Systems Review Flashcards
15 miles out, 3000’ AFE. As you configure for landing when would you expect hydraulic ACMPs 1 and 2 to turn on?
When flaps are selected to any position greater than 0.
The crew elects to single engine taxi on engine 2. With flaps extended, parking brake released, and no other action taken…what hydraulic pump(s) are operating?
3A and EDP #2
The backup hydraulic pumps for systems 1 and 2 are the:
ACMPs 1 and 2
What is the primary purpose of the PTU?
PTU assists gear extension/retraction should the right engine or right EDP fail.
H-PBIT runs automatically when all 3 hyd systems are pressurized and…?
Hyd reservoir temp at or above 10C or timer is at 0 hours regardless of temperature.
On post flight you notice fluid leaking from nose wheel gear assembly. Which system would you expect to be the source of the leak?
System 2
If hydraulic pump 3A fails during taxi to runway, will hydraulic pump 3B automatically turn on?
No - you’re on the ground.
In system 3, ______ is the primary hydraulic pump.
3A is primary for System 3.
To check hyd reservoir temp, pressure, and qty, go to the ______ ?
Hydraulic Synoptic page.
In the event of a total loss of hyd systems 1 and 2, the only way to stop the airplane is reverse thrust. (T/F)
False - have accumulator. 6 pumps!
The PBD provides O2 by:
pulling mask apart, which activates O2 cylinders, providing 15 minutes of O2.
When cleaning oxygen mask, it is acceptable to use alcohol wipes on the lens and rubber parts of the mask? (T/F)
False.
Halon fire extinguishers can be used for…
A, B, and C type fires.
In the case of an emergency evac, the PIC must make every effort to preserve aircraft documents and maintenance records. (T/F)
True.
In case of partial slide deployment:
stop immediately and notify maintenance!
Should the cockpit door become inaccessible, how can the flight crew evacuate the aircraft?
Out the Direct View window using escape rope.
During an Emergency Descent, the crew oxygen mask provides?
All above… sufficient oxygen for all crew members, 98 min at normal at 10,000’ and 22 minutes at 100%.
Water extinguishers can be used for?
Class A fires.
According to SOPM, how can you identify the flashlight is properly charged?
Flashing red LED.
If the humidty indicator on the PBE is showing bluw is this OK?
Yes Blue is normal. (pink = no).
During Origination flow with the APU running, the pilot presses and holds the Fire Extinguisher TEST button for more than 10 seconds - will the APU turn off?
Yes. You’re basically faking out the APU and telling it that it has a fire.
At FL350 you experience an IDG failure, after completing the appropriate QRH, you elect to start the APU. What altitude must you descend to in order to start the APU?
30,000’
Will the APU automatically shutdown for an inflight fire?
No. Only for UFO in flight - underspeed, FADEC fault, overspeed. For ground: SHELF - sensor fail, high oil temp, low oil pressure, or fire.
What is the maximum altitude the APU can be operated?
33,000’
While starting the APU, the switch is rotated to “ON”. Prior to rotating the APU switch to “START” what should be verified?
All…EICAS energized for 30 seconds, no APU fail messages on EICAS, and APU indication changes from OFF to APUY control parameters.
When powering down the APU using the leaving airplane checklist, what indication are you looking for prior to switching BATT 1 and BATT 2 to OFF?
Wait until APU indicates OFF.
How long must you wait between the 1st and 2nd APU start attempts?
60 seconds.
The APU provides…
Electrical power and bleed air.
If BATT 1 is deferred, you can start the APU provided that a DC GPU is available? (T/F)
False. Need BATT 1 for APU FADEC.
Once the engine is started, you inadvertently turn the APU off before realizing that APU must be on for takeoff performance. Select the most appropriate option:
Within the 60 second cool down period you can reselect ON and the APU will not shutdown. You gotta catch that window!
ATC clears you to descend via the RIIVR TWO arrival into LAX. In order for VNAV to utilize PTH mode, you must have at least…….
All…must have a TOD in vertical profile, VNAV must be active, the lowest cleared altitude must be set in the altitude pre-select.
In order to fly CAT II, you must have two separate air data systems. T/F
True.
If the FO’s ADS fails, what is the reversionary logic?
Auto reversion to system 3.
The pilot should reference the FD during a stall and verify that it is below the horizon. T/F
False.
What does the FPA show?
Actual path of airplane relative to the horizon.
The PF should reference the FD for windshear escape guidance? T/F
True.
At FL330 one engine flames out and FADEC is unable to relight the engine. What would be the most appropriate speed for drift-down?
Green dot.
The bank limiting is unavailable in which FMA lateral mode?
LNAV regardless of altitude.
If the F-BUG disappears before flat/slap retraction, what information can the pilot use to retract the remaining slat/flaps?
Green dot + 10 kts.
What does green dot show?
All… 1.3g over shaker at 40deg of bank, ideal flap extension speed, drift down speed.
Advisory messages are identified by what color?
Cyan.
The GND PROX TERR INHIB button will inhibit the predictive EGPWS functions. This button should be pressed to manually inhibit the EGPWS when landing at an airport that is not in the database? T/F
True.
What is the meaning of an EICAS message with a chevron next to it?
Addressing this item first will likely clear other messages — it’s a root message.
What items does the TO CONFIG button check to ensure the aircraft is properly configured for takeoff?
Flaps mismatches MCDU, trim setting not in green, parking brake not released, spoilers deployed.
The aircraft is equipped with windshear detection and guidance. T/F
True.
EGPWS provides visual and aural warnings to help pilots avoid….?
CFIT.
The warning system messages are displayed on….?
EICAS.
Which of the following conditions prior to takeoff will generate a “NO TAKEOFF, ____” voice aural?
Flap position not in agreement with MCDU selection, pitch trim out of green.
(other two logic qualifies: parking brake, spoilers).
If too many EICAS messages are displayed, the pilot can scroll the warning messages out of the way to see the rest? T/F
False - warnings stay at top.
Navigation should not be predicated with the use of the TAWS/EGPWS? T/F
True - don’t use it for nav.
During walk around, the APU unexpectedly shuts down and you notice tail cone smoke. You run into the cockpit - what will you see?
APU fire extinguisher pushbutton illuminated.
Sitting in an unpowered airplane, a ramp agent runs up and says the right engine is on fire. Without applying power to the airplane, can you discharge the bottles and fight the fire?
Yes - fire extinguishing and fuel panel will work with airplane powered down.
While in flight you suspect a non-annunciated AFT cargo fire. While running the appropriate checklist you are directed to push the AFT CARGO EXT button on the fire panel. What happens when you first push this button?
Bottle doesn’t blow but you’ll arm the high rate squib.
no circulation stuff for AFT cargo
When the fire extinguisher handle is pulled, what valves close?
Bleed, Fuel, Hydraulic SOVs all close.
Prior to selecting TEST on fire extinguisher panel, SOPM says pilot must:
Verify EICAS on for 30 seconds and no fire protection fail messages.
What areas have fire protection?
Engines, APU, Cargo, Lav.
What happens automatically if a fire is detected in the FWD cargo?
Air circulation fans in forward compartment turn off, ventilation outflow valve closes, high rate bottle is armed, and associated cargo fire button is illuminated.
If FADEC detects an APU fire in flight, how long before it automatically shuts down the APU? (tricky)
APU won’t automatically be shutdown during FLIGHT if a fire is detected.
While at gate, you get an EICAS warning “FWD CARGO FIRE” what should you do first?
Run the QRC for FWD CARGO FIRE.
When must a fire detection system test be performed?
Crew’s first flight of day in a particular airplane.
After completing memory and QRC for hot start, what section of the QRH will you reference for an engine abnormal start?
Non-annunciated.
Departing 1R at SFO, you experience engine failure at V1. You accomplish actions and callouts per SOPM and upon reaching VFS you call “Continuous, Bank Off”. How do you select CON?
TRS key on MCDU then CON.
When the PF advances the thrust levers to TO/GA and calls “Check Thrust:” the PM should verify?
N1 has reached target, ATTCS is green, and engine parameters are normal.
On final approach, you notice GA mode is displayed between N1 gauges. What immediate pilot action is required? (tricky)
None - this is normal after gear and flaps are extended.
The use of Flex Thrust for takeoff is prohibited when…?
Windshear is forecasted or reported.
In the SOPM, what guidance is given regarding thermal stabilization before shutting down either engine?
2 minutes at or near idle.
With the thrust levers set to TO/GA, when will ATTCS command RSV thrust?
> 15% N1 split, windshear detection, engine failure during takeoff or go-around.
If you choose NOT to dry motor an engine after the first failed start attempt, how long must you wait before the second engine start is attempted?
10 seconds off first.
