Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

175 > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

Recite CABIN ALTITUDE HI memory item.

A

Crew Oxygen Masks……DON, 100%

Crew Communucation……ESTABLISH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Will the CABIN ALTITUDE HI likely result in a descent? What altitude will you descend to? How would you find the MEA - Demonstrate.

A

Yes.
10,000’ MSL or MEA.
Ask ATC or EFB enroute low chart selected and look at boxed grid for altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What action does the SOPM require when passing through 14,500’ on an emergency descent?

A

Turn the Passenger Oxygen from AUTO to OVRD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How must the MFD be configured for an emergency descent?

A

TERRAIN must be selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: The primary purpose of continuous communication during an emergency descent is to identify possible pilot incapacitation.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the recommended vertical mode for an emergency descent?

A

FLCH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F: An emergency descent with the autopilot off requires that the autothrottle and flight director be turned of as well - why?

A

After selecting 10,000 ft ASL or MEA, whichever is higher, disconnect the autothrottle and set thrust settings to idle. Then, smoothly open speed brake and turn FD OFF.
Smoothly lower the nose to an initial descent attitude (approximately 10 degrees nose down). Approximately 10 kt before achieving target speed (VMO / MMO), slowly adjust pitch attitude to maintain speed. When structural integrity is in doubt, especially after an explosive depressurization, use flight controls with care, and maintain current cruise speed.
To better manage speed and thrust control, use the FLIGHT PATH VECTOR SPEED ERROR TAPE and FPA ACCELERATION POINTER chevron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Recite ENGINE ABNORMAL START memory item.

A

Affected Engine:

Start/Stop Selector……STOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When will FADEC automatically abort the start?

A

HHN - Hot, Hung, No Light Off.
FADEC provides automatic over-temperature protection and automatically aborts the start in the event of a hot start, hot restart, or hung start.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List 4 of the 7 conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A

NNOTM/HHN:

  • No positive oil pressure indication within 10 seconds after N2 speed starts to increase.
  • No ITT indication within 30 seconds of engine start.
  • Oil pressure stabilizes below the engine limits.
  • Tailwind start - when a positive increase of N1 is not indicated before starter cutout (~50% N2). In this case, the airplane is repositioned prior to engine start to minimize tailwind effects.
  • Malfunction - an intermittent electrical pneumatic or starter malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.
  • Hot - ITT exceeds start limit (815C).
  • Hung - N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed (hung start).
  • (No light off)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F: When an automatic abort occurs or engine start is manually aborted due to abnormal engine indications, its cause must be investigated and corrected before further attempts to start the engine(s).

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T/F: In case of an automatic abort due to an engine hot start and with no ENGINE EXCEEDANCE EICAS message, two additional starts are allowed.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Recite SMOKE EVACUATION memory item. Where is this procedure located in the QRH - what section?

A

Oxygen Masks……DON, EMERGENCY
Crew Communication……ESTABLISH
Pressurization Dump Button……PUSH IN

Located in Emergency Abnormal procedures under SMOKE tab S1-2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F: Upon completion of the SMOKE EVACUATION memory item smoke will initially decrease due to pressurization dumping, even if the correct source has not yet been removed.

A

True. Reference SMOKE 1-4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Recite SMOKE/FIRE/FUMES memory item. When would this be applied versus the SMOKE EVACUATION memory item?

A

Crew Oxygen Masks……DON, 100%
Crew Communication……ESTABLISH

CONDITION: Smoke fire or fumes have been spotted by the crew without an EICAS warning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Recite BATT 1 (2) OVERTEMP memory item. How could you immediately verify that this action was effective?

A

Associated Battery……OFF

Electric synoptic page - verify battery temp decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is the battery temperature read? Give another example of why it is always important to view the appropriate synoptic page(s) when troubleshooting a problem.

A

Electrical synoptic page next to the battery icon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What EICAS Caution message will populate when the Associated Battery is selected off?

A

BATT 1 or BATT 2 OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In the QRH, what is the difference between a BATT 1-2 OFF procedure and a BATT 1 OFF or BATT 2 OFF procedure? What is the potential pit fall if the wrong procedure is completed?

A

BATT 1-2 OFF is a EICAS Warning Message.
LAND AT NEAREST SUITABLE AIRPORT.
Note: APU start is not available.

BATT 1 OFF and BATT 2 OFF are EICAS Caution Messages.

BATT 1 OFF
Battery 1……VERIFY ON
Note: if battery 1 selector is off, APU start is not available.

BATT 2 OFF
Battery 2……VERIFY AUTO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Recite JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN - PITCH memory item. Can you reconnect the control column in flight?

A

Elevator Disconnect Handle……PULL

No - you can’t reconnect it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: Expect lower pitch rates and authority after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN - PITCH memory item.

A

True.
NOTE: Expect lower pitch rates and authority.
Relevant Inoperative Items:
AOA Limit and Autopilot.
Avoid sidesliping the airplane.
NOTE: the stick shaker remains operative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F: AOA limiting will continue to work after completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN - PITCH memory item.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: The A/P will continue to work after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN - PITCH memory item.

A

False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Flaps will be 5 for landing after the completion of the JAMMED CONTROL COLUMN - PITCH memory item, however if a go-around is required the Slat/Flap will be selected 4, how would you effectively manage this threat?

A

Think before you speak and identify it as a threat during your WANT briefing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Recite JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL - ROLL memory item. What controls remain usable on the “good” side?

A 
Aileron Disconnect Handle......PULL
Affected side aileron.
Multi Function Spoiler L3 and R3
Autopilot
Another Multi Function Spoiler pair depending on the affected side.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F: After completion of the JAMMED CONTROL WHEEL - ROLL memory item, crosswind components greater than 10 kts must be avoided.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Recite PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY memory item. Is this emergency addressed by the QRC? In what section of the QRH is it located?

A

A/P Disconnect Button……PRESS AND HOLD.
Pitch Trim Systems 1 and 2 Cutout Button……PUSH IN.
Yes, it’s on the QRC.
See NAP 1-14.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How would you alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies with a PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY?

A

NOTE: Continuous turns helps to alleviate excessive pitch up tendencies.
Prepare to overcome unwanted pitch change:
Pitch Trim System 1 Cutout Button……PUSH OUT
Pitch Trim Switch……ACTUATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Recite ROLL (YAW) TRIM RUNAWAY memory item.

A

A/P Disc Button……PRESS AND HOLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Recite STEERING RUNAWAY memory item.

A

Steer Disc Switch……PRESS

Use differential braking and rudder to steer airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Max Altitude Flaps/Slats Extended?

A

20,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mandatory flap setting for CAT II approach?

A

Flaps 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When landing flaps full, a go-around would be conducted with flaps…?

A

Flaps 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Minimum battery voltage?

A

22.5V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Starter Cranking Limits for Engine Start on Ground?

A

Start #1 and 2 = 90 seconds ON, 10 seconds OFF.
Starts #3-#5 = 30 seconds ON, 5 minutes OFF.
NOTE:
After 5 sequential motoring cycles, the process may be repeated following a 15 minute cool down period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T/F: Takeoff with Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS) OFF is not authorized.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

T/F: Fuel cross-feed must be selected OFF during takeoff and landing.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T/F: It is permissible to takeoff and land with a FUEL IMBALANCE message as long as the actual imbalance does not exceed 794 lb.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T/F: Wait 30 seconds after the EICAS is energized to start the APU?

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

T/F: Simultaneous use of the APU bleed and the HP cart is prohibited.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the APU starter duty cycle?

A

Start attempts #1 and #2 = 60 seconds OFF.

Third attempt 5 minutes OFF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maximum Altitude for APU start?

A

30,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Maximum APU operation altitude?

A

33,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Maximum APU bleed air use?

A

15,000’

45
Q

Maximum altitude APU electrical generator use?

A

33,000’

46
Q

Maximum APU engine start altitude?

A

21,000’

47
Q

At what altitude does the Maximum Differential Pressure Schedule change?

A

37,000’

48
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic reservoir temperature for engine start?

A

-18C

49
Q

T/F: Brake temperature indication must be in the green range for takeoff.

A

True.

50
Q

T/F: Do not attempt a go-around maneuver after deployment of the thrust reversers.

A

True.

51
Q

T/F: After selecting reverse thrust, do not move the thrust levers into the forward thrust range until the REV icon on the EICAS is shown in amber or green.

A

True.

52
Q

T/F: When either one or both ice detectors are failed, the crew must set the mode selector to ON when icing conditions exist or are anticipated below 10C TAT with visible moisture.

A

True.

53
Q

Minimum altitude for A/P engagement?

A

400’

54
Q

Minimum altitude for A/P use on a “non-precision approach”.

A

DA or MDA.

55
Q

T/F: TAS, TAT, and SAT information are valid at any airspeed.

A

False. Populate at 50kts, and VALID at 60kts.

56
Q

T/F: While transmitting in VHF1, the standby magnetic compass indication is valid.

A

False - it is NOT valid.

57
Q

T/F: Navigation can be predicated on the use of the TAWS.

A

No…don’t be runnin’ Beggars Canyon with that yo!

58
Q

If both ice detector probes fail, do we have ice protection? If so, how?

A 
Yes.
When flying in icing conditions:
Ice Protection Mode Selector......ON
Two Minutes after exiting icing conditions...
Ice Protection Mode Selector......AUTO
59
Q

Identify TAT probes during walk around.

A

See walk around slides.

60
Q

Which temperature (TAT or SAT) would you reference during flight to determine if you are in icing conditions?

A

TAT

61
Q

If you noticed fluid leaking around the nose gear which hydraulic system is the likely source?

A

Hydraulic System 2

62
Q

Pilot identifies the oxygen discharge indicator and what is should indicated prior to flight.

A

GREEN = normal operating range. The green oxygen cylinder pressure relief disc blows out in the event of an overpressure.

63
Q

How do you know you have sufficient oxygen for an observer? What about two crew members?

A 
Green = 3
Cyan = 2
Amber = MX
64
Q

Are we permitted to load dry ice and animals in both cargo compartments?

A

No - forward only and you can’t have dry ice (2.5kg/person) AND animals…

DGHM

65
Q

Which engine would you start first with an inoperative APU and why?

A

2 engine. HP air is connected on the left side of the airplane.

66
Q

What must you verify with respect to the N1 fan prior to engine start?

A

During walk around, make sure the FAN can rotate.

67
Q

If you see a puddle of oil in the exhaust nozzle, is this permitted?

A

When the puddle size exceeds 4 inches, contact Maintenance.

68
Q

You notice frost on the fuselage and underside of the wing. What would you do?

A

The leading edge and upper wing and tail surfaces must be free of frost, ice, and snow. A thin layer of hoarfrost is permitted on the fuselage provided the layer is thin enough to distinguish surface features underneath, such as painting and markings.

Note: a 3mm (1/8in) frost layer is permitted on the underwing surfaces.

69
Q

Have student identify brake wear indicator pins.

A

See walk around slides.

70
Q

When must maintenance be called regarding the brake pins.

A

If the brake wear indicator pin is flush with the housing.

71
Q

What MCDU selection should be made with regard to anti-ice if the OAT is 3C and 010 overcast.

A

ALL — you’re gonna need wings and cowls.

72
Q

If the MCDU is programmed REF A/I ALL, when will the engine anti-ice valves automatically open? Wing anti-ice valves?

A

ENG = only the EAI valve will be kept open after engine start. The WAI valves remains inhibited closed. The EICAS Status message ENG TDS REF A-I ENG will be displayed to confirm the MCDU selection.

ALL = the EAI valves are commanded open after completion of engine start and the WAI valves are commanded open with wheel speed above 40 kts. The EICAS Status message ENG TDS REF A-I ALL will be displayed to confirm the MCDU selection.

73
Q

If the flight crew selected REF A/I OFF and the aircraft encountered icing conditions immediately after takeoff, when would the anti-ice turn on automatically?

A

OFF = the anti-ice valves will be inhibited closed until the end of the takeoff phase, considered in the logic as 1700’ AGL or 2 min after liftoff. After that, the engine and wing anti-ice valves will open if ice is detected.

74
Q

What conditions would justify dry motoring an engine?

A

Maybe a no light off situation and fuel was introduced - don’t want a big pile of fuel to suddenly ignite…

75
Q

What conditions would preclude a single engine taxi?

A

Contaminated ramp.
Marginal maneuvering room in ramp/gate area.
Taxi time to runway/takeoff is less than 5 minutes.
Airport specific regulations prohibit it.
Risk of injury to personnel or damage equipment.
Weight/uphill slope/2 minute warmup/time to rwy…

76
Q

What is the max taxi speed in a turn on a contaminated surface?

A

5 kts

77
Q

Assuming a single engine taxi with APU off, will you have windshield heat?

A

Upon first application of AC power, each windshield heating controller performs its PBIT routine heating the corresponding window for 120 seconds. Then they power off until you have two AC sources inside…

78
Q

Describe a situation where a hold-over calculation is required.

A

Any time you deice.

HOT - hold over time range is an estimate of the time the decing/anti-icing fluid is effective in preventing the formation of frost, ice, or the accumulation of snow on a treated surface. HOT begins when the final application of the fluid commences and expires when the fluid loses its effectiveness - in other words, when ice or snow begins to form on or in the fluid.

79
Q

What is the difference between a Pretakeoff Check and a Pretakeoff Contamination Check? When are they required?

A

PC = a check of the airplane’s representative surface for frozen contaminants. This check is conducted within the HOT, just prior to takeoff and may be made by observing representative surfaces from whatever vantage point the PIC determines will give an accurate indication of the condition of the airplane.

PCC = a check conducted after the HOT has been exceeded to ensure wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of all frozen contaminants. This check must be completed within 5 minutes prior to takeoff. Done from inside the main cabin. PCC is also required when taking off in SN+.

80
Q

What threats are associated with delaying flap extension until just prior to takeoff?

A

Forgetting the desired takeoff flap setting , or to set them at all.

81
Q

Are we permitted to takeoff in SN+ ?

A

Yes…there is no HOT…must accomplish a PCC and takeoff within 5 minutes.

82
Q

What is the minimum altitude a turn can be made in IMC (less than 1000/3)?

A

1000’ AGL.

83
Q

Is it mandatory that pilots fly a simple-special procedure in IMC? What about VMC?

A

The Simple-Special procedure differs from the Standard Procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1000’. FRA remains at 1000’ AFE unless otherwise specified in the FLAP RETRACT box. Simple-Special procedures are mandatory in IMC. They are also mandatory in VMC until reaching 1000’ AFE. The turn to the NAVAID or heading is to be made at the highest bank angle appropriate for the aircraft speed. In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3000’ AFE at which time you may proceed on course (as applicable).

84
Q

Is it mandatory that pilots fly a Complex-Special procedure in IMC? What about VMC?

A

Complex-Special Procedures are mandatory under IMC and VMC.

85
Q

When would you consider a runway to be wet for performance reasons?

A

A runway is considered wet when more than 25% of the runway surface area, within the length and width being used, is covered by any visible dampness or water 1/8” or less in depth.

86
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

When more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not), within the reported length and the width being used, is covered by more than 1/8” of standing water or equivalent in slush, wet snow, dry snow, or any depth of ice or compacted snow.

87
Q

When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?

A

Takeoff on contaminated runway.
Reported or forecasted windshear.
When a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff.

88
Q

Is a runway with patchy thin ice or snow considered contaminated?

A

No. Need >25%.

89
Q

If the FLEX N1 value on EICAS is less than the calculated release value, what would you do?

A

Lower the flex temperature until N1 = TLR/ACARS -0% or +0.5%.

90
Q

During a single engine missed approach, would you fly the published missed approach procedure or wait until 1000’ AFE to commence a turn?

A

Fly the published missed approach profile.

91
Q

Where would you find LAHSO landing distance information?

A

SOPM. 4-10.12

92
Q

How long is a release valid?

A

A flight originates or is delayed more than 2 hours.

93
Q

Give at least 2 reasons why a pilot must amend or obtain a new release?

A

A flight cannot depart in accordance with the release.
The PIC or dispatcher requests a change (121.687).
Aircraft change.
A flight returns to the airport from which it departed.
Crew member change - amend OK for FO/FA, new release needed if Capt changes.
A deferral affecting performance.

94
Q

When must a takeoff alternate be listed on the release? (Have pilot determine if a takeoff alternate should be listed for this specific flight taking NOTAM’s into consideration.

A

If the WX at the departure is below landing minimums (visibility only) in the Ops Spec for that airport, an alternate 121.619 airport must be specified within 1 hour normal cruise, still air, with one engine inoperative, including CAT II.

95
Q

When is a destination alternate airport required? (Have pilot explain why a destination alternate is listed for this specific flight).

A

121.619/FOM 5.7.E — 1-2-3 Rule: under IFR, an alternate is always required unless, during the period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, the destination ceiling is forecasted to be great than or equal to 2000’ and the visibility is forecasted to be greater than or equal to 3 SM.

FOM 7.8.D = freezing precipitation: if destination is currently reporting or forecasting freezing rain or freezing drizzle, departure is still authorized, however, an alternate MUST be specified.

FOM 7.2.G = an alternate is required if all usable runways at the destination are reporting RwyCC values of 1.

96
Q

When does a release require an additional alternate airport?

A

Exemption 17347 Alternate.
Anytime the conditional weather exemption is used (17347), a second alternate is required.

121.619 = any WX equal to that required for the approach at destinations considered marginal. A second alternate is required if the destination and first alternate are both marginal. Dest = vis at mins. Alt = vis and ceiling at mins.

97
Q

Where is your planned TOC with respect to the tropopause? Why is this important to note? Identify tropopause using max wind levels on release.

A

Find it under MWL at TOC. There are no standard lapse rates above that flight level.

98
Q

What is the filed true airspeed for this release and why is it important to reference both before and during the flight?

A

TAS as it relates to efficiency. When slow TAS is planned, it directly affects the fuel loading - in most cases, slow TAS is for efficiency and will result in smaller fuel quantities, conversely, a high TAS will result in a larger quantity. With higher TASs the crew will likely be able to beat “the plan” and have extra fuel. With a slow TAS, the crew will have to follow the plan precisely and depending on the needs of ATC, may fall short of fuel.

Required to report any change in average cruise TAS by 5% or 10 kts whichever is greater. AIM 5-3-3.

99
Q

If an aircraft item is deferred after block out and prior to takeoff, is the deferred item required to be reflected on the release?

A

Yes.

100
Q

Are all MEL, CDL, NEF items required to be listed on the release?

A

All active MEL and CDL items - yes. NEF not.

101
Q

Does inputting an EFC time affect the progress fuel indication on the MFD?

A

Yes.

102
Q

What information does the PPDirect function provide on the FMS regarding fuel?

A

Fuel remaining based on current fuel flow.

103
Q

When holding, how can landing fuel be calculated?

A

Use of secondary flight plan is the most accurate.
Utilize PPOS as a guide.
On the hold page, look at Last Exit, and Hold Available.
Various options…

104
Q

How do you modify an EFC time in the FMS?

A

NAV»>HOLD»>enter new EFC.

105
Q

Does your dispatched fuel quantity include enough fuel to proceed to your destination, conduct an approach and missed approach and proceed to the alternate?

A

121.639/FOM 5.7.H
No person may takeoff unless the airplane has enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to the most distant alternate airport, then to fly for 45 min at normal cruise.

106
Q

If two destination alternate airports are listed on the release, are you planned to have enough fuel to proceed to the destination, execute a missed approach, fly to the first alternate, execute a missed approach then fly to the second alternate?

A

121.639/FOM 5.7.H
No person may takeoff unless the airplane has enough fuel to fly to the destination, then to the most distant alternate airport, then to fly for 45 min at normal cruise.

107
Q

What is minimum fuel?

A

2250 lbs

Minimum fuel provides 45 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green Dot / Clean.

Declare minimum fuel when the estimated fuel remaining on touchdown, at the airport of intended landing, is less than 45 minutes fuel endurance or as specified in “Minimum” column of the Minimum/Emergency Fuel Table; when further deviation from the planned route of flight could result in an emergency fuel situation.

108
Q

What is emergency fuel?

A

1500 lbs

Emergency fuel provides 30 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green Dot / Clean

175 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions