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175 > 175 2020 SV U Study Guide > Flashcards

175 2020 SV U Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

After Pressing the EMER ENTRY push button on the door control panel, how long, without pressing the inhibit button, until the door unlocks?

A

30 seconds.

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2
Q

After pressing the inhibit button (FDD), how long will the system remain inhibited?

A

500 seconds per AOM Vol2.

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3
Q

What conditions will provide a green light on the nose wheel prior to pushback?

A
  1. Steering disengaged through the external steering disengage
    switch and
  2. Parking brakes not applied and
  3. Main brakes not applied.
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4
Q

What conditions will provide a RED light on the nose wheel prior to pushback?

A
  1. External steering disengage switch in the engaged position or
  2. Parking brakes applied or
  3. Main brakes applied.
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5
Q

Minimum Fuel is _____ lbs? What does it provide?

A

2,250 LB.
45 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green Dot /
Clean.

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6
Q

Emergency Fuel is _____ lbs? What does it provide?

A

1,500 LB.
30 minutes of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE / Green Dot /
Clean.

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7
Q

MTW (LR)

A

85,870 lbs

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8
Q

MTOW (LR)

A

85,517 lbs

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9
Q

MLW (LR / LL)

A

74,957 lbs

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10
Q

MZFW (LR)

A

69,886 lbs

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11
Q

Min. Rwy. Width

A

100 ft.

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12
Q

Calculate Vap: 360@10G15 Rwy 36. Vref = 130.

A

Vap=Vref+1/2HW+Gust Incr

Vap = 140

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13
Q

Live animals can be placed in the ____ cargo bin.

A

FORWARD

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14
Q

Where will battery temperature information be displayed?

A

Electrical Synoptic.

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15
Q

Maximum Tailwind component for takeoff?

A

15 kts

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16
Q

Review the QRC…you should know which items are memory items.

A

Boxed - there are 10 of them…

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17
Q

What is a WARNING message?

A

WARNING (red): indicates an emergency or airplane system condition
that requires immediate corrective or compensatory crew action.

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18
Q

What is a CAUTION message?

A

CAUTION (amber): indicates an abnormal operational or airplane
system conditions that require immediate crew awareness and should
require a subsequent corrective or compensatory action.

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19
Q

What is an ADVISORY message?

A

ADVISORY (cyan): indicates operational or airplane conditions that
require crew awareness. Subsequent or future crew action may be
required.

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20
Q

What is a STATUS message?

A

STATUS (white): indicates information/status messages. The pilot can
use the system efficiently when the appropriate action is accomplished.

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21
Q

What does the Takeoff Configuration button push check?

A
  1. Flaps are not in takeoff position (“NO TAKEOFF FLAPS”) OR Flaps position is not in agreement with the Flaps position selected in the FMS Takeoff page 2/2. (“NO TAKEOFF FLAPS”).
  2. Parking brakes are applied (“NO TAKEOFF BRAKES”).
  3. Pitch trim is out of green range (“NO TAKEOFF TRIM”).
  4. Any spoiler panel is deployed (“NO TAKEOFF SPOILER”).
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22
Q

Can you scroll through EICAS messages if there are many?

A

Yes - more than 15 you can scroll using CCD knob. Can’t hide WARNING messages.

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23
Q

How do you know windshear escape guidance is shown?

A

WSHR in FMA. WSHEAR in red on PFD.

Activate if you get warning and press TOGA. GA-RSV if A/T on (if you shove to MAX you get GA-RSV).

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24
Q

What does it mean when an EICAS message has a chevron next to it?

A

EICAS messages which may generate more messages with them are
called Root EICAS messages and they are highlighted by a preceding
chevron “>”.

If more than one root message is displayed at the same time or
displayed together with a WARNING message, the priority order to be
evaluated is:
– WARNING messages;
– ELECTRICAL BUSES and;
– MAU.

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25
Q

Define Green Dot / What are all the uses of green dot?

A
  1. Drift Down Speed (FUP).
  2. Ideal Slat/Flap Extend Speed.
  3. 1.3g margin / 40deg bank.
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26
Q

A/P Min Engage Height

A

400 ft

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27
Q

A/P Min Use Height

A

50 ft

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28
Q

A/P Min Use Height Non-Precision Approach

A

MDA

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29
Q

During normal ops ADS 1 drives which airspeed? Non-normal auto reversion?

A

Left PFD. 1st reversion ADS3 / 2nd reversion ADS2.

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30
Q

During normal ops ADS 2 drives which airspeed? Non-normal auto reversion?

A

Right PFD. 1st reversion ADS3 / 2nd reversion ADS1.

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31
Q

During normal ops ADS 4 drives which airspeed?

A

IESS

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32
Q

During normal ops which ADS is the backup system?

A

ADS 3 - If a failure of the ADS occurs the failed ADS automatically revert to
ADS 3 or the pilot can manually revert to any available ADS to recover
the information on the affected PFD.

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33
Q

What are min BATT voltages for 1 and 2 during the safety and power-up checklist?

A

22.5V… if less than 21V call MX!

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34
Q

What is AC Power Priority?

A

Onside, Inside, Outside, Cross-side.

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35
Q

What EICAS message would indicate the RAT has NOT deployed during an electrical emergency?

A

BATT DISCHARGING Warning Message. Batteries are discharging in an
electrical emergency with no
RAT assistance.

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36
Q

What Busses are energized during an electrical emergency before the RAT deploys?

A

DC ESS BUSES and the STANDBY AC BUS (via inverter)…i.e. it’s all battery for 8 seconds as RAT deploys and spins up…

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37
Q

What Busses are energized after the RAT deploys?

A

AC ESS BUS and DC ESS BUSES powered via ESS TRU.

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38
Q

What items are on the AC STBY BUS?

A

ENGINE 1 EXCITER 1A

ENGINE 2 EXCITER 2A

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39
Q

What items are on the AC ESS BUS?

A

3/2/2/1… ACMP 3A / AC FUEL PUMP 2A / SF-ACE 2 SLAT CH 2 / SF-ACE 1 FLAP CH 1

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40
Q

In an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY, while the RAT is not fully deployed
and also if RAT stall speed is reached, batteries supply essential loads
for ____ minutes.

A

10 minutes

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41
Q

What purpose does an Inverter serve?

A

DC to AC

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42
Q

What does a TRU do?

A

AC to DC

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43
Q

What is the difference between OFF and DISC on either IDG Selector?

A

OFF: opens the IDG contactor isolating the IDG from the respective AC BUS.
DISC: must be held in this position for 1 second to
mechanically disconnect the IDG.

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44
Q

What, operationally, is powered even while the batteries are off?

A

DC HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2… battery 1 and 2… courtesy/service lights fwd, DC ceiling lights, Engine 1A/2A 1B/2B fire extinguish, engine fuel sov 1 / 2, hyd sys sov 1 /2, engine 1 /2 oil indication. CMC. panel refuel, , water and waste system controller.

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45
Q

What will cause the RAT to deploy automatically?

A

Whenever AC power sources are not powering AC buses, the RAT is
automatically deployed / In the event of a total loss of AC power the RAT is automatically
deployed and it powers all ESS BUSES.

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46
Q

What speed is needed to ensure the RAT continues to provide electrical power?

A

130 VminRAT

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47
Q

What happens when I pull the ENG fire handle?

A

4 things:

  1. Fuel SOV close.
  2. Hyd SOV close.
  3. Bleed SOV close.
  4. XBleed SOV close.
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48
Q

What happens when I rotate the ENG fire handle?

A

CW Rotate - discharges extinguisher bottle A into the associated engine.
CCW Rotate - discharges extinguisher bottle B into the same engine.

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49
Q

What does the APU Emergency Stop Button do?

A

Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve, shutting down the APU with no cooldown period. A white striped bar illuminates on the lower half of the button.

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50
Q

What does the APU Fire Extinguisher button do?

A

Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve and discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle.

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51
Q

How many times do I need to press the Cargo Fire Extinguisher button to discharge the low rate bottle… In Flight? Annunciated.

A

Annunciated: push button once to discharge High Rate Bottle. Automatic Low Rate bottle discharge after 1 minute.

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52
Q

How many times do I need to press the Cargo Fire Extinguisher button to discharge the low rate bottle… On Ground? Annunciated.

A

Annunciated: push button once to discharge High Rate Bottle. Must push button again to discharge Low Rate bottle.

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53
Q

How many times do I need to press the Cargo Fire Extinguisher button to discharge the low rate bottle… In Flight?
Non-annunciated.

A

Non-annunciated: push the button twice to discharge the High Rate Bottle. Automatic Low Rate bottle discharge after 1 minute.

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54
Q

How many times do I need to press the Cargo Fire Extinguisher button to discharge the low rate bottle… On Ground?
Non-annunciated.

A

Non-annunciated: push the button twice to discharge the High Rate Bottle. Must push button again to discharge Low Rate bottle.

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55
Q

What happens automatically when smoke is detected in the FWD Cargo bin?

A

3 smoke detectors…3 things:

  1. Air circ fan turned off.
  2. Ventilation outflow valve is closed.
  3. High Rate bottle is armed.
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56
Q

What happens automatically when smoke is detected in the AFT Cargo bin?

A

2 smoke detectors…1 things:

1. High Rate Bottle is armed.

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57
Q

Can I fight a fire in the engine with the airplane turned off?

A

Yes.

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58
Q

Can I fight a fire in the APU with the airplane turned off?

A

No?

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59
Q

Can I fight a fire in the cargo compartments with the airplane turned off?

A

No?

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60
Q

What fire protection and extinguishing capabilities does the 175 have?

A

4:

Engine, APU, Cargo, Lav

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61
Q

Before selecting the FIRE TEST button, what should the pilot verify?

A

EICAS powered for 30 seconds.

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62
Q

What memory items, if any, do we have to fight a fire?

A

None…other than SMOKE EVAC and SMOKE / FIRE / FUMES…

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63
Q

What is the purpose of the scavenge ejector?

A

3 scavenge jet (ejector) pumps maintain the fuel level in the collector tank,
ensuring a constant flow of fuel to the engine during normal flight.

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64
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Main Ejector?

A

The primary wing fuel pump is a venturi ejector pump (jet pump) with
no moving parts, and is powered by the respective engine motive flow.
It is a self-sustained pump and does not require electrical power to
operate.

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65
Q

With the knob in AUTO, when will the AC Fuel Pump 1 and 2 turn on?

A
  1. During respective engine start.
  2. Crossfeed operations.
  3. APU, when engine is not running.
  4. Main Ejector Pump failure.
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66
Q

With the knob in AUTO, when will the DC Fuel Pump turn on?

A

A DC electric fuel pump is installed only in the right wing tank. It provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operation and engine start, when AC power or the AC fuel pump is not available.

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67
Q

What does the XFEED knob do?

A

LOW 1: opens the crossfeed valve and automatically activates
the right AC fuel pump (AC PUMP 2), supplying fuel to
both engines from the right wing tank.
OFF: closes the crossfeed valve.
LOW 2: opens the crossfeed valve and automatically activates
the left AC fuel pump (AC PUMP 1), supplying fuel to
both engines from the left wing tank.

68
Q

Which fuel pumps are in the main fuel tanks? How many are there?

A
  1. Ejector fuel pump.
  2. Wing AC electric fuel pump.
  3. DC electric fuel pump (right tank only).
69
Q

Which fuel pumps are in the collector tank in each wing?

A

Three scavenge ejector pumps.

70
Q

How many fuel tanks are there?

A

2… each wing tank incorporates a collector tank (inboard) and a surge tank (wing down / uncoordinated).

71
Q

Max Fuel Imbalance?

A

794 lbs

72
Q

Max Fuel Qty?

A

20,935 lbs

73
Q

Min Fuel Tank Temp?

A

-37C

74
Q

When will a FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message appear? When will it go away?

A

When the wings fuel imbalance reaches its maximum operational limit
(800 lb), the EICAS CAUTION message FUEL IMBALANCE is
displayed. When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 100 lb, the
EICAS ADVISORY message FUEL EQUAL – XFEED OPEN is
displayed, indicating that there is no wings fuel imbalance condition
and the crossfeed valve is open.

75
Q

In the event of dual engine failure, which fuel pump will provide fuel to relight an engine?

A

Guessing…DC Pump initially? RAT powered up then AC Pump 2.

76
Q

Recite Starter limitations for the first start:

A

90s on / 10s off (1&2)

90s on / 5m off (3-5)

77
Q

Recite Starter limitations for after a dry motor:

A

90s on / 5 off

2-5 is 30s on / 5 off

78
Q

Recite Engine Abnormal Start Memory items:

A

Affected STOP/START selector: STOP.

79
Q

FADEC will automatically abort an engine start in the event that:

A

Hot, Hung, No Light Off.

80
Q

When will CLB thrust be set automatically on the EICAS?

A

During aircraft power up, CLB-1 is the default mode setting. Whenever
the selected takeoff thrust is lower than CLB-1 the CLB-2 mode
becomes the default until the next airplane power down / power up. This logic is to prevent the system from increasing thrust instead of
reducing it during transition from TO to CLB after the takeoff.

During takeoff with flight director ON, the CLB mode is engaged when
all of the following conditions occur:
– landing gear retracted
– airplane altitude above 400 ft AGL
– any change in the flight director vertical mode.
During takeoff with flight director OFF, the CLB mode is engaged when
all of the following conditions occur:
– landing gear retracted
– airplane altitude above 3000 ft AGL.

81
Q

When will CRZ thrust appear on the EICAS?

A

The CRZ mode is engaged when all of the following conditions occur:
– Airplane is leveled at the altitude set on the altitude preselector for
90 seconds.

82
Q

When will GA thrust appear on the EICAS?

A

The GA mode is activated in flight whenever the landing gear and flaps
are down.

83
Q

When will RSV thrust appear on the EICAS?

A

The ATTCS automatically commands RSV whenever it is engaged,
thrust levers are at TOGA position, and one of following conditions
occurs:
1. Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%;
2. One engine failure during takeoff;
3. One engine failure during go-around;
4. Windshear detection.
The RSV mode is manually activated by moving the thrust levers to
MAX position whenever the ATTCS is engaged.

84
Q

When FADEC automatically aborts an engine start, why must we still conduct the memory item?

A

To close the starter valve / respect starter limit.

85
Q

A/P Min Engage Height

A

400 ft

86
Q

A/P Min Use Height

A

50 ft

87
Q

A/P Min Use Non-Precision Height

A

MDA

88
Q

Recite minimum holding speeds based on altitude:

A 
<6000 = 200 min
>6000 = 210 min
89
Q

What does the FD do when the pilot presses and hold the TCS button?

A

Syncs to the flight path “vector”

90
Q

APU Start Attempt 1&2

A

60 seconds off

91
Q

APU Start Attempt 3

A

5 minutes off

92
Q

APU Min Start Temp

A

-54C

93
Q

APU Max Start Temp

A

ISA+35C

94
Q

APU Max Start Altitude

A

30,000 ft

95
Q

APU Continuous Op Min Temp

A

-54C

96
Q

APU Continuous Op Max Temp

A

ISA+35C (52C)

97
Q

APU Max Op Altitude

A

33,000 ft

98
Q

APU Max Altitude Electrical Use

A

33,000 ft

99
Q

APU Max Altitude Bleed Use

A

15,000 ft

100
Q

APU Max Altitude Engine Start

A

21,000 ft

101
Q

For what reasons will the APU automatically shut down on the ground?

A

UFO + Sensor Fail, HOTLOP, Fire

UFO+SHeLF

102
Q

For what reasons will the APU automatically shut down on the in flight?

A

UFO - Under speed, FADEC critical fault, Over Speed

103
Q

Max DeltaP (<37,000’)

A

7.8 psi

104
Q

Max DeltaP (>37,000’)

A

8.4 psi

105
Q

Max DeltaP Overpressure

A

8.8 psi

106
Q

Max DeltaP Negative Pressure

A

-0.5 psi

107
Q

Max Diff Press T/O Lndg

A

0.2 psi

108
Q

What happens when the dump button is pressed while the mode selector is in AUTO?

A
  1. Sets the ECS packs OFF;
  2. Recirculation fans to OFF;
  3. Controls the OUT FLOW VALVE to maintain the cabin altitude rate
    of climb at 2000 ft/min up to 12400 ft.
  4. When the cabin altitude reaches 12400 ft it commands the OUT
    FLOW VALVE full closed. From this point the cabin altitude rises by
    natural leak.
109
Q

What happens when the dump button is pressed while the mode selector is in MAN?

A

The Dump Function is not available in Manual Mode. However, if the
associated push button is pushed in, both recirculation fan and packs
are turned to off.

110
Q

When/Why would I use the LFE CTRL on the pressurization panel?

A

If landing field elevation is not available from the FMS database. Pilot must manually input it using LFE control (field elevation shown in CYAN vs normal green).

111
Q

What does the outflow valve do?

A

The outflow valve modulates airflow from the pressurized cabin into surrounding environment. It can be modulated automatically or
manually.

112
Q

What does the positive pressure relief valve do (safety valve)?

A

The positive pressure relief valve is a spring loaded check valve that works without any electrical power, and is independent the CPCS. Its
function is to protect the airplane’s structure against damage due to positive overpressure. In case of outflow valve failure, the positive pressure relief valve opens if the pressure differential between cabin
and surrounding environment exceeds 8.6 psi.

113
Q

What does the negative pressure relief valve do?

A

The negative pressure relief valve is a spring loaded check valve that works without any electrical power, and is independent of the CPCS.
Its function is to protect the airplane structure against damages due to a negative differential pressure.
The negative pressure relief valve opens if differential pressure between cabin and surrounding environment exceeds-0.5 psi.

114
Q

What do the Cabin Pressure Controllers do?

A

The basic function of the controller is to control cabin pressure by commanding the outflow valve to modulate airflow through the valve
from the pressurized airplane volume to the surrounding environment. The CPC has two fully independent automatic channels, which are alternated following each flight. Both channels provide a manual function as backup, enabling the crew
to control cabin pressure by directly actuating the outflow valve (OFV) position.

115
Q

When, in AUTO, will ACMP 1 turn on?

A
  1. EDP or engine fail, or
  2. Flaps selected to any position greater than 0°.
    Ground:
  3. Flaps selected to any position greater than 0° and:
    –Thrust levers set to takeoff thrust, or
    –Ground speed greater than 50 kt.
116
Q

When, in AUTO, will ACMP 2 turn on?

A
  1. EDP or engine fail, or
  2. Flaps selected to any position greater than 0°.
    Ground:
  3. Flaps selected to any position greater than 0° and:
    –Thrust levers set to takeoff thrust, or
    –Ground speed greater than 50 kt.
  4. Engine 1 running and parking brake released.
  5. During Engine 1 start (once N2 reaches 40%) if parking brake has been applied within the last 6 min.
117
Q

When, in AUTO, will ACMP 3B turn on?

A

Whenever 3A fails, 3B activates.

118
Q

If we opt to single engine with engine two, what must be accomplished prior to aircraft movement? Why?

A

Turn ON ACMP 2A… need ALL the brakes!

119
Q

Hyd Min Reservoir Temp for Eng Start

A

-18C

120
Q

What aircraft functions utilize the hydraulic system?

A
  1. Flight controls
  2. Spoilers
  3. Landing gear
  4. Nose wheel steering
  5. Wheel brakes
  6. Thrust reversers
121
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

The PTU consists of a hydraulic pump in Hydraulic System 2 driven by a hydraulic motor installed in Hydraulic System 1. The PTU assists the landing gear retraction or extension, should a right engine or right EDP failure occur.

122
Q

When, with the knob in AUTO, will the PTU run?

A

If Engine 2 or EDP 2 fails and:

  1. Flaps not set to zero or Landing Gear not up and locked;
  2. EDP 1 not fail;
  3. Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity above 12%.
123
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are available during a dual IDG failure?

A

Guessing the Engine Driven Pumps 1 and 2…

124
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are available during a Dual Engine Failure?

A

ACMP 3A

125
Q

What is the purpose of the Electrical PBIT?

A

Detection of out-of-tolerance conditions and failures in the FCMs, P-ACEs and SF-ACEs.

126
Q

What initiates the E-PBIT to run?

A

Automatically on power up by an AC source.

127
Q

How long does E-PBIT take?

A

3 minutes

128
Q

What interrupts E-PBIT?

A

3 Things:

  1. AC Power interruption.
  2. Cycle Mode switches.
  3. ACMP turned on.
129
Q

What is the purpose of the Hyd PBIT?

A

Provides functional test of the flight control actuators.

130
Q

What initiates the H-PBIT to run?

A

Automatically, only on the ground when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized.

131
Q

How long does H-PBIT take?

A

1 minute.

132
Q

What interrupts H-PBIT?

A

Move any flight control surface.

133
Q

Which flight controls are hydraulically actuated?

A

Everything but Stab/Slat/Flaps.

134
Q

Which flight controls are electrically actuated?

A

Stab, Slats/Flaps.

135
Q

What three conditions would cause a SPDBRK LEVER DISAGREE message?

A

> F1
<180 KIAS
TLA>70 deg

136
Q

What is the hierarchy of elevator trim priority?

A
  1. Backup Switches.
  2. CAPT.
  3. FO.
  4. FCM (auto-trim) cmds.
137
Q

Which flight controls are considered primary?

A
  1. Ailerons and the multi function roll spoilers for roll axis control.
  2. Elevators for pitch axis control.
  3. Rudder for yaw axis control.
138
Q

Which flight controls are considered secondary?

A
  1. Horizontal stabilizer.
  2. Flaps and Slats.
  3. The multi-function spoiler (when used as speed brakes or ground
    spoilers) .
  4. Dedicated ground spoilers.
139
Q

What purpose does the FCM serve?

A

The Flight Control Module (FCM) provides
software based airspeed gain schedules and control limits to the PACE,
as well as high level functions.

140
Q

When I make an elevator or rudder movement, what path does that signal take in NORMAL mode?

A

FCM ACE to surface

141
Q

When I make an elevator or rudder movement, what path does that signal take in DIRECT mode?

A

ACE to surface

142
Q

What is a “Higher-Level Function?” What purpose would one serve? Where, in the aircraft, are they stored?

A

FCM…
– Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed.
– Auto-thrust compensation with elevator.
– Angle-of-Attack (AOA) limiting with elevator offset.
– Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting.
– Yaw damper and turn coordination via AFCS.
– Rudder flight authority.
– Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speedbrake
deployment.
– Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer
due to speed brakes actuation.

143
Q

When is a FDR test required?

A

Origination Checklist.

144
Q

What is a successful FDR test?

A

No messages.

145
Q

How many COM radios are there?

A

3

146
Q

How many NAV radios are there?

A

2

147
Q

What ways can I tune my COM radio other than using the MCDU scratchpad?

A

CCD on PFD.

148
Q

What areas on the airplane are protected from Ice and Rain?

A

Engines, Wing, Windshield.

149
Q

Under what conditions EAI?

A

5-10C, vis moist up to 1700ft AFE. Contaminated.

150
Q

Under what conditions WAI?

A

<5C, vis moist up to 1700ft AFE.

Contaminated.

151
Q

Under what condition will my windshield heat work?

A

2 AC sources - on.
Single AC, standard PBIT runs, so on for 120sec. (se taxi)
In flight 1 AC only left side works.

152
Q

When is the earliest my A/I valves will open when I select A/I OFF in the TO DATASET?

A

10000 ft or 10 minutes after takeoff, whichever occurs first - 1 minute test runs. Else the anti-ice valves will rely on ice detection above 1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff.

153
Q

When is the earliest my A/I valves will open when I select A/I ENG in the TO DATASET?

A

After engine start, EAI is on. The anti-ice valves will rely on ice
detection above 1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff.

154
Q

When is the earliest my A/I valves will open when I select A/I ALL in the TO DATASET?

A

After engine start EAI is on. WAI on when wheel speed above 40 kts. The anti-ice valves will rely on ice
detection above 1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff.

155
Q

There are three primary colors of needles on the HSI (plus preview needles). What do the different colors mean?

A

Green - onside V/L NAV.
Magenta - FMS.
Amber - xside NAV/FMS.

156
Q

The primary source of navigation is FMS. What does that mean?

A

…whatcha mean? lol

157
Q

What purpose does the IRS serve? How long does it take to align? Can it align in flight?

A

…up to 17 min…dependent on latitude…

158
Q

What sources of navigation do I have available in the event of an electrical emergency?

A

wanna say FMS2 because mcdu2 works….so IRS1?…the others are: com1, nav1, ccd1

159
Q

We have two types of fire extinguishers. What are they? On which classes of fires (A, B, C) can each be used?

A

Ash Boil Charge….
Halon, and Water?
Halon ABC
Water is only A

160
Q

How do you know if the flashlight is sufficiently charged?

A

LED Flashing (non-CPZ…)

161
Q

How do you know the PBE is airworthy?

A

PBE blue indicator, valid date. If it’s blue take to the sky, if it’s pink you may die.

162
Q

Upon activation, how long will the PBE provide oxygen?

A

15 min

163
Q

Green oxygen quantity on the status page guarantees that three crewmembers have __ minutes of total oxygen divided up into __ minutes at 100% plus ___ minutes in NORM.

A

After loss of cabin pressure, sufficient oxygen is provided for all cockpit
members to permit emergency descent from 41000 ft to 10000 ft in
22 min with mask regulator on 100% mode and continuing cruise at
10000 ft for 98 min with mask regulator on NORMAL mode.

164
Q

In the event you inadvertently deploy the emergency escape slide, what should you do other than hope you can keep your job? (That was a joke)

A

Call maintenance…

165
Q

On DC power only, what is required to start the APU?

A

BATT 1 is the brains for FADEC ON/OFF…must be on.

166
Q

At what speed does the TAS, TAT, and SAT information become valid and accurate?

A

60 KIAS

175 (9 decks)

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