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Annual > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

GEAR: What things occur when you gravity extend the gear?

A

(1) GREEN HYD pressure is removed
(2) Gear doors are opened
(3) Uplocks are unlocked

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2
Q

HYD: Name some BLUE users.

A

(1) Slats

(2) EMER GEN

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3
Q

HYD: Name some GREEN users.

A

(1) Slats and flaps
(2) Landing gear
(3) Normal brakes
(4) ENG 1 REV

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4
Q

HYD: Name some YELLOW users.

A

(1) Flaps
(2) Nosewheel steering
(3) Alternate brakes
(4) ENG 2 REV

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5
Q

HYD: Pump fault lt

A

(1) Pump low pressure
(2) Reservoir low pressure
(3) Reservoir over temperature
(4) Reservoir low quantity

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6
Q

HYD: When is the PTU inhibited?

A

On the ground with the engine masters split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake on. 40 seconds after the cargo door is operated.

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7
Q

INT LTS: What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A

(1) CA instrument panel
(2) FO dome light
(3) Standby compass

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8
Q

OXY: How long do the COGs last?

A

Approx. 15 mins.

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9
Q

OXY: What causes the automatic deployment of the passenger masks?

A

Cabin altitude above approx. 14,000 ft.

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10
Q

RCDR: GND CTL auto logic

A

On for 5 minutes after electrical power is supplied. On while at least 1 engine is running. On while in-flight. Stays on for 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down.

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11
Q

SIGNS: What lights illuminate when normal electrical power is lost?

A

(1) Floor proximity escape path markings

(2) Overhead emergency lighting

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12
Q

SIGNS: What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is ON?

A

(1) Floor proximity escape path markings
(2) Overhead emergency lighting
(3) EXIT lights

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13
Q

SIGNS: When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?

A

(1) When normal AC power is lost and the EMER EXIT LT switch is in ARM
(2) DC ESS SHED bus is not powered
(3) Cabin altitude is above 11,300 ft

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14
Q

VENT: BLOWER fault lt

A

Low blower pressure. Computer power supply failure. Smoke warning. Duct overheat.

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15
Q

VENT: EXTRACT fault lt

A

Low extract pressure. Computer power supply failure. Smoke warning.

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16
Q

ENG: When is the FADEC self powered?

A

When N2 is above 10%.

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17
Q

A/THR: When is A. FLOOR inhibited on the NEOs?

A

Above M.60

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18
Q

AIR COND: APU BLEED fault lt

A

APU bleed leak

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19
Q

AIR COND: BLEED fault lt

A

(1) Overpressure
(2) Overheat
(3) Wing or engine leak
(4) Valve not closed during engine start
(5) Valve not closed with APU BLEED ON

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20
Q

AIR COND: HOT AIR fault lt

A

Duct overheat.

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21
Q

AIR COND: HOT AIR fault system behavior

A

Trim air valves close. PACK 1 controls temp to cockpit at the last selected value. PACK 2 controls temp to cabin at the average of the FWD and AFT temp selectors.

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22
Q

AIR COND: PACK fault lt

A

(1) Low air pressure
(2) Compressor outlet overheat
(3) Pack outlet overheat

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23
Q

ANTI ICE: ENG fault lt

A

Valve disagreement with the pb position.

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24
Q

ANTI ICE: WING fault lt

A

Valve disagreement with the pb position. Low pressure.

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25
Q

ANTI ICE: What happens when you press the WING anti ice pb on the ground?

A

30 sec. self test and then shuts off until airborne.

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26
Q

ANTI ICE: What is the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT logic?

A

On ground, when an engine is running, it is at low power. In the air it is at high power.

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27
Q

BRK: What causes MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a rejected takeoff?

A

Airspeed above 72 kts and thrust levers at idle and ground spoilers extended.

28
Q

BRK: What is the parking brake EPR limitation?

A

1.15 EPR

29
Q

CABIN PRESS: MODE SEL fault lt

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.

30
Q

CABIN PRESS: What does the DITCHING pb to ON do?

A

Closes the outflow valve, RAM AIR inlet, avionics inlet and avionics outlet, pack flow control valves.

31
Q

ECAM Control Panel: What buttons are hardwired?

A

CLR. RCL. STS. EMER CANC. ALL.

32
Q

ELEC: APU GEN fault lt

A

Line contactor open.

33
Q

ELEC: BAT fault lt

A

Battery charging outside limits and then the battery line contactor opens.

34
Q

ELEC: GALLEY fault lt

A

At least 1 GEN is above 100% output.

35
Q

ELEC: GEN fault lt

A

Line contactor open. Fault detected by GCU.

36
Q

ELEC: How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor.

37
Q

ELEC: When are the BATs connected to the BATTERY BUS?

A

Battery charging. APU start. AC BUS 1 & 2 is not powered and airspeed is less than 100 kt.

38
Q

EMER ELEC PWR: What buses are powered by the emergency electrical generator?

A

AC ESS and AC ESS SHED. DC ESS and DC ESS SHED.

39
Q

ENG: When do you get approach idle on a NEO?

A

CONF 3 or CONF FULL or when the gear is down.

40
Q

F/CTL: How does pitch behave in ALT LAW?

A

Same as normal law. Load factor demand.

41
Q

F/CTL: How does roll behave in ALT LAW?

A

Roll direct.

42
Q

F/CTL: How does yaw behave in ALT LAW?

A

Loss of turn coordination.

43
Q

FIRE: What happens when the ENG FIRE pb is pushed?

A

(1) Silences the aural warning
(2) Arms the squibs
(3) Closes the hydraulic fire valve
(4) Closes the LP fuel valve
(5) Deactivates the IDG
(6) Closes the pack flow control valve
(7) Closes the engine bleed valve
(8) Deactivates the FADEC

44
Q

FIRE: Where are the engine fire loops installed?

A

Pylon nacelle, core and fan.

45
Q

FUEL: Approx total fuel capacity.

A

42,000 lbs.

46
Q

FUEL: FUEL tank pump fault lt

A

Low delivery pressure.

47
Q

FUEL: MODE SEL fault lt

A

AUTO mode failed. Center tank has more than 550 lbs. and either wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs.

48
Q

FUEL: Outer tank capacity

A

1,560 lbs.

49
Q

FUEL: What happens when center tank feeding and IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks?

A

Center tanks stop feeding until wing tank is reduced by 1,100 lbs.

50
Q

FUEL: When does outer tank fuel transfer to the inner tanks?

A

When the inner tank quantity is 1,650 lbs.

51
Q

EMER ELEC PWR: RAT and EMER GEN FAULT lt

A

AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power. It would normally be on during the 8 second transit time.

52
Q

ELEC: What happens when you select GEN 1 LINE to OFF?

A

GEN 1 line contactor opens. AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactors. GEN 1 powers one fuel pump in each wing tank.

53
Q

ADIRS: Flashing white ALIGN light

A

(1) PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of a full alignment or within 3 minutes of a fast alignment
(2) Large different between shutdown position and entered position
(3) Aircraft movement during alignment

54
Q

ELEC: Acceptable BAT voltage

A

25.6 V

55
Q

ENG: APPR IDLE (CEO)

A

(1) Aircraft in flight

(2) Flap lever not in zero position

56
Q

ENG: APPR IDLE (NEO)

A

(1) Aircraft in flight
(2) Flaps CONF 3 or FULL

Or

(1) Aircraft in flight
(2) LDG GEAR DOWN

57
Q

FLAPS: How does the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) work?

A

During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) automatically retract to 0 at 210 kts.

58
Q

SPEED BRAKES: When are speed brakes inhibited?

A

(1) AOA protection is active
(2) A. FLOOR is active
(3) Thrust levers above MCT
(4) CONF FULL (A319/320)
(5) CONF 3 and CONF FULL (A321)

59
Q

Describe ADIRU life while running on batteries only.

A

(1) ADIRU 1 will run until the battery is depleted
(2) ADIRU 2 will drop off after 5 minutes
(3) ADIRU 3 will drop off after 5 minutes

60
Q

Why does GEN 1 LINE OFF run one fuel pump in each wing tank?

A

To provide enough pressure to eliminate air bubbles in the fuel and avoid pump cavitation.

61
Q

Continuous Ignition (IAE)

A

(1) ENG ANTI ICE pb ON
(2) Max TO thrust selected
(3) FLEX TO thrust selected
(4) EIU data failed
(5) Approach idle selected
(6) Inflight unscheduled sub idle or surge
(7) Master level cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON

62
Q

Continuous Ignition (NEO)

A

(1) Engine flame-out detected
(2) Surge detected
(3) Thrust control malfunction detected
(4) Ignition delay during start

63
Q

FAC functions

A

(1) Yaw
-Yaw damping
-Turn coordination
-Rudder trim
-Rudder travel limiter
(2) Flight Envelope
-PFD min/max speed
-Manuevering speed
-Alpha-floor
(3) Low-Energy Aural Alert
(4) WINDSHEAR Detection

64
Q

What information does the ADR provide?

A

(1) Barometric altitude
(2) Airspeed
(3) Mach
(4) Overspeed warnings
(5) Temperature
(6) Angle of attack

65
Q

What information does the IR provide?

A

(1) Attitude
(2) Flight Path Vector
(3) Heading
(4) Track
(5) Acceleration
(6) Angular rates
(7) Groundspeed
(8) Aircraft position

66
Q

APU: Max altitude for starting, 1 generator lost

A

FL 410

67
Q

APU: Max altitude for starting, EMER ELEC CONFIG

A

FL 250

Annual (6 decks)

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