Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

175 > 175 2020 CQ > Flashcards

175 2020 CQ Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the Emergency/Parking brake need to be on prior to starting external inspection?

A

Determine there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to activate the emergency/parking brake to check the Brake Wear indicators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient hydraulic pressure to check the Brake wear indicators?

A

No - you can look at the STATUS page and look at EMER ACCU pressures for SYS 1 and SYS 2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to the external walkaround?

A

Pressurize Hydraulics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

On the external inspection, you notice that the air data smart probes are covered in frost. What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?

A

ADSP Heater Switch: ON.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Provide at least one other condition that would require heat being applied to the ADSPs during the preflight?

A

Spurious AFCS and/or ADS EICAS messages on power up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Use the pictorial walk around - describe preflight action outlined in the SOPM for the Nose Landing Gear.

A

Wheel Chocks In, Condition of Wheels/Tires, Free of Snow/Ice, Up Lock Hook Unlocked, Condition of Downlock Springs, Condition of Strut/Wheel Well/Doors, Ground Locking Pin Removed, Condition of Landing and Taxi Light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What unique piece of equipment resides in the right forward fuselage? Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT.

A

Ram Air Turbine. Stowed and RAT Safety Lock Pin removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?

A

Basic condition, check for FOD and leaks inside air inlet. Ensure there is no damage to the T12 sensor and the FADEC cooling inlet is clear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?

A

Check for damaged blades and ensure fan is free to rotate. Check for damage on spinner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the fuselage?

A

Yes - each engine has a left and right side nacelle strake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing?

A

3 per wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the main landing gear inspection according to the SOPM.

A

Clear of ice/debris/obstructions. Condition of Wheels/Tires. Up Lock Hook unlocked. Condition of Downlock Springs. Condition of strut/wheel wells - no leaks. Ground Locking Pin removed. Brake wear indicators checked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many static dischargers are on the aileron? Winglet? What document would you refer to regarding missing static dischargers?

A

3 aileron. 6 winglet. AFM/CDL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You’re sitting at the gate when a BATT 1 OVERTEMP warning message appears. What do you do? How do you verify that this action was effective?

A

BATT 1»OFF. MEAN! Look at electrical synoptic to see if BATT 1 temperature is decreasing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

You’re starting an engine and notice that the ITT is rapidly rising toward the ITT redline. What temperature is redline and what do you do?

A

815C. AFFECTED ENGINE»START/STOP SELECTOR: STOP. MEAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

On taxi to the runway, the airplane begins veering to the left aggressively. What might you do?

A

STEER DISC SWITCH»PRESS. Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder. MEAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit starts filling with smoke. What do you do? Where is this procedure located in the QRH/what section?

A

OXYGEN MASKS»DON, EMER
CREW COMMUNICATION»ESTABLISH
PRESSURIZATION DUMP»PUSH IN
Non-annunciated section. MEAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

You’re flying in cruise at FL350 when you hear the triple chime and see CABIN ALTITUDE HI on the EICAS?

A

OXYGEN MASKS»DON, 100%
CREW COMMUNICATION»ESTABLISH
Plan for emergency descent… MEAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconnects and the airplane begins to pitch up, in spite of nose down control pressure. What do you do?

A

A / P DISC BUTTON»PRESS AND HOLD
PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT BUTTONS»PUSH IN
MEAN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where is the battery temperature read? Give another example of why it is always important to view the appropriate synoptic page when troubleshooting a problem.

A

Electrical synoptic page. Flight control problem - look at flight control synoptic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What CAUTION message will populate when the associated battery is selected off?

A

BATT 1 OFF or BATT 2 OFF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A

NNoTM*/HHN

    1. No oil press within 10 sec after N2 increase.
    1. No N1 increase at starter cutout (~50% N2) when starting with a tailwind.
      1. No ITT within 30 sec of start (no light off).
      2. ITT exceeds 815C (hot start)
    1. Oil Pressure stabilizes not in the green range.
      1. N1 or N2 fail to accelerate to stable (hung start).
    1. Intermittent elec or pneu or starter Malfunction before starter cutout.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Will the CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What altitude will you descend to? How would you find MEA?

A

Yes. 10,000’ or lowest MEA. Jepp or ask ATC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What action does the SOPM require when the cabin altitude reaches 14,500’ on an emergency descent?

A

MASKS DEPLOY selector knob to OVRD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

A

Select TERR on an MFD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is the pitch trim runaway addressed by the QRC? In what section of the QRH is it located?

A

Yes. Non-annunciated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a pitch trim runaway?

A

Shift the lift vector - roll the airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When powering up, what min voltage is required? When would you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure?

A

22.5V…if less, go to SOPM. (If below 21V, then maintenance.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must you wait before starting the APU?

A

30 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Can takeoff/landing occur with the FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message.

A

Yes, as long as actual imbalance less than 794 lb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-37C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the starter cranker limit for start attempts 1 and 2 (ground)?

A

90 seconds on (10 seconds off).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the minimum time between start attempts 1 and 2 (ground or flight)?

A

10 seconds off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

A

Longer - 120 seconds on. More airflow, more time allowed to get your engine going!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

A

Starter cutout at ~50% N2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A taxiway is NOTAM’d closed to aircraft with wingspan over 100’. What is the wingspan of the 175?

A

93’11”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff?

A

15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 30 kts?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the minimum runway width allowable?

A

100’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s turbulent air penetration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?

A

250 below 10 or 270/.76. Normally it is more comfortable to slow when encountering turbulence. In some cases it may be necessary to accelerate to turbulent air penetration. This speed provides a margin between stall and structural damage.
Flight through severe turbulence must be avoided. When not possible, reduce altitude to
increase buffet margin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

An IDG fails inflight and the QRH instructs you to start the APU - what is the max start altitude?

A

30,000 ft

42
Q

If flying a CAT II approach, what flap setting is required?

A

Flaps 5

43
Q

What is the max wiper speed?

A

250 kts

44
Q

True/False: we can use RNAV (GPS) LP minima?

A

False

45
Q

True/False: do not attempt a go-around after deployment of the thrust reversers.

A

True - don’t go around…

46
Q

Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded during all phases of the approach and landing when the auto-flight system is engaged? Why?

A

Yes. Possible autoflight failure modes…

47
Q

Is it permissible to turn the landing lights off while on approach in IMC if they pose a distraction?

A

NOTE: Landing/Strobe/Wing Inspection lights should be turned off during descent when they create a distraction to the crew. Taxi lights may be turned on when cleared to land. ***But then in 4-12 section of latest SOPM they removed this: Description of change: Removed “Use of the external lights, while in IMC, may cause a distraction.”

48
Q

Is it recommended that the PM call out any observed deviations while on approach?

A

“MUST call out any observed discrepancies or deviations.”

49
Q

What is the PF’s verbal response after immediately fixing a deviation on approach to landing?

A

“CORRECTING”

50
Q

What is the PM’s deviation callout with a descent rate greater than 1000 fpm on approach to landing?

A

“SINK RATE”

51
Q

What magnitude of deviation from glide path requires a call out by the PM? What is the SOPM callout?

A

Greater than 1 dot. “GLIDE PATH”

52
Q

What speed deviation callouts are required on approach to landing? What is the callout?

A

“SPEED” +10/-5 or below VREF.

53
Q

What bank angle would be considered a callout? What is the PM callout?

A

Greater than 25 deg. “BANK ANGLE”

54
Q

What is the responsibility of the PM if the EGPWS fails to make callouts automatically?

A

Perform the expected callouts.

55
Q

It is critical to a safe operation that pilots meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitude?

A

1000’ HAT

56
Q

What is the max speed allowed above target on approach at 1000 ft? What would the PM callout if the PF exceeds this speed?

A

VAP + 15 kts. UNSTABLE GO-AROUND - SPEED. or UNSTABLE MISSED APPROACH - SPEED.

57
Q

What is the latest position on the approach to PLAN for landing gear down? Is there a PLANed speed as well?

A

Plan 1500’ HAT gear down and <=180 kts.

58
Q

What speed is mandatory by 500’ on approach to landing? What thrust setting?

A

Within the speed bug. Thrust setting above idle.

59
Q

If any of the planned parameters are not met on approach to landing at or below 500’ AGL, what is the PM required to do?

A

“UNSTABLE GO-AROUND” or “UNSTABLE MISSED APPROACH” followed by the out-of-tolerance parameter (e.g., “AIRSPEED” or “SINKRATE”)

60
Q

What does minimum fuel for takeoff include?

A

BARH: Burn, Alternate/GA (most dist), Reserve, Holding.

RLS FUEL = BARH+C and taxi out.

61
Q

Release fuel includes MINTO plus what?

A

BARH+Ctaxi. Contingency and Taxi Out.

62
Q

What is the specific go-around fuel value for the ERJ?

A

700 lb. When an alternate is planned, the standard go-around fuel is added to the fuel required to fly to the most distant alternate and listed in the GA/ALT section. GA fuel is ALWAYS included in MINTO and cannot be reduced.

63
Q

When an alternate is planned, the standard go-around fuel is added to what fuel category on the release?

A

GA/ALT. When an alternate is planned, the standard go-around fuel is added to the fuel required to fly to the most distant alternate and listed in the GA/ALT section.

64
Q

Can GA fuel be reduced to meet a weight restriction?

A

GA fuel is ALWAYS included in MINTO and cannot be reduced.

65
Q

Planned reserve fuel is calculated at what speed and altitude?

A

Never less than 2450 lb ERJ. 45 minutes at 15,000’ and 250 KIAS.
Changed late 2020 to TOD fuel flow.

66
Q

What duration is planned reserve fuel designed to achieve?

A

45 minutes.

67
Q

Planned hold fuel is calculated at what weight and altitude?

A

Planned Landing Weight and 10,000’ above destination airport.

68
Q

If the AVG TMP DEV for CRZ is blank, what does this indicate?

A

Standard Lapse Rate - no deviation from ISA.

69
Q

Does the dispatch release list both scheduled and estimated times of departure and arrival?

A

Yes. STD/STA, ETD/ETA.

70
Q

The MWL Maximum Wind Level listed on the release is also the height of what?

A

Tropopause.

71
Q

Is there any way you can determine how much fuel you are predicted to burn per hour for this flight?

A

BURN / ETE… F/FLOW column…

72
Q

Have the crew member locate each item that is required to be listed on the flight release.

A 
DIMMWIT: 121.687
Dep/Dest/Alternate/OtherStop.
ID for Airplane.
Min Fuel.
MEL and/or CDL items.
WX.
IFR (or VFR) type of op.
Trip or Flight Number.
73
Q

You notice that one of the FAs names listed on the release does not match your current crew. Give at least 2 ways you can amend the release.

A

Digital - ask for amendment - flight view or ACARS. Print out and amend ie verbally with dispatch. Requires concurrence between PIC and dispatcher.

74
Q

What is the latest time you can push back from the gate without amending this release?

A

2 hours.

75
Q

If you were uncertain if a situation would require an amendment, how could you verify using your EFB?

A

FOM Section 5, L.

76
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required?

A

When the WX mins at the airport of takeoff are below the landing mins for that airport as shown in the Ops Specs, the release lists a takeoff alternate. 2 engine: this alternate is within 1 hour from the departure at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

77
Q

Explain when a destination alternate is required. Why is there an alternate listed for this flight.

A

Always required. Weather less than 1/2/3…

78
Q

If you can’t recall all the conditions that require a destination alternate, where can you find these requirements using your EFB?

A

FOM Section 5, E.

79
Q

If you have both a destination and second alternate listed on the release, which one is used by the dispatcher to determine your FAR reserve fuel?

A

Most distant.

80
Q

The WX is below 1000’ and 3sm - what 2 conditions permit a turn at less than 1000’ above field elevation?

A
  1. Special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise.

2. Assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before reaching 1000’ HAT.

81
Q

Flap retraction altitude is 1000’ AFE unless what?

A

Unless a Special Procedure prescribes otherwise.

82
Q

With regard to standard engine failire takeoff path, if an engine occurs below 1000’ AFE on takeoff, what altitude would you climb to before turning to a heading or navaid as listed on the release?

A

1000’ AFE.

83
Q

Single Engine Takeoff - if a turn is required what bank angle would be used?

A

“Maximum Bank Angle Appropriate for Aircraft Speed” Performance Handbook

84
Q

What is the one engine inoperative bank angle limit at V2?

A

15 deg. add 5 kts get 5 deg up to 25 deg…

85
Q

With regard to standard engine failure takeoff path, if a navaid is listed, up reaching the navaid, what is the crew expected to do?

A

“If NAVAID is listed, hold on the inbound radial using a direct entry and standard holding procedures” …Radar vectors may be accepted when available after reaching 1000’….

86
Q

With regard to standard engine failure takeoff path, if a heading is listed, how long/far do you remain on that heading?

A

“If heading is listed, fly heading until a minimum safe altitude is attained.” …Radar vectors may be accepted when available after reaching 1000’….

87
Q

With a simple-special procedure, are engine failure climb speeds and initial headings or courses always listed in the procedure?

A

Only listed if different than the standard engine failure profile.

88
Q

Where would a crew find a systematic flow that represents current TALPA/RCAM and FOM policies?

A

EFB Runway Condition Decision Matrix.

89
Q

Where is the RCAM/Braking Action Table located?

A

EFB Quick Reference Library.

90
Q

Give at least 2 atmospheric conditions that require a cold WX inspection.

A
  1. OAT less than 5C.
  2. Cold soak ice in fuel tank area.
  3. Thru flight residual icing.
  4. Overnight exposure to icing conditions.
  5. Atmospheric conditions conducive to icing are occurring.
  6. Wing fuel temp is 0C or less.
91
Q

What must be verified on the exterior of the aircraft with respect to the engine, prior to engine start during cold WX ops?

A

Clear of ice or snow. Fan should rotate freely…

92
Q

After establishing AC power, the Capt notices that the E-PBIT never ran - what would prohibit it?

A

3 minutes 3 ways:

  1. Any hydraulic pump was running.
  2. AC power supply interrupted.
  3. Flight Control Mode Panel switches cycled.
93
Q

What would be an appropriate action if the E-PBIT failed to run?

A

Nothing if 50 hour counter is still good. Else, power down “Leaving Airplane Checklist” wait one minute then power up “Safety and Power Up Checklist”. Wait three minutes for E-PBIT to run.

94
Q

When is a hydraulic warm-up test required?

A

Warm up must be accomplished before engine start when reservoir temps below -18C.

95
Q

Assuming single engine taxi with the APU off, will heat be applied to the windshield?

A

No. Need 2 AC electrical sources.

96
Q

What is the maximum taxi speed straight ahead on contaminated taxiway? Where is ground speed?

A

10 kts. PFD or MFD.

97
Q

If both ice detector probes fail, do we have ice protection?

A

Yes…just turn it on…

98
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

GDPM: for purposes of condition reporting and airplane performance, a runway is considered contaminated when more than 25% of the runway surface area, within the length and the width being used, is covered by frost, ice, any depth of snow or slush, or more than an 1/8 inch of water.

99
Q

When a runway RCC value of 4/4/3 is listed on the ATIS, should we utilize max performance landing technique? If so, what is it?

A

Yes. Consider flaps full… see SOPM… use MED, thrust reverse…etc…

100
Q

What is the difference between a pretakeoff check and a pretakeoff contamination check?

A 
PC = within HOT, just prior to takeoff.
PCC = exceeded HOT, 5 minutes prior to takeoff.

175 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions