175 2021 CQ KV Flashcards

1
Q

What is meant by the term non-annunciated?

A

Procedures which are not related to an EICAS message but rather to a condition present in the airplane.
[QRH – Introduction]

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2
Q

Give an example of a threat that has a dedicated memory item but does not trigger an EICAS message?

A
  • Fumes
  • ENG Abnormal Start
  • Flight control jam/malfunction
  • Trim runaway
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3
Q

What is always the priority in any emergency? When should checklists be called for?

A

Flying the airplane is always the priority in any emergency. Checklists should only be called by the PF after the flight path is under control, critical phases of flight (takeoff and landing) have ended and all memory items have been accomplished. [ERJ QRH INTRO – CHECKLIST OPERATION]

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4
Q

Describe the MEAN acronym as defined in the ERJ SOPM.

A

The priority for handling an emergency/abnormal situation M.E.A.N [ERJ SOPM CH 5 – EMERGENCY AND ABNORMAL PROTOCOL]

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5
Q

Are all emergency procedures that an ERJ crew must commit to memory found on the QRC?

A

NO
o Rejected takeoff
o Windshear
o EGPWS Escape
o TCAS
o Etc.

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6
Q

Describe the actions and callouts of a Rejected Takeoff.

A

[SOPM CH 4 – REJECTED TAKEOFF – ACTIONS and CALLOUTS]

Capt = “REJECT” or “REJECT MY CONTROLS” / “THIS IS THE CAPTAIN REMAIN
SEATED WITH YOUR SEAT BELT FASTENED.”

FO = “80 KNOTS” / Advise ATC.

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7
Q

Why are some EICAS messages inhibited during takeoff including nearly all CAUTION MESSAGES?

A

To prevent from being a nuisance. [AOM VOL 2 Warning System – EICAS MESSAGES INHIBITION]

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8
Q

Does the SOPM direct crews to reject a takeoff for caution messages?

A

NO – “If we have an ENGINE FAILURE OR EMERGENCY prior to V1 we will execute a rejected takeoff procedure…” [ERJ SOPM CH 3]

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9
Q

With the EICAS presentation, why are Aural Warnings necessary?

A

Aural Warnings are used when pilots need immediate knowledge without having to look at a visual display or indicator. [AOM VOL 2 Warning System – AURAL WARNING]

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10
Q

What is significant about a Voice Message, i.e. SINKRATE, TRAFFIC, etc?

A

Voice messages are generated whenever a potentially dangerous condition exists. [AOM VOL 2 Warning Systems – VOICE MESSAGES]

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11
Q

Speaking of Voice Messages - what item(s) trigger a Takeoff Configuration Warning when thrust is applied?

A
  • Flaps not in takeoff position
  • Flaps position is not in agreement with the flaps position selected in the FMS takeoff page 2/2.
  • Parking brakes are applied
  • Pitch trim is out of green range
  • Any spoiler panel deployed

[AOM VOL 2 Warning Systems – VOICE MESSAGES]

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12
Q

What are some contributing factors as to why pilots attempt takeoffs with only one engine running?

A

Contributing Factors:

  • ATC late runway / clearance changes.
  • Operational pressure. Pilots indicated they needed to slow down to catch the single engine configuration error.
  • Ineffective application of before takeoff configuration check(list).
  • Rapidly changing weather.
  • Complex SID related distractions.
  • Root Cause(s) – SkyWest Safety Department:*
  • Ineffective checklist discipline and the failure to recognize threats related to technology / distractions and effectively apply TEM.*
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13
Q

After the completion of a rejected takeoff when can the airplane exit the runway?

A

The airplane remains on the runway until it is absolutely clear that an emergency evacuation is not necessary and the entire scenario analyzed. [ERJ SOPM CH 4 – RTO]

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14
Q

Describe a Windshear Warning’s actions and callouts.

A

“WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR.”
[ERJ SOPM CH 4 – WINDSHEAR]
When a windshear warning is encountered:
• Advance thrust levers to MAX and press the TOGA button;
• Follow flight director guidance;
• Do not change flaps or landing gear configuration until out of the windshear condition and
terrain clearance assured;
• Reduce thrust to climb power, retract landing gear and slats/flaps when the airplane is out of
the windshear condition.
NOTE: PM states “CLIMBING” or “DESCENDING” based upon VSI indication until the
aircraft has returned to a safe airspeed and altitude.
When the Caution/Warning WSHEAR indicator on the PFD disappears, the PM states
“WINDSHEAR WARNING GONE” or “WINDSHEAR CAUTION GONE.”
When the radar altimeter indicates less than 1,000 ft AGL and the airplane is descending, the
PM calls “DESCENDING (___)” based upon the RA value observed.
For example:
“DESCENDING 700,” “DESCENDING 600.”
Windshear escape maneuver without EGPWS announcement
Disengage autopilot, advance thrust levers to maximum thrust, and maintain a pitch angle 20° or
PLI, whichever is lower. When advancing the thrust levers, press either GA switch. Maintain
the actual aircraft configuration (landing gear and flaps) until 1,500 ft AGL and terrain clearance
is assured.

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15
Q

How will selecting LLVL WIND SHR in ACARS affect performance?

A

T/O 1, Optimized Flap setting. [ERJ SOPM CH 4 – WINDSHEAR]

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16
Q

Where would a crew find Windshear performance information if the ACARS where inoperative?

A

Contact the Dispatcher. [ERJ SOPM CH 4 – WINDSHEAR]

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17
Q

Describe the EGPWS Escape procedure actions and callouts.

A

[ERJ SOPM CH 4 APPROACH – EGPWS]

Disengage the autopilot
• Simultaneously advance thrust
levers to MAX position and set
pitch 20° to maintain pitch on PLI,
respecting stick shaker and buffet
• Retract spoilers (when required)
• Maintain present airplane
configuration (gear/flaps) until
terrain separation is achieved
• Climb to the MSA or MORA
• Clear of terrain, resume level flight
• Retract gear and flaps (when
required)
• Engage autopilot
• Resume normal speed

PM =

• Verify all required actions have
been performed
• Communicate with ATC
• Turn FSTN BELTS ON
• Scan for visual reference
• Call out radar altimeter
indications
• Read MFD terrain indications to
check obstacle height, guides
for the best course of action,
and indicates when obstacle
has been cleared

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18
Q

Describe the pitch target/presentation on the PFD during the EGPWS Escape.

A

Pitch, not FPA… NOTE: Ensure the crew distinguishes between Airplane Symbol and Flight Path Angle.
[ERJ SOPM CH 4 APPROACH – EGPWS]

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19
Q

On the Terrain Awareness Display what does a Solid Red color indicate?

A

Approximately 30 seconds from impact. [AOM VOL 2 Warning System]

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20
Q

What do High Density Yellow Dots indicate?

A

Terrain is 1,000’ to 2,000’ above the airplane. [AOM VOL 2 Warning System]

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21
Q

What are the PFs actions during a Resolution Advisory (RA)?

A
  • AUTOPILOT DISCONNECT
  • AUTOTHROTTLE DISCONNECT
  • PITCH FLY-TO ZONE
  • THRUST AS REQUIRED

[ERJ SOPM CH 4 – RA]

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22
Q

What is an “Upset”?

A

Unintentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced in line operations or training.

  • Pitch greater than 25 degrees nose up;
  • Pitch greater than 10 degrees nose down;
  • Bank greater than 45 degrees or
  • Airspeed inappropriate for the conditions.

[ERJ SOPM CH 5 – UPSET]

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23
Q

What is the Upset recovery procedure?

A
  • Recognize and confirm
  • Disconnect
  • Push, Roll, Thrust, Stabilize

[ERJ SOPM CH 5 – UPSET RECOVERY]

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24
Q

During engine start, you suspect a hung start. What is the memory item?

A

AFFECTED ENGINE: START / STOP SELECTOR …..STOP
AOM 2-40), Perform ( QRH NAP 1-6)

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25
Q

In the initial climb, you experience a sudden uncontrollable pitch up tendency and you suspect a trim runaway. What action would you take?

A

A/P DISC BUTTON ……PRESS AND HOLD
PITCH TRIM SYS 1 & 2 CUTOUT BUTTONS….. PUSH IN

(SOPM Attachment 2), (QRH NAP1-15).

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26
Q

The excessive pitch up tendency has been alleviated but to help compensate for a more coordinated flight utilize the YAW trim, you can see it moving quickly to the left. What memory item is required to stop it?

A

A/P DISC BUTTON …..PRESS AND HOLD
(SOPM Attachment 2), (QRH NAP1-16)

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27
Q

While climbing out 15,000 ft. you receive a (CAB ALT HI) EICAS message, what is your response?

A

• OXYGEN MASKS……… DON
• 100% CREW COMMUNICATION….. ESTABLISH
(SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH 2-1)

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28
Q

While descending, the flight attendants’ call with the EMER button, they state that a first class passenger’s laptop is emitting smoke. You see no active smoke in the cockpit. What is the best course of action?

A

• OXYGEN MASKS………………………………………… DON, 100%
• CREW COMMUNICATION…………………………….. ESTABLISH
QRC(SOPM Attachment 2), Perform ( QRH S1-3)

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29
Q

Shortly thereafter you see active smoke coming from under the cockpit door. What, if anything changes in regards to your required procedures?

A
  • OXYGEN MASKS. ………. DON, EMER
  • CREW COMMUNICATION…….. ESTABLISH
  • PRESSURIZATION DUMP……… PUSH IN

(SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH S1-2)

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30
Q

As you declare the emergency with ATC to get vectors back to the airport, you receive an EICAS message (BATT 1 OVERTEMP). What is the memory item?

A

ASSOCIATED BATTERY………. OFF
Verify using QRC(SOPM Attachment 2) , followed by (QRH EAP 5-1)

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31
Q

While turning final, the control column (pitch) appears to be jammed, what should you do?

A

ELEVATOR DISCONNECT HANDLE…….. PULL
(SOPM Attachment 2), Perform (QRH NAP1-12).

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32
Q

You now have pitch authority, but is appears you have no ROLL authority as a result. What now?

A

AILERON DISCONNECT HANDLE……… PULL

SOPM Attachment 2), Perform (QRH NAP1-13)

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33
Q

You’ve finally made it to short final, the landing is assured, and crash fire and rescue is waiting for you mid field. Once on the runway you can no longer maintain the centerline with the rudders, what action may be required to maintain on the runway?

A

STEER DISC SWITCH …..PRESS Steer the airplane using differential braking and rudder.
(SOPM Attachment 2) (QRH1-16)

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34
Q

List four of the seven conditions that require the pilot to manually abort the start.

A
  • No positive oil pressure within 10 seconds after N2 speed starts to increase,
  • No N1 before starter cutout (50%N2).
  • No ITT within 30 seconds after initiation of fuel flow
  • ITT exceeds start limit(815deg C-HOT)
  • Oil pressure stabilizes below engine limits
  • N1 and/or N2 failing to accelerate to stable idle speed(hung start)
  • An intermittent electrical pneumatic or start malfunction occurs before the starter disengagement.

(SOPM CH 4, ENGINE START ABNORMAL ENGINE START INDICATION)

35
Q

When powering-up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure?

A

22.5 Volts, if voltage is between 21V-22.5V. (AOM1 3-05,SOPM CH4.Saftey and Power up)

36
Q

After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?

A

After verifying there are no fire protection fail messages…30 seconds after EICAS is energized. (AOM1 3-05, SOPM CH4.Saftey and Power up). (SOPM CH2.APU LIMITS)

37
Q

Max Landing weight?

A

74,957 lb (76 pax), 74,957 lb (70 pax). (SOPM CH2.STRUCTURAL LIMITATIONS)

38
Q

Can takeoff/landing occur with the “FUEL IMBALANCE” EICAS message?

A

Yes, as long as it’s less than 794 lbs. (SOPM CH2.FUEL)

39
Q

What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-37deg C. (SOPM CH2.FUEL)

40
Q

When setting up the TO-DATA SET, when would the pilot select A/I to ENG?

A
  • OAT is from 5°C to 10°C and when there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1,700 ft AFE.
  • When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

(SOPM CH2.OPERATON IN ICING CONDITIONS)

41
Q

When would the pilot select A/I to ALL?

A
  • OAT is less than 5°C and when there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1,700 ft AFE.
  • When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

(SOPM CH2.OPERATON IN ICING CONDITIONS)

42
Q

To start an engine, what is the minimum outside air temperature?

A

There is not a specific temperature, but -40 for the aircraft. (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

43
Q

Minimum hydraulic reservoir temperature?

A

18 degrees C (SOPM CH2 HYDRAULIC AND BRAKES CONDITIONS)

44
Q

What is the starter cranking limit for start attempts 1 and 2?

A

90 Seconds (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT).

45
Q

Minimum time between starts 1 and 2?

A

10 Seconds. (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

46
Q

How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?

A

For in-flight starts, the maximum cumulative starter run time per start attempt is 120 seconds (motoring plus start time). (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

47
Q

What about for dry motoring?

A

1 90 Seconds ON 5 Minutes OFF 2 - 5 30 Seconds ON 5 Minutes OFF. (SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

48
Q

During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?

A

POSITITIVE N1 BY (50% N2)
(SOPM CH2 ENGINES-POWERPLANT)

49
Q

On taxi, we are instructed to taxi under the passenger bridge at DEN. The sign says it has 43 feet of clearance. Can we taxi under safely? How tall is the tail?

A

Yes our tail is 32ft 4in.

(SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL DIMENSIONS)

50
Q

A taxiway is NOTAM’d closed to aircraft with wingspan over 100’. What is the wingspan of the ERJ-175?

A

Wingspan of 93ft 11 in.

(SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL DIMENSIONS)

51
Q

What is the length of the aircraft?

A

Length 103ft 11 in.
(SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL DIMENSIONS)

52
Q

For takeoff, what is the maximum brake temperature?

A

MUST BE GREEN.

(SOPM CH2 HYDRAULIC PRESSURE AND TEMPERATURE)

53
Q

What is maximum tailwind component allowed for takeoff?

A

15KTS.

(SOPM CH2 MAX ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE LIMITS)

54
Q

Is a static takeoff recommended with crosswind components greater than 25 kts?

A

NO.

(SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM RECOMMENDED CROSSWIND)

55
Q

After takeoff, when can the autopilot be engaged?

A

400 ft AFE
(SOPM CH2 AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTME)

56
Q

Max altitude for flaps/slat extended?

A

20,000 FT.

(SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS)

57
Q

Can the flaps/slats be extended enroute?

A

Prohibited - but looks like this was actually removed in 2021 SOPM update…

(SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS).

58
Q

On a reposition flight, you’re filed for FL400. For traffic, ATC asks if you can accept FL420. Can you accept that clearance?

A

NO, MAX 41,000FT.

(SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE LIMITS)

59
Q

While in cruise, you’re familiarizing yourself with suitable alternates using the Jepp app. What is the maximum elevation for takeoff/landing?

A

10,000FT

(SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE LIMITS)

60
Q

ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulence ahead. What’s the turbulent air penetration speed?

A

Vb 270/.76M (whichever is lower).

(SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

61
Q

What is the maximum runway slope allowable?

A

+/-2% RWY SLOPE.

(SOPM CH2 MAXIMUM ALTITUDE AND TEMPERATURE LIMITS)

62
Q

What is the minimum runway width allowable?

A

100FT.
(SOPM CH2 STRUCTURAL LIMITATIONS)

63
Q

When landing at temperatures below -40C, what must happen prior to the next departure?

A

Maintenance inspection is required.

(SOPM CH2 OPERATIONAL ENVELOPE NOTE)

64
Q

If both ice detectors fail, when should the pilot select the Anti-ice mode selector to ON?

A

When either one or both ice detectors are failed, when ice conditions exist or are anticipated below 10C TAT with visible moisture. (SOPM CH2 OPERATION IN ICE CONDITIONS)

65
Q

An IDG fails in flight, and the QRH instructs you to start the APU. What is the maximum start altitude?

A

30,000FT

(SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS)

66
Q

Maximum APU operational altitude (after start)?

A

33,000 ft

(SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS)

67
Q

Maximum altitude that the APU electrical generator can be used?

A

33,000 ft

(SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS)

68
Q

Maximum altitude that the APU can be used for engine start?

A

21,000 ft

(SOPM CH2 APU OPERATIONAL LIMITS)

69
Q

What is the maximum gear extension/retraction/operation speed?

A

VLOEXT/RET=250

(SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

70
Q

What is the minimum spoiler speed?

A

180 kt

(SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS)

71
Q

If flying a CAT II approach, what flap setting is required?

A

Flaps 5 mandatory.

(SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS)

72
Q

What is the maximum wiper speed?

A

V wiper ops max = 250

(SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

73
Q

What is the maximum window-open speed?

A

Vwindow=160

(SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

74
Q

If the RAT has been deployed, what is the minimum speed?

A

Vrat=130
(SOPM CH2 SPEED LIMITS)

75
Q

When approaching flaps full, what is the go-around flaps setting?

A

Flaps 4

(SOPM CH2 FLIGHT CONTROLS)

76
Q

Is it approved to attempt a go-around after deployment of the thrust reversers?

A

NO

(SOPM CH2 THRUST REVERSES)

77
Q

When selecting reverse thrust, how long must you wait before moving the thrust reversers back into the forward range? (Green REV)

A
  • Reduce thrust levers to MIN REV, when thrust reversers were used
  • At 30 kt, set thrust levers to IDLE (forward thrust), when being used.

(SOPM CH2 THRUST REVERSES)

78
Q

What are some operational conditions in which it would be advisable to display TERRAIN on the MFD?

A

Always? (Terrain awareness is a safety focus area for SkyWest) Or at least around MOUNTAINS!

79
Q

How does the PIC report a mechanical irregularity to Maintenance?

A

Via FliteView
(FOM CH 6)

80
Q

How does the PIC ensure mechanical irregularities have been successfully transmitted in FliteView?

A

By noting the aircraft status is listed as OTS (red banner) in FliteView.
(FOM CH 6)

81
Q

What is the primary navigation source for VOR, VOR-DME, or RNAV/GPS approaches?

A

The FMS is primary. (SOPM CH 4)

82
Q

Is there a requirement to display a preview of the VOR course with correct frequency when flying a VOR or VOR-DME approach?

A

Yes
AC 90-108, Page 5 (coming to an SOPM near you soon).

83
Q

VOR and RNAV/GPS approaches are Approaches with vertical guidance – are their profiles, actions or callouts different from an ILS approach?

A

NO
(SOPM CH 4)