hydraulic exhaust?

A

None

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36
Q

Rear cargo capacity?

A

4,375 lbs

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37
Q

FWD cargo capacities?

A

850 lbs each & 1,700 total

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38
Q

FWD cargo door types?

A

Type 2 Semi Plug

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39
Q

What are the MLG aerodynamic brushes?

A

Form an aerodynamic seal when landing gear is retracted

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40
Q

RVSM requirements? RVSM altitude begins at?

A 
Autopilot
Altitude alerting system
2 altitude reporting transponders
2 ADCs
RVSM airspace is between FL290 & FL410
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41
Q

When the auto x-fer “FAIL” push-light switch is illuminated what does that mean? What is happening?

A

GCU has detected an overcurrent or bus fault. The GCU isolates the generator and associated bus from the system.

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42
Q

What happens when AC bus 2 doesn’t power the AC Essential BUS?

A

ADG deploys

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43
Q

What does the ADG power?

A

AS ESS Bus
Stab trim CH2
Slats/flaps
Hydraulic pump 3B

44
Q

What EICAS message do you get when you do the Fire System test?

A

Advisory: FIRE SYS TEST OK

45
Q

What happens when you push the guarded Hydraulic SOV switch light?

A

Shuts off flow of hydraulic fluid to the engine driven pump

46
Q

When the fuel boost pumps are armed, when are they activated?

A

Low pressure from the main ejector

47
Q

When the gravity x-flow push-light is illuminated what has happened?

A

Gravity valve opens, tanks are balanced

48
Q

Max fuel imbalance on the ground, in the air?

A

300 lbs

800 lbs

49
Q

How do you manual cross-bleed?

A

ISOL open
Bleed source selected
Bleed valves manual

50
Q

When manual cross bleed switch is in the CLSD position what happens?

A

All aircraft bleed sources are selected closed, however it is still possible to pressurize the manifold with air from an external air cart.

51
Q

APU fuel “fail” push-light meaning?

A

APU fuel pump has failed.

APU SOV is not in the commanded position.

52
Q

Does the APU still run if the APU fuel pump fails?

A

Yes, there is a bypass valve

53
Q

Max altitude for APU start?

A

37,000’

54
Q

What are the main engine starting limits?

A

1 & 2: 90 sec on/10 sec off

3-5: 90 sec on/5 min off

55
Q

What is the EPC for Hot Start?

A

Affected Thrust lever ……………………………………………………………. SHUT OFF
Dry Motor………………………………….. UNTIL ITT IS REDUCED BELOW 120 DEGREES C OR STARTER LIMIT, WHICHEVER COMES FIRST
Affected engine, ENG STOP switch ………………………………………………. STOP

56
Q

When do we need continuous ignition?

A

Moderate or greater thunderstorms, turbulence, or precipitation.
High angles of attack.

57
Q

What hydraulic pumps are running in the air?

A

1A, 2A, 3A

58
Q

What hydraulic pumps are running during takeoff and landing?

A

All 6

59
Q

If the Hydraulic pump 3b is in the off position, does the ADG still power the pump?

A

Yes

60
Q

Altitude for cabin pressure EICAS caution message?

A

8,500’

61
Q

Altitude for cabin pressure EICAS warning message?

A

10,000’

62
Q

PAX oxygen mask deployment?

A

14,000’

63
Q

EMER Depress switch-light, what altitude does it release to?

A

14,500’

64
Q

Rapid decompression EPC?

A

Oxygen masks ……………………………………………………………..DON AND 100%
Crew communications………………………………………………………….ESTABLISH

65
Q

PCU x-fer switch-light “fail”?

A

Both pressurization controllers have failed

66
Q

When do the pressure controllers auto switch?

A

WOW + 3 mins or if the other one failed

67
Q

Max single pack altitude?

A

25,000’ but it is dependent on how many people on board. I could find the other limitation in the CFM

68
Q

FAULT on PACK switch light

A

Over temperature or over pressure condition

69
Q

What is the definition of icing conditions?

A

Ground: OAT 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture of any form is present. OAT is 10 degrees or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways that are contaminated. Visible moisture may be fog (vis 1 mile or less), rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals.

Flight: TAT 10 degrees C or below and visible moisture is present (clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals), except when SAT is -40 degrees C or below

70
Q

When do we need Cowl/Wing anti-ice on the ground and in the air?

A

Cowl
Ground: OAT 10 degrees C or below, visible moisture present, when op on contaminated ramp, taxiways, runways.
Flight: icing conditions exist or are anticipated, ICE illumination, TAT 10 degrees C or below & visible moisture, except when SAT is -40 degrees C or below.

Wing
Ground: OAT 5 degrees C or below and visible moisture is present, wet or contaminated runway, if type II, III, IV deicing fluid is applied, delay ON until just prior to takeoff.
Flight: When icing conditions exist & less than 230 KIAS, when ICE is illuminated, TAT 10 degrees C or below & visible moisture, except when SAT is -40 degrees C or below.

71
Q

What turns on when the probe switches are “On” on the ground?

A

All 3 pitot probes are heated at 50% power while their bases remain unheated.
The angle of attack vanes, and system 3 static ports are heated at full heat. The TAT probe, and pitot bases will always remain unheated on the ground

72
Q

When cleared for a VOR approach what mode do we select?

A

NAV

73
Q

When cleared for a ILS approach what mode do we select?

A

APPR

74
Q

When being vectored what mode do we select?

A

HDG

75
Q

When using 1⁄2 bank, what does it limit roll to?

A

15 degrees

76
Q

When does 1⁄2 bank automatically come on?

A

31,600 ft

77
Q

When is APR activated on takeoff?

A

Armed at 8% N1 scheduled takeoff power.

Activated at 15% N1 difference.

78
Q

When is APR activated on go around?

A

Go-Around APR armed when Gear Down or Flaps greater than 20, thrust levers in TOGA.
Go-Around APR activated when 15% N1 difference.

79
Q

When we push the TOGA buttons on the ground what happens?

A

10 degree pitch up, 5 degree bank, updates FMS with current position

80
Q

What if we don’t update the FMS when there is a runway switch?

A

You will be flying an improper procedure

81
Q

What are the flap speeds?

A

1: 230 KIAS
8: 230 KIAS
20: 220 KIAS
30: 185 KIAS
45: 170 KIAS

82
Q

Gear extension/retraction speeds?

A

Extension: 220 KIAS
Extended: 220 KIAS
Retraction: 200 KIAS

83
Q

How do you talk to the FAs?

A

PA/PA
PA/CALL
PA/EMER

84
Q

What are the limitations on the EMER Flap extension?

A

220 KIAS because it brings out slats 25, flaps 20 & the 20 degree flap limitation is 220 KIAS.

85
Q

What does the ADG power transfer override button do? When do we use it?

A

Takes the ADG offline when we get AC power back.

86
Q

What is the Director of Ops responsible for?

A

Planning, coordinating, and monitoring of the company’s aircraft and flight test operations.

FAR 121.533 places the major responsibility for operational control of air carriers and commercial operators with the Director of Operations and the PIC. The Director of Operations may delegate the functions for initiation, continuation, diversion and termination of a flight to other employees. However, the Director of Operations always retains full responsibility for these functions. Operational Control is authorized both individually and collectively by the Director of Operations to the following personnel:

a. Chief Pilot.
b. Regional Chief Pilot(s).
c. System Operations Control (Dispatch) who communicate to the personnel listed above.

87
Q

Required items in a crew member’s flight kit?

A 
Logbook
License
Medical
Passport
Flashlight
Required manuals
EFB
Mesa ID card
Pen
FCC Radio License
Training folder
88
Q

Generally Exemption 17347 allows what?

A

Airlines to depart under more lenient weather conditions

89
Q

Factors for determining if Exemption 17347 is needed?

A

Lowest instrument approach procedure
Destination: vis
Alternate: vis & ceiling

90
Q

What record is required if operating under Exemption 17347?

A

“Flight operated under 17347, crew will monitor ACARS” on release

91
Q

What general non weather items make an alternate legal?

A

Legal alternate in Ops Specs.

At least 1 IAP

92
Q

When do we need a departure alternate?

A

If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport.
If this is the case, a takeoff alternate is required. It must be: aircraft having two engines. Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. The takeoff alternate, if required, must be specified on the dispatch release. The weather at the takeoff alternate airport must conform to the alternate weather minimums defined in op spec C055

93
Q

Mesa is allowed to derive alternate minimums from what criteria?

A

Airports with 1 nav facility & straight in approach: Add 400 ft to MDA(H) or DA(H), as applicable & 1 sm to landing minimums.
Airports with 2 nav facilities & 2 straight in approaches to different suitable runways: Add 200 ft to higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the two approaches used & 1⁄2 sm to the higher authorized landing minimum of the two approaches used.

94
Q

Exemption 17347

A

A FAR 121 flight may be dispatched to a destination airport and/or alternate airport when the TAF for either one or both of those airports indicate, by the use of conditional phrases in the Remarks Section of such reports, that the weather could be below authorized weather minimums at the ETA. The main body of such forecasts must, however, indicate that the weather will be at or above authorized weather minimums for ETA

95
Q

Under 17437 when is a second alternate required to be listed on the release?

A

When the weather at the destination and first alternate airports is reporting conditional phrases in the remarks section of the TAFs

96
Q

Under 17437, what weather conditions are required at the destination airport?

A

The TAF weather conditions shall not be less than 1/2 of the lowest weather minimum visibility value established for the instrument approach procedure expected to be used.

(Just 1/2 of VISIBILITY required)

97
Q

Under 17437, what weather conditions are required at the first alternate?

A

The TAF weather conditions shall not be less than 1/2 of the weather minimum ceiling and visibility values specified in the Mesa Airlines, Inc. Operations Specifications for that airport.

(1/2 of VISIBILITY & CEILING required)

98
Q

Under 17347, what weather conditions are required for the second alternate?

A

The METAR or TAF, or any combination thereof for that airport, must indicate in the main body and remarks section that the weather conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minimum ceiling & visibility values specified in the Operations Specifications for that airport.

(At or above the Ops Specs alternate minimums)

99
Q

If the Captain hasn’t flown to a special use airport in 24 months and you’ve just gotten off IOE, what do we do?

A

PIC can look up the pictorial charts of that airport in Flight Data Pro.

100
Q

Difference between MEL & CDL?

A

While the MEL describes the limitations of aircraft operation in case of a system being inoperative/having malfunctioned (e.g. transponder failure), the CDL deals with situations where external parts of an aircraft are missing/fallen off (e.g. fairings, aerodynamic seals or panels).

101
Q

What does MEL stand for?

A

Minimum Equipment List

102
Q

What does CDL stand for?

A

Configuration Deviation List.

It is an appendix to the MEL.

103
Q

What does NEF stand for?

A

Non Essential Equipment & Furnishings

104
Q

MEL/CDL Extensions

A

Category A: no extensions allowed.
Category B: 3 days.
Category C: 10 days.
Category D: no extensions allowed.

105
Q

MEL/CDL/NEF deferral lengths

A

Category A: Items in this category shall be repaired within the interval specified in the Remarks column of the MEL
Category B: Items in this category shall be repaired within 3 consecutive calendar days excluding the day it was written up.
Category C: Items in this category shall be repaired within 10 consecutive calendar days excluding the day it was written up
Category D: Items in this category shall be repaired within 120 consecutive calendar days excluding the day it was written up
Category M: Non-essential furnishings (NEFs) have specific time frames which will be listed on the dispatch release

106
Q

How does Mesa Airlines define marginal conditions?

A

500 ft ceiling & 1 mile visibility above the lowest suitable landing minimums for the airport.

107
Q

2 navaids: must pick the more restricted one

1 navaid: just do the math

A

CRJ900 Mesa CL-65 Study Cards (9 decks)

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