Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

define

Crohn’s disease -

A

a chronic, segmental inflammation that affects the entire thickness of the wall and potentially every segment of the gastrointestinal tract (that is, from the mouth to the anus).

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2
Q

Crohn’s disease

Symptoms:

A

diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, weakness, perianal changes, anal fissures, abscesses, fistulas, tumors in the abdomen, leukocytosis

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3
Q

Crohn’s disease

Complications:

A

ileus, internal and external fistulas (especially perianal ) interloop abscesses, peritonitis, bleeding

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4
Q

Crohn’s disease

Diagnosis:

A

barium enema (rectal infusion) revealing “rose thorn” or “collar button” appearance
USG, MR
colonoscopy - ulcers, ecchymosis, “cobblestone” appearance
capsule endoscopy

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5
Q

Crohn’s disease

Treatment: conservative:

A

conservative: high-protein diet with the appropriate amount of vitamins and electrolytes, smoking cessation, pharmacological treatment (GCS, sulfasalazine, antibiotics, antidiarrheals, immunosuppressive, biological agents)

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6
Q

Crohn’s disease

Treatment: surgical:

A

surgical:
-small intestine disease - conservative resection or intraoperative dilation of small intestinal stenoses

-right or left half of the colon - hemicolectomy

-more extensive changes in the colon - colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis or proctocolectomy with permanent ileostomy

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7
Q

Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG)

A

is an endoscopic medical procedure in which a tube (PEG tube) is passed into a patient’s stomach through the abdominal wall, most commonly to provide a means of feeding when oral intake is not adequate (for example, because of dysphagia or sedation).
This provides enteral nutrition (making use of the natural digestion process of the gastrointestinal tract) despite bypassing the mouth; enteral nutrition is generally preferable to parenteral nutrition (which is only used when the GI tract must be avoided).
The PEG procedure is an alternative to open surgical gastrostomy insertion, and does not require a general anesthetic; mild sedation is typically used.
PEG tubes may also be extended into the small intestine by passing a jejunal extension tube (PEG-J tube) through the PEG tube and into the jejunum via the pylorus

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8
Q

The most common malignant tumor is stomach is

A

adenocarcinoma

  1. reduction in the incidence of peripherally localized stomach cancer
  2. increase in the incidence of cancer of the proximal part and cardia.
  3. dissemination of metastases most often via* lymphatic vessels*
  4. Most often, it is diagnosed at the stage, in which it is not possible to perform an operation leading to cure
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9
Q

Which should you suspect in a female patient complaining of cyclic regular hypogastric pain occurring for a longer time and rectal bleeding that accompanies menstruation?

A

endometriosis extragenitalis

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10
Q

Endometriosis -

A

the occurrence of the endometrium (glandular cells and stroma) outside the uterine cavity.

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11
Q

Symptoms:

A

limitation of fertility
pelvic pain syndrome, tenderness during examination, and palpable nodules in the projection of the uterine ligaments
dysmenorrhea (pain begns several days before the onset of menstruation)
dyspareunia
enlarged tender, weakly mobile appendages

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12
Q

Treatment:

Surgical:

A

removal of isolated foci
removal of endometrial cysts
removal of the entire ovary
removal of the entire uterus with appendages

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13
Q

pharmacological:

Hormone therapy:
Pain relievers:

A

Hormone therapy:

Gonadoliberin analogues
progesterone preparations
estrogen-progesterone preparations
IUD with levonorgestrol
aromatase inhibitors
selective progesterone receptor modulators (SPRMs)

Pain relievers:
NSAIDs

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14
Q

obstructive jaundice = ___ = ___

A

obstructive jaundice = post-hepatic jaundice = cholestasis

-is a result of impaired physiological flow of bile
-dominant symptoms: conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, pruritus of the skin
-if it is caused by an acute disease (e.g. biliary obstruction caused by a gallstone),
-symptoms of biliary colic appear (sudden, severe pain in the right hypochondrium, radiating to the shoulder blade or the shoulder, accompanied by flatulence, nausea, vomiting)
-dark urine and pale stool

Causes:
primary cholangiocarcinoma.
PSC
inflammation of the extrahepatic bile ducts
pancreatic head cancer
choledocholithiasis - deposits in the bile ducts

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15
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A

is an acute inflammation of the gland associated with damage to the follicular cells of the pancreas, as a result of which active proteolytic enzymes enter the connective tissue stroma, causing a local inflammatory reaction.

In 15-20% of patients, the inflammatory process leads to the formation of necrotic and / or abscesses, which results in severe, necrotizing pancreatitis.

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16
Q

Causes of Acute Pancreatitis (“I get smashed”):

A

I - Idiopathic ACS

G - Gallstones, urolithiasis

E - Ethanol, alcohol abuse

T - Trauma, injuries of the abdominal cavity

S - Steroids, glucocorticoid abuse

M - Mumps, viral infections (mumps, AIDS)

A - Autoimmune, autoimmune

S - Scorpion, scorpion venom

H - Hyperlipidemia, Hypercalcemia

E - ERCP, iatrogenic

D - Drugs, drug abuse - ACEI, GKS, azathioprine, erythromycin, anti-epileptic

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17
Q

Symptoms: of Acute Pancreatitis

A

Symptoms:

strong, continuous, rapidly increasing, girdling pain, located in the epigastrium, often radiating to the back, sometimes also to the chest and abdomen, increasing in standing position,
nausea and vomiting
flatulence
fever,
yellowing of the proteins,
in severe acute pancreatitis, tachycardia, hypotonia, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, confusion, impaired consciousness, intestinal paralytic obstruction may develop, DIC may develop.

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18
Q

What is ERCP?

A

**Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, or ERCP,
-is a procedure to diagnose and treat problems in the liver, gallbladder, bile ducts, and pancreas.
-It combines X-ray and the use of an endoscope—a long, flexible, lighted tube.

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19
Q

What is decompensated diabetes?

A

presence of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) or hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS).

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20
Q

What are three signs of diabetic ketoacidosis?

A

DKA Signs and Symptoms
Fast, deep breathing.
Dry skin and mouth.
Flushed face.
Fruity-smelling breath.
Headache.
Muscle stiffness or aches.
Being very tired.
Nausea and vomiting.

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21
Q

Indicate tests that should be ordered before the abdominal puncture in a patient with hepatic cirrhosis:

A
  1. Ultrasound - to assess the amount of free fluid in the abdominal cavity and determine the site of puncture
  2. **complete blood count **- to assess the number of platelets, hemoglobin concentration
  3. coagulogram - to rule out possible coagulation disorders that may cause bleeding after the examination
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22
Q

What happens in abdominal compartment syndrome?

A

In abdominal compartment syndrome, the displacement of the diaphragm cephalad leads to compression of the thorax, which causes an increase in work of breathing, ventilation/perfusion inequality, and increases in both peak and plateau pressures.

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23
Q

What organs are commonly affected in abdominal compartment syndrome?

A

-Abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) and intra-abdominal hypertension (IAH) are increasingly recognized as potential complications in intensive care unit (ICU) patients.
-ACS and IAH affect all body systems, most notably the cardiac, respiratory, renal, and neurologic systems

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24
Q

What causes abdominal compartment syndrome 1?

A

Extensive surgery in your abdomen.
Infection in your abdomen.
Intestinal obstruction (blockage).
Large amount of IV fluids (called fluid resuscitation), often required for surgery or sepsis.
Major burns.
Massive blood transfusion.
Pancreatitis.

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25
Q

What causes compartment syndrome in the abdomen 2…explain ?

A

Abdominal compartment syndrome is most commonly due to excessive fluid resuscitation (>5 L in 24 hours) or massive blood transfusion (>10 units in 24 hours). Clinical signs are nonspecific and appear late. Classic findings are of increased airway pressure, decreased urine output, and a tense abdomen.

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26
Q

Abdominal Compartment Syndrome (ACS)
define :

A
  • is defined as an abdominal pressure exceeding 20 mm Hg, with a decrease in abdominal perfusion pressure and failure of at least one organ.
  • The abdominal compartment syndrome is caused by: progressive ascites, swelling of the intestinal wall, bleeding into the peritoneal cavity or distension of the intestinal loop with gas.
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27
Q

What type of intracranial haemorrhage is associated with damage to the middle meningeal artery?

A

Epidural Hematoma

The most common vessel damaged is the middle meningeal artery underlying the temporoparietal region of the skull.

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28
Q

A subdural hematoma is a

A

venous (sternal vein) hemorrhage.

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29
Q

Epidural hematoma occurs as a result of

A

damage to the middle meningeal artery.

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30
Q

Epidural hematoma:
definition:

A

Definition: a non-physiological accumulation of blood between the skull bones and the dura mater.

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31
Q

Epidural hematoma:
Pathomechanism & Sequence of events

A

*Pathomechanism: *
damage to the middle meningeal artery, most often due to trauma.

Sequence of events: trauma => loss of consciousness => bright break (regaining consciousness) => hematoma enlargement => relapse of neurological symptoms (paresis of one half of the body and dilatation of one pupil, lack of its response to light) => increase in ICP => Cushing’s reflex ( increase in blood pressure and bradycardia) => death

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32
Q

Epidural hematoma:
TX

A

*Treatment: *
surgical, as soon as possible after diagnosis.

-It consists in removing part of the skull bone, removing the hematoma, finding a bleeding vessel and stopping the bleeding.

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33
Q

Subdural hematoma:
Define

A

Definition: Pathological accumulation of blood between the dura mater and the spider dura usually results from a severe head injury. It is the most common type of traumatic CNS pathology.

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34
Q

Pathomechanism of Subdural hematoma:

A

Pathomechanism:
it is a consequence of tearing of the bridging veins traversing from the brain to the draining dural-venous sinuses, less often - a consequence of arterial bleeding.
-It is accompanied by damage and swelling of the underlying brain tissue.

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35
Q

Symptoms: of Subdural hematoma:

A

*Symptoms:
*loss of consciousness without momentary returns of consciousness, mass effect - brain tissue shift resulting in hemiparesis and pupil dilation
Mortality: 60-100%.

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36
Q

Short bowel syndrome

A
  • a condition in which the function of the small intestine is suddenly shut down due to a disease causing damage to it or the surgical removal of all or part of the intestine.

Short bowel syndrome severely impairs the absorption of nutrients and water.

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37
Q

The most common causes of short bowel syndrome are:

A
  1. intestinal necrosis of vascular origin (embolism, arterial or venous thrombosis),
    2 extensive resections of the small intestine (Crohn’s disease, cancer, trauma and others),
  2. severe malabsorption disorders (e.g. radiation enteritis or refractory celiac disease) resulting in functional short bowel syndrome,
  3. fistulas (external - causing food loss, and internal - causing food to bypass part of the small intestine).
    It occurs in adults with an active small intestine <150-200 cm, but after a few years the organism may adapt.
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38
Q

*Mitotane *
define:

A

is a steroidogenesis inhibitor and cytostatic antineoplastic medication which is used in the treatment of adrenocortical carcinoma and Cushing’s syndrome.

is used to treat some types of cancer in the adrenal glands. This medicine acts on a part of the body called the adrenal cortex. Mitotane reduces the amount of steroids (cortisone-like hormones) that are produced by the adrenal cortex.

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39
Q

Acute diverticulitis is the most common complication of ?

A

is the most common complication of colon diverticula (5%). It begins in a single diverticulum, then quickly spreads along the colon, leading quite often to microperforation with the symptoms of local peritonitis.

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40
Q

Symptoms: of Acute diverticulitis

A

fever,
pain in the left iliac region,
leukocytosis,
palpable tumor,
abdominal guarding,
Blumberg’s sign in the lower left quadrant of the abdomen.

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41
Q

TX of Acute diverticulitis

A
  • most commonly used drugs are *ciprofloxacin *and / or metronidazole at standard doses, or 3rd generation cephalosporin or aminoglycoside in combination with metronidazole.

Prevention of relapse:

compliance with a high-fiber diet,
avoiding the use of NSAIDs other than ASA.

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42
Q

Regional anesthesia (conduction)

A

is a temporary blockade of pain transmission, used mainly during surgical procedures.

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43
Q

We distinguish between following types of anesthesia:

A
  1. topical (application of the drug to the surface of mucous membranes, used in dentistry and endoscopic procedures),
  2. infiltrative (lidocaine injection of the operating site during small surgical procedures),
  3. peripheral nerve block ( nerve plexus block ),
  4. epidural (administration of the drug to the epidural space),
  5. spinal (subarachnoid block) (administration of the drug into the subarachnoid space),
  6. intravenous regional anesthesia (administration of the drug to a vein located distally from an applied pneumatic tourniquet, useful in fractures of the upper limb bones and hand surgery).
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44
Q

External hernias:

A

inguinal,
femoral,
umbilical,
parastomal,
lumbar.

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45
Q

Internal hernias:

A

diaphragmatic hernia
pericecal hernia,
paraduodenal hernia,
hernia of greater omentum.

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46
Q

We calculate the surface of burns according to the rule of nines :

head
each of the upper limbs
each of the lower limbs
anterior torso
posterior torso
crotch

A

We calculate the surface of burns according to the rule of nines :

head 9%,
each of the upper limbs 9%,
each of the lower limbs 18%,
anterior torso 18%,
posterior torso 18%,
crotch 1%.

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47
Q

A 30-year-old woman, weighing 60 kg, was referred to the ER with III degree burnings of the left upper extremity, left lower extremity and of the groin. What volume of fluids should be administered within 24 hours?

A

In this case, the surface of the burn is: left lower limb 18% + left upper limb 9% + crotch 1% = 28%.

In order to calculate the volume of fluids, we use the Parkland formula : 4ml / kg body weight /% of the body surface area affected by burns . 4 ml x 60 kg x 28% = 6720 ml, i.e. about 7 liters , of which 50% should be administered in the first 8 hours and the remaining 50% -in the next 16 hours.

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48
Q

Depth of burns: Grade 1-4 describe

A

grade I - erythema, involves only the epidermis.
Stage IIa - blister, involves the epidermis and a part of the dermis.
Stage IIb - superficial necrosis, includes epidermis and the whole dermis.
Grade III - deep necrosis, involves the entire skin.
Grade IV - necrosis or charring of deeper tissues.

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49
Q

Complications of enteral nutrition:

A
  1. functional (vomiting, diarrhea),
  2. mechanical (wounds, food in the airways),
  3. metabolic (overhydration, hyperlipidemia).
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50
Q

Ogilvie syndrome

A
  • acute dilatation of the colon in the absence of any mechanical obstruction in severely ill patients.

-Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction is characterized by massive dilatation of the cecum (diameter > 10 cm) and right colon on abdominal X-ray.
-It is a type of megacolon, sometimes referred to as “acute megacolon,” to distinguish it from toxic megacolon.
(acute pseudo-obstruction of the large intestine) - a specific form of paralytic bowel obstruction, consisting of significant dilatation of the right colon.

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51
Q

A 65-year-old patient 10 years after aorto-aortic prosthesis because of ruptured aortic aneurysm. For the last 3 months periodical fever. Today admitted to the ER with the symptoms of heavy upper gastrointestinal bleeding. On CT features of inflammatory infiltration around the prosthesis with gas vesicles. You should first suspect in this patient:

A

The aorto-duodenal fistula is the most common form of fistula between the aorta and the gastrointestinal tract. It is formed as a result of a connection of duodenum lumen with the site of anastomosis between the aortic prosthesis and the aorta, which is usually accompanied by massive gastrointestinal haemorrhage .

Moreover, inflammation is often observed there. Such a fistula can be formed after a long time from the treatment of abdominal aortic aneurysm.

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52
Q

The aorto-duodenal fistula
Additional symptoms:

A

increased parameters of inflammation,
fever,
shock.
Abdominal ultrasound and computed tomography may reveal pseudoaneurysm in the area of the vascular prosthesis and inflammatory infiltration, often caused by staphylococci.

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53
Q

Procedure:
The aorto-duodenal fistula

A

Removal of the infected vascular prosthesis as soon as possible.
Restoration of proper blood circulation - reconstruction of vessels.
Restoration of the continuity of digestive tract.

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54
Q

The following symptoms, such as rapid and irregular breathing, extension of the limbs in reaction to external stimuli, bilateral Babinski sign, impaired pupil reaction to light, increased blood pressure, pulse acceleration and increased sweating indicate the contusion of:

A

brainstem contusion

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55
Q

Define

brainstem contusion

A

Cerebral contusion is a type of brain damage inflicted in the course of head trauma, usually complicated by a severe disturbance of its function.

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56
Q

Cerebral contusion
Pathogenesis:

A

Pathogenesis: the intracranial pressure increases on the site of impact, while the negative pressure occurs on the opposite side - therefore we can expect injuries on both sides ( contrecoup injury ).
Local swelling develops , small petechiae appear, especially visible in the frontal and temporal lobes.

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57
Q

Cerebral contusion
Symptoms:

A

*Symptoms: *immediately after an injury, the symptoms may resemble concussion, but sometimes the patient loses consciousness only a few hours after the event. Possible neurological disturbances:

sensory disturbances,
hemiparesis (contusion of the frontal lobe) ,
facial muscle paralysis,
homonymous hemianopsia (contusion of the occipital lobe) ,
aphasia (contusion of the temporal or frontal lobe) ,
gait impairment and nystagmus (contusion of the cerebellum),
accelerated pulse, high blood pressure, breathing disturbances (brainstem contusion).

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58
Q

Cerebral contusion
Diagnosis :

A

Diagnosis:
computed tomography (oedema and petechial haemorrhages).

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59
Q

Cerebral contusion
Treatment:

A

Treatment:
symptomatic, in some cases decompressive craniectomy.

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60
Q

Whipple’s triad

A
  • collection of three signs (called Whipple’s criteria)
    -symptoms result from hypoglycaemia that may indicate insulinoma.
  • symptoms of hypoglycaemia, low blood plasma glucose concentration
  • and relief of symptoms when plasma glucose concentration is increased.
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61
Q

insulinoma

A

-is a tumour of the pancreas that is derived from beta cells and secretes insulin.
-It is a rare form of a neuroendocrine tumour.
-Most insulinomas are benign in that they grow exclusively at their origin within the pancreas, but a minority metastasize.
-Insulinomas are one of the functional pancreatic neuroendocrine tumour (PNET) group (“functional” because it increases production of insulin).
-In the Medical Subject Headings classification, insulinoma is the only subtype of “islet cell adenoma”

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62
Q

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

is the occurrence of hypercalcemia as a result of autonomous excessive secretion of PTH in patients with secondary hyperparathyroidism.

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63
Q

Acute cholangitis -

A

-it is a segmental or diffuse acute inflammation of the bile ducts caused by infection due to partial or complete obstruction of the outflow of bile.
-The etiological factor is most often Escherichia coli .

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64
Q

Risk factors: of
Acute cholangitis

A

Risk factors:

cholelithiasis,
tumors that hinder the outflow of bile,
post-inflammatory and iatrogenic obstruction of the bile ducts,
primary sclerosing cholangitis,
pressure on the bile ducts by the pancreatic cyst or enlarged lymph nodes.

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65
Q

Acute cholangitis
Symptoms (Charcot’s triad):

A

Symptoms (Charcot’s triad):

  1. severe biliary colic pain in the right hypochondrium or epigastric region,
  2. fever with chills,
  3. jaundice.
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66
Q

Reynolds’ pentad ?

A

Reynolds’ pentad = Charcot’s triad +

  1. symptoms of shock,
  2. disturbances of consciousness.
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67
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A
  • a syndrome resulting from a mutation in the APC gene, causing formation of polyps in the large intestine (usually above 100) and in the* stomach* and duodenum.

Patients with this genetic syndrome aged > 10 -12 require an annual follow-up colonoscopy and gastroduodenoscopy, because the risk of developing cancer around 35 years of age is almost 100%.

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68
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

Variations:

A

Variations:

Gardner syndrome (FAP and osteosarcoma, lesions in the retina and soft tissue cancers),
Turcot syndrome (FAP and CNS tumors).

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69
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
Treatment:

A

-usually a *prophylactic colectomy *or proctocolectomy is performed to form a small intestine reservoir in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life

-pharmacological treatment is considered as complementary.
- best effect can be achieved by using NSAIDs.
- The use of COX-2 inhibitors can be included after excluding the presence of factors that increase the risk of cardiac complications.

In case of a* rectum-saving surgery, a follow-up rectoscopy should be performed every 3-6 months on average .*

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70
Q

Total 15

Causes of liver transplantation in adults:

A
  1. hepatitis B
  2. hepatitis C
  3. primary biliary cholangitis
  4. poisoning (e.g. Amanita phalloides)
  5. car accidents that lead to detachment of the vascular bed of the organ with no possibility of surgical correction
  6. alcoholic liver cirrhosis
  7. cute liver failure
  8. liver cancer (mainly hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)) - hepatic transplantation is allowed in the case of HCC limited to the liver and meeting certain criteria (Milan criteria - a single cancer lesion with a diameter of up to 5 cm or up to 3 lesions with a diameter of up to 3 cm).
  9. primary sclerosing cholangitis
  10. metabolic diseases (Wilson’s disease, hemochromatosis, amyloidosis)
  11. autoimmune hepatitis
  12. Budd–Chiari syndrome
  13. secondary biliary cirrhosis
  14. polycystic liver disease
  15. cystic fibrosis
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71
Q

Thyroid cancer risk factors:

Papillary cancer:
exposure to ?

A

-exposure to ionizing radiation, especially if exposure occurred in childhood,

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72
Q

Thyroid cancer risk factors:

Follicular cancer:
resulting from ?

A

low availability of iodine in the environment.

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73
Q

Thyroid cancer risk factors:

Medullary cancer:

A

genetic factors (25% of cases due to activating germline mutation of the RET gene).

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74
Q

The most common type of thyroid cancer is

A

papillary carcinoma

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75
Q

Symptoms depend on the location of the cancer:

Right-sided colon cancer

A
  • progressive anemia and abdominal pain.
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76
Q

Symptoms depend on the location of the cancer:

Left-sided colon cancer

A
  • changes in bowel habits (diarrhea with a lot of mucus or constipation), blood in the stool.
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77
Q

Symptoms depend on the location of the cancer:

Rectal cancer

A
  • a tumor that can be palpable during digital rectal examination.
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78
Q

Lynch syndrome is a

A
  • often called* hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)*,
  • an inherited disorder that increases the risk of many types of cancer, particularly cancers of the colon (large intestine) and rectum, which are collectively referred to as colorectal cancer.
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79
Q

Name 2

-We distinguish two subtypes of Lynch syndrome:

A

Lynch I syndrome - cancer affects only the large intestine

*Lynch II syndrome *- colorectal cancer is accompanied by malignant tumors of the heart, ovary, stomach, small intestine, kidneys, ureters and less often skin, bile ducts and central nervous system

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80
Q

Features of colorectal cancer in the course of Lynch I syndrome:

A
  1. occurs at an early age (<50 years of age)
  2. it is more often located on the right side or it is multifocal
  3. has a lower tendency to metastasis
  4. it is usually poorly differentiated
  5. it is often resistant to chemotherapy
  6. In order to prevent colon cancer, it is recommended to perform partial or subtotal colectomy - the best solution seems to be almost complete excision of the large intestine - this reduces the risk of next tumor foci.
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81
Q

ampulla of Vater

A

small reservoir where common bile duct and pancreatic duct meet

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82
Q

Courvoisier’s sign

A
  • enlarged, painless and palpable gall bladder.
    • It occurs in *tumors located within the cystic duct *and common hepatic duct junction or within the common bile duct.
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83
Q

Pancreatic cancer is usually diagnosed as

A

-* adenocarcinoma*
- 65% of cases it is located in the head of the pancreas

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84
Q

**Pancreatic cancer is usually an adenocarcinoma
Radical Treatment :

A
  1. Whipple procedure - removal of the pancreatic head, gall bladder, common bile duct, duodenum and pyloric part of the stomach,
  2. Traverso procedure - as above but with pylorus saved
    3.* total* pancreatic resection,
  3. partial pancreatic resection.
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85
Q

total 5

Whipple procedure - removal of the
“PPCGD”

A

pancreatic head,
pyloric part of the stomach,
common bile duct,
gall bladder,
duodenum

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86
Q

Total 8

In an adult, pulse might be palpated on the following arteries:

A

internal carotid,
radial,
ulnar,
humeral,
femoral
popliteal,
dorsalis pedis,
posterior tibial.

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87
Q

Due to the location of the artery, the pulse will not be palpated on the .

A

common iliac artery

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88
Q

Abnormal pulse:

pulsus tardus et parvus

A
  • aortic stenosis
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89
Q

Abnormal pulse:

thready pulse

A

(shock)

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90
Q

Abnormal pulse:

hypokinetic pulse

A

(reduced left ventricular ejection volume, e.g. in heart failure),

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91
Q

Abnormal pulse:
large pulse

A

(aortic regurgitation),

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92
Q

Abnormal pulse:
pulsus alternans

A

(failure of the left ventricle)

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93
Q

Abnormal pulse:
pulsus paradoxus

A

(cardiac tamponade)

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94
Q

Abnormal pulse:
pulse deficit

A

(atrial fibrillation)

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95
Q

Abnormal pulse:
differences in pulse amplitude on symmetrical arteries

A

(aortic dissection, atherosclerotic narrowing of the arteries)

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96
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

A
  • this is a reduction or even disappearance of the pulse on inspiration , which is accompanied by a decrease in systolic blood pressure> 10 mm Hg.
  • The size of the pulsus paradoxus can be assessed using a sphygmomanometer - it is present when the first tone of Korotkow is heard only during exhalation.
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97
Q

Forrest classification of ulcer bleeding severity:

Ia -
Ib -
IIa -
IIb -
IIc -
III -

A

Ia - spurting arterial bleeding (active bleeding).
Ib - oozing bleeding
IIa - visible non-bleeding vessel (recent bleeding).
IIb - adherent clot
IIc - black spot in ulcer base
III - clean ulcer base (history of non-recent bleeding).

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98
Q

Forrest classification is used to assess

A
  • to assess bleeding during gastroduodenoscopy .
  • This is the basic diagnostic test for suspected bleeding to the upper gastrointestinal tract (above the Treitz ligament)
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99
Q

Treitz ligament

A

-The suspensory muscle of duodenum (also known as the ligament of Treitz)
-is a thin muscle connecting the junction between the duodenum and jejunum (the small intestine’s first and second parts, respectively), as well as the duodenojejunal flexure to connective tissue surrounding the superior mesenteric and coeliac arteries.
-The suspensory muscle most often connects to both the third and fourth parts of the duodenum, as well as the duodenojejunal flexure, although the attachment is quite variable.

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100
Q

7

Causes of bleeding to the upper gastrointestinal tract:

A
  1. ulcer of the duodenum and stomach,
  2. acute hemorrhagic gastritis
  3. esophageal and gastric varices,
  4. Mallory and Weiss syndrome, inflammation of the mucous membrane of the esophagus or duodenum,
  5. cancer,
  6. esophageal ulceration,
  7. vascular malformations.

Up to 80% of patients with GI tract bleeding are bleeding to its upper part.

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101
Q

Indications for exploratory laparotomy:

  1. peritoneal signs =
  2. air under the diaphragm revealed in chest X-ray =
  3. lack of peristalsis in auscultation test =
  4. unexplained patient deterioration and shock =
A
  1. peritoneal signs (peritonitis),
  2. air under the diaphragm revealed in chest X-ray (perforation of the gastrointestinal tract),
  3. lack of peristalsis in auscultation test (paralytic ileus),
  4. unexplained patient deterioration and shock (internal bleeding).
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102
Q

The ascending aorta is located within the chest. In the case of injuries of this area, the _____ procedure is performed urgently, however, most often the patient’s death occurs immediately.

A

thoracotomy procedure is performed urgently

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103
Q

In patients after multiple injuries to the body, the so-called ___ ___ is most commonly performed in order to minimize surgery time.
This procedure consists of three stages:

A

abbreviated laparotomy

3 stages:
1. Opening the abdominal cavity and controlling bleeding (ligating vessels, packing parenchymatous organs).
- In the situation of an open intestinal wound, a resection of a given intestinal segment is performed and the stumps are ligated without the final reconstruction of the continuity of the gastrointestinal tract.
- The abdominal cavity is closed with several temporary stitches.

  1. Shock treatment.
  2. Re-opening the abdominal cavity and performing a classic definitive operation.
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104
Q

Pringle’s maneuver

A
  • in abdominal surgery, a procedure involving temporary clamping of the hepatoduodenal ligament during surgery (using surgical forceps, tape or fingers), and** thus closing the underlying hepatic artery and portal vein in the ligament.**
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105
Q

Pringle’s Maneuver

The maneuver allows to reduce intraoperative blood loss during:

A

resection of liver parenchyma, e.g. due to cancer,
liver injuries,
bleeding from the cystic artery.

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106
Q

Treatment: in case of Liver damage

A
  1. In stable patients, conservative treatment may be used, however, frequent imaging of the abdominal cavity (CT) is important.
  2. Superficial liver damage can heal spontaneously .
  3. In the case of capsular rupture and damage to the liver parenchyma, laparoscopic drainage and peritoneal lavage prevents inflammation (blood and bile pass into the peritoneal cavity).
  4. Liver ruptures are *sutured with an ultrasonic or argon knife *.
  5. Extremely severe damage requires resection of the liver fragment.
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107
Q

The most common neuroendocrine pancreatic tumor is:

A
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108
Q

The most common neuroendocrine pancreatic tumor is:

A

**Insulinoma **(islet cell tumor)
-is the most common pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor that can occur in any age group, but most often affects adults.
-In most cases, it is benign (75%) and origins from pancreatic B-cells.

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109
Q

Insulinoma (islet cell tumor)
diagnosis:

A

Diagnosis: determination of the ratio of serum insulin to blood glucose level after starvation.

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110
Q

Insulinoma (islet cell tumor)
Treatment :

A

Treatment: surgical enucleation of the tumor or partial pancreatectomy.

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111
Q

Insulinoma (islet cell tumor)
Symptoms: also know as ?

A

Symptoms -** Whipple’s triad:**

  1. Impaired consciousness (memory disorders, periodic loss of consciousness, apathy).
  2. Hypoglycemia.
  3. Symptoms go away after carbohydrate administration (occur during fasting).
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112
Q

Most common causes of mechanical obstruction of the large intestines are?

A

Colon cancer
diverticulitis
sigmoid volvulus

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113
Q

6

Causes of small bowel obstruction:

A

postoperative adhesions,
incarceration of the abdominal hernia,
tumors or gallstones of considerable size,
intussusception,
foreign bodies,
inflammatory bowel diseases, e.g. Crohn’s disease.

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114
Q

5

Causes of large bowel obstruction:

A

volvulus,
neoplastic tumors,
diverticulitis,
fecal stones,
foreign bodies.

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115
Q

5

External hernias:
“PUFIL”

A

parastomal,
umbilical,
femoral,
inguinal,
lumbar.

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116
Q

Internal hernias:
“PPDO”

A

pericecal
paraduodenal
diaphragmatic
omental

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117
Q

Traditional treatment methods:
for Hernia

A

Bassini,
Halsted,
Shouldicev

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118
Q

Tension-free treatment methods - mesh treatments:
for hernia

A

Lichtenstein,
Rutkow,
PHS (prolen hernia system).

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119
Q

Meckel’s diverticulum?
It is a remnant of the ?

A
  • is a true diverticulum, i.e. it is *formed by all layers of the intestinal wall. *
  • It is a remnant of the fetal omphalomesenteric duct.
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120
Q

Meckel’s Diverticulum

Epidemiology:
Location:

A

Epidemiology: occurs in about 2% of the population (three times more often in men).

Location: final section of the ileum, about 60 cm from the iliocecal junction, at the iliocecal valve.

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121
Q

Structure of the diverticulum

A

Structure:
-the diverticulum is usually lined with the mucous membrane of the small intestine, but it can also contain the ectopic focus of the mucous membrane of the stomach, duodenum, pancreas.
-It is characterized by various length, usually 5-15 cm, although it can rarely reach up to 50 cm.

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122
Q

In the TNM classification of colorectal cancer, the “T” feature is as follows:

A

-Tis means infiltration of the mucous membrane,
-T1 is the infiltration of the submucosa,
-T2 means infiltration of the muscular membrane,
-T3 is infiltration of pericolon / perianal tissues,
-T4 means infiltration of other organs / structures or visceral peritoneum.

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123
Q

Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)

A
  • the ratio of the systolic pressure measured on the foot to the systolic pressure on the arm, patient lying on his back.
    -In normal conditions, the blood pressure is equal to or slightly higher within the ankle.
    -Values in the range of** 1.0 - 1.4 are the correct values** (borderline values are 0.9 - 1.0).

NOTE:
- value <0.9 indicates the presence of stenoses (in critical ischemia is usually <0.5) ,
- value> 1.4 indicates abnormal vascular stiffness (in diabetic patients, chronic kidney disease, in the elderly).

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124
Q

Chvostek’s sign

A
  • positive when facial muscles spasm after being tapped with a neurological hammer in the point located right in front of the earlobe.
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125
Q

Trousseau sign

A
  • is positive if “hand of the obstetrician” occurs,
  • i.e. hand muscle contractions are detected after maintaining the pressure cuff inflated for 20 mmHg higher than the systolic blood pressure for 3 minutes.
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126
Q

Erb’s sign

A
  • is based on increased motor nerve excitability
  • (e.g. facial nerve) to electrical stimulation (galvanic current)
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127
Q

Positive Chvostek, Trousseau and Erb’s signs suggest:

A

PTH deficiency (hypoparathyroidism)
These are symptoms that occur in hypocalcemia (low serum calcium <2.25 mmol/l).

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128
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia:

A
  1. insufficient dietary calcium intake
  2. impaired calcium absorption (malabsorption syndromes)
  3. excessive deposition of calcium in the bones (taking bisphosphonates, acute pancreatitis)
  4. excessive loss of calcium in the urine (taking loop diuretics)
  5. Vitamin D deficiency (celiac disease, chronic kidney disease)
  6. PTH deficiency (hypoparathyroidism)(choice E)
  7. tissue resistance to PTH (pseudohypoparathyroidism)v
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129
Q

It should be remembered to remove the margin within healthy tissues (the large intestine is partially retroperitoneal ).
In rectal cancer, ____shall also be removed, meaning the tissues surrounding the rectum together with what ?

A

-mesorectum
-rectum together with the fascial sheath.

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130
Q

Right-sided hemicolectomy
includes ?

A

caecum tumor ,
ascending colon,
1/3 of the transverse colon
and the final section of the small intestine),

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131
Q

left-sided hemicolectomy
includes ?

A

descending colon tumor,
1/3 of the transverse colon

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132
Q

GIST - gastrointestinal stromal tumors

A

-derived from mesenchymal cells most likely from Cajal “pacemaker” cells of the gastrointestinal tract.
-These are the cells that automatically cause the intestinal muscle to contract, initiating peristalsis.

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133
Q

Tumors:

epithelial -
mesenchymal -
lymphoid tissue and hematopoietic system -
from the primary germ cell -

A

epithelial - cancers
mesenchymal - sarcomas
lymphoid tissue and hematopoietic system - lymphomas and leukemias
from the primary germ cell - germ cell tumors

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134
Q

gastrointestinal stromal tumors

GIST can occur in

A

-in the stomach (40-70%) (answer B)
-small intestine (20-50%)
-in the large intestine (approx. 5%) and esophagus (<5%)

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135
Q

A patient is referred to the surgical outpatient clinic because of two tumours: one in the right adrenal gland with the diameter of 4.8 cm and the other in the left adrenal gland with the diameter of 2.1 cm (described as probable adenoma in CT). Laboratory tests excluded hormonal activity of the tumours. Which of the following is the management of choice in this patient?

A
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136
Q

A patient is referred to the surgical outpatient clinic because of two tumours: one in the right adrenal gland with the diameter of 4.8 cm and the other in the left adrenal gland with the diameter of 2.1 cm (described as probable adenoma in CT). Laboratory tests excluded hormonal activity of the tumours. Which of the following is the management of choice in this patient?

A

laparoscopic “Right adrenalectomy”

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137
Q

incidentaloma define:
Diagnostic tests to exclude?

A
  • as the name implies the tumor detected accidentally, during routine tests, not hormonally active, giving no symptoms.
  • If such a tumor is detected (most often during ultrasound or CT scan), a more detailed diagnostics should be performed:
  1. Hormonal teststo exclude
  2. Cushing’s syndrome
  3. Pheochromocytoma
  4. Conn syndrome - when hypertension or hypokalemia coexists
    hyperandrogenaemia

*Imaging tests *- CT (if not performed) or MR
A fine needle aspiration biopsy is performed only if there is a suspicion of a neoplastic metastasis to the adrenal glands with an unknown primary origin

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138
Q

Klatskin’s tumor is a

A

-cancer of the bile ducts located at the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts
-Klatskin tumor is a term given to “ Cholnagiocarcinoma”
-Cancer of the bile ducts most often occurs in the extrahepatic ducts and takes the form of adenocarcinoma.

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139
Q

Klatskin’s tumor is a cancer of the bile ducts

Symptoms:

A

-Mechanical jaundice - the first and most common symptom, it is not accompanied by fever or pain
-pain under the right costal arch at a later stage of the disease
-Courvoisier’s symptom (palpable, painless, enlarged gallbladder) if the tumor is located in the common bile duct

.

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140
Q

Klatskin’s tumor is a cancer of the bile ducts

Laboratory tests
Treatment

A

Laboratory tests showed** increased levels of bilirubin, CEA and CA 19-9.**

Treatment - radical, surgical removal of the tumor (5-year survival approx. 10%).

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141
Q

Pancreatic head cancer - symptoms:

A

-epigastric pain, often appearing at night,
-radiating to the left hypochondrium or to the thoracic spine of a “burning” or “pressing” nature.
-Changing the position of the body while tilting forward usually reduces the intensity of the pain.
-Mechanical jaundice and Courvoisier’s symptom (palpable through the integuments, enlarged, painless gallbladder) may be the first symptom of a tumor located in the head of the pancreas.
-Jaundice is caused by the tumor pressing or infiltrating the common bile duct.
-The risk of pancreatic cancer increases with age, and more than 80% of cases are diagnosed after the age of 50, therefore in a 68-year-old patient with painless jaundice, pancreatic head cancer should be ruled out first.

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142
Q

The most frequent localization of* arterial embolisms*:

A
  1. Femoral artery - 43%
  2. Iliac artery - 18%
  3. Aortic bifurcation - 15%
  4. Popliteal artery - 15% Typical symptoms are referred to as 5P:
    a. Pain
    b. Pulseless
    c. Paresthesis - disturbance of feeling, numbness
    d. Pallor - white skin color
    e. Paralysis - muscle weakness
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143
Q

Leriche Syndrome is

A
  • aortoiliac occlusive disease is a form of central artery disease involving the blockage of the abdominal aorta as it transitions into the common iliac arteries.
    -a type of chronic ischemia of the lower limbs in which there is narrowing of: - End/Distal segment of the abdominal aorta - Both Common Illiac Arteries - Both External Illiac Arteries
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144
Q

Hartmann’s procedure

A

-is a type of colectomy that removes part of the colon and sometimes rectum (proctosigmoidectomy).
-The remaining rectum is sealed, creating what is known as Hartmann’s pouch.
- The remaining colon is redirected to a colostomy.
- It can be reversed later.

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145
Q

Attention!

Mechanical obstruction most frequently (up to __%) concerns the___ intestine.
The most common causes of __ __ mechanical obstruction are postoperative _____, and for large intestine - __ __.

A
  • (80%) concerns the small intestine.
  • The most common causes of small intestinal mechanical obstruction are postoperative adhesions, and for large intestine - colorectal cancer.
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146
Q

The boundary between the upper and lower GI tract is the

A

Treitz ligament;
-therefore, the *lower GI refers to both the small and large intestine *
- which makes *adhesions of the small intestine the most common cause of obstruction! *

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147
Q

Intestinal obstruction

mechanical (obstacle in the gastrointestinal tract):

A

-80% refers to the small intestine
-occlusion most often concerns the large intestine - colorectal cancer
-bowel infarction most often concerns the small intestine postoperative adhesions (the most common cause), hernia incarceration, intestinal torsion, intussusception

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148
Q

Intestinal obstruction

paralytic (abnormal bowel function):

A

-caused by irritating effects of various factors on intestinal nerve plexuses (digestive juices, bacteria, after operations)
-reflex (bile and renal colic, spinal and pelvic fractures, injuries and tumors of the CNS, testicular, ovarian torsion)
-systemic complication (decompensated diabetes, uremia, water and electrolyte disturbances)

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149
Q

Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) formally known as?

A

_ also called Sudeck’s atrophy, Sudeck’s disease, Sudeck’s syndrome, algodystrophy, reflex neurovascular dystrophy, reflex sympathetic dystrophy, amplified musculoskeletal pain syndrome, shoulder-hand syndrome or causalgia.

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150
Q

Sudeck syndrome

A

-is a painful long-term swelling of periarticular tissues with impaired blood supply and atrophic changes in soft tissues and bones.
-It applies to the area of the wrist and ankles.
-The factor conducive to the development of the disease state is incorrectly and too tightly fitted dressing, which makes the limb immobilized in the wrong position.

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151
Q

A Monteggia fracture is an

A
  • isolated fracture of the proximal ulna associated with dislocation of the fragments and dislocation of the radial head.
  • A common complication is damage to the deep branch of the radial nerve,
  • the symptom of which is impaired straightening of all the fingers and the metacarpus.
  • the so-called hand drooping.
  • Surgical treatment is indicated.
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152
Q

Galeazzi-type fracture -

A

an isolated fracture of the shaft of the radial bone with dislocation of the fragments and dislocation of the ulna head

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153
Q

subluxation

A

partial or incomplete dislocation

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154
Q

Colles type fracture

A
  • fracture of the distal radius bone as a result of a fall on an extended limb during dorsiflexion of the wrist and forearm conversion
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155
Q

The most common cause of upper digestive tract bleeding is

A

duodenal ulcer disease.

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156
Q

7

The most common causes of lower digestive tract bleeding include:

A
  1. haemorrhoids - the most common cause of chronic bleeding
  2. colon polyps,
  3. diverticular disease,
  4. colorectal cancer,
  5. Meckel’s diverticulum,
  6. inflammatory bowel diseases - UC and Crohn’s disease,
  7. angiodysplasias.
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157
Q

Homans’ sign is a symptom found in

A
  • about 30% of patients with deep vein thrombosis within the lower leg.
    -It involves the induction of considerable pain within the calf and popliteal fossa during the dorsal flexion of the foot, while maintaining an upright knee.
    -This is due to painful inflammation in deep veins when tightening them.
    -The finding of this symptom confirms the diagnosis of deep veins thrombosis of the lower limbs.
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158
Q

A 68-year-old patient, previously in good health, who has not needed medical attention for the last year, is referred to the surgical outpatient clinic because of a yellowish shade of his skin observed for 7 days. The physical examination shows the enlarged nonpainful gallbladder. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

A

**Pancreatic head cancer **- symptoms: epigastric pain, often appearing at night, radiating to the left hypochondrium or to the thoracic spine of a “burning” or “pressing” nature.
-Changing the position of the body while tilting forward usually reduces the intensity of the pain.
-Mechanical jaundice and Courvoisier’s symptom (palpable through the integuments, enlarged, painless gallbladder) may be the first symptom of a tumor located in the head of the pancreas.
-Jaundice is caused by the tumor pressing or infiltrating the common bile duct.
-The risk of pancreatic cancer increases with age, and more than 80% of cases are diagnosed after the age of 50, therefore in a 68-year-old patient with painless jaundice, pancreatic head cancer should be ruled out first.

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159
Q

Appendicitis causes the occurrence of peritoneal signs, which include:

Jaworski’s sign

A
  • increasing pain while lowering the patient’s limb (characteristic for the retrocecal position of the appendix)
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160
Q

Appendicitis causes the occurrence of peritoneal signs, which include:

Rovsing’s sign

A
  • pain in the right iliac area while moving the hands along the colon antiperystically
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161
Q

Appendicitis causes the occurrence of peritoneal signs, which include:

3. Blumberg’s sign

A
  • haracterized by a lack or slightly increased pain during delicate pressure on abdomen, with a characteristic induction of acute, severe pain at the moment of rapid relief of pressure
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162
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum
rule of 2?

A

Meckel diverticulum occurs in:
-about 2% of the population,
-is about 2 inches in length,
-is usually located within 2 feet of the ileocecal valve,
-presents before 2 years of ag

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163
Q

Volkmann’s syndrome (Volkmann’s contracture):

A

-Supracondylar fractures are the most common elbow fracture in children, especially in the first decade of life.
-The peak age is from 5-8 years.
-The usual mechanism is a fall onto the outstretched hand with hyperextension at the elbow.

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164
Q

Porphyria

A

is a group of liver disorders in which substances called porphyrins build up in the body, negatively affecting the skin or nervous system.

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165
Q

The type of Porphyria that affect the nervous system is known as

A

acute porphyria, symptoms are rapid in onset and short in duration.
-Symptoms of an attack include abdominal pain, chest pain, vomiting, confusion, constipation, fever, high blood pressure, and high heart rate.
The attacks usually last for days to weeks.

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166
Q

Claudication

A

-is pain in the legs or arms that occurs while walking or using the arms.
-The pain is caused by too little blood flow to the legs or arms.
-Claudication is usually a symptom of peripheral artery disease, in which the arteries that supply blood to the arms or legs, usually the legs, are narrowed.

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167
Q

Classification by Fontaine:

A

I - asymptomatic
IIa - claudication > 200 m - mild claudication
IIb - claudication <200 m - moderate / severe claudication
III - rest pain
IV - ischemic necrosis and ulcers

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168
Q

The Whipple surgery modified by Traverso involves removal of:

A

pancreas head
duodenum
gallbladder
CBD

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169
Q

Ogilvie syndrome is

A
  • the acute dilatation of the colon in the absence of any mechanical obstruction in severely ill patients

-Acute colonic pseudo-obstruction is characterized by massive dilatation of the cecum (diameter > 10 cm) and right colon on abdominal X-ray.
-It is a type of megacolon, sometimes referred to as “acute megacolon,” to distinguish it from toxic megacolon.

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170
Q

Paresthesia

A
  • refers to a burning or prickling sensation that is usually felt in the hands, arms, legs, or feet, but can also occur in other parts of the body.
  • The sensation, which happens without warning, is usually painless and described as tingling or numbness, skin crawling, or itching.
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171
Q

Hinchey classification describes the complications of diverticulitis:

A

1A - phlegmon
1B - diverticulitis with para-colonic abscess
2 - diverticulitis with a limited pelvic abscess
3 - diverticulitis with diffuse purulent peritonitis
4 - diverticulitis with diffuse fecal peritonitis

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172
Q

Acute cholangitis:

definition

A
  • acute inflammation of the intra- and / or extra-hepatic biliary ducts caused by infection due to obstruction or blockage of the outflow of bile
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173
Q

symptoms:
Charcot’s triad:

A
  1. severe pain resembling biliary colic in the right hypochondrium or middle epigastrium area
  2. fever with chills
  3. jaundice

Note: I f there are signs of shock and disturbance of consciousness, then* this state is called the Reynolds pentad.*
pain during palpation in the right hypochondrium area
increased tension of the stomach muscles

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174
Q

The angle of His

A
  • also known as the esophagogastric angle, is the acute angle created between the cardia at the entrance to the stomach, and the esophagus.
  • It helps to prevent acid reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus.
  • It is commonly undeveloped in infants, making acid reflux more common.
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175
Q

A patient was admitted to the surgical ward in duty hours. The patient needs urgent surgery but he receives chronic anticoagulant therapy with vitamin K antagonist (VKA). Which of the following should be used to reverse VKA action promptly?

A

-When a patient requires urgent surgery, the action of vitamin K antagonists should be immediately reversed.
-Freshly frozen plasma should be administered (recommended dose 15 ml / kg body weight, on average 4-5 units).
-An alternative to this is the transfusion of the prothrombin complex concentrate.

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176
Q

Marasmus

A

-is a deficiency of all macronutrients
Types of malnutrition:

-chronic protein-caloric malnutrition due to chronic starvation
-progressive weight loss
-leads to disorders of organ function
the albumin concentration is normal for a long time (but sudden illness or injury causes a rapid reduction in albumins)
-most often occurs in patients with chronic diseases and cancers
-in extreme cases it can lead to emaciation (cachexia)
-nutrition via the gastrointestinal tract is recommended

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177
Q

kwashiorkor

A

-acute malnutrition most often due to acute illness, trauma, surgery
-hypoalbuminemia, edema, water-electrolyte disturbances, disturbances of consciousness occur
-can occur in overweight, obese patients when they receive only crystalline liquids without protein supply
-very rapid development of malnutrition, without losing weight (weight can even increase by water retention and edema)
the patient’s condition quickly deteriorates
parenteral nutrition is recommended

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178
Q

Hypertonic dehydration occurs when

A
  • an individual excretes too much water without also excreting electrolytes, leaving the fluid that surrounds cells (i.e., extracellular fluid) with a high sodium concentration.
  • A high concentration of sodium outside a cell will draw water out of the cell, towards the sodium
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179
Q

Symptoms of hypertonic dehydration:

A
  • dryness of mucous membranes and skin, hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria - signs of dehydration
  • strong feeling of thirst - a symptom of hypertonia
  • confusion, hallucinations, hyperthermia - CNS symptoms
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180
Q

Hypoventilation causes

A

respiratory acidosis.

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181
Q

The algorithm for the treatment of patients with jaundice is published in Interna by Szczeklik 2018.

A
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182
Q

First Step

The algorithm for the treatment of patients with jaundice is published in Interna by Szczeklik 2018.

A

the first examination should be interview, physical examination and laboratory tests of blood:
- total bilirubin and direct (conjugate), ALT, AST, ALP, PT, GGT, albumin.

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183
Q

Second step

The algorithm for the treatment of patients with jaundice is published in Interna by Szczeklik 2018
According to this algorithm

A
    1. ultrasound examination of the abdominal cavity should be performed in the presence of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia of the cholestatic type in which* ALP is greater than or equal to 2x the upper norm*.
    1. **ALT **is less than or equal to the upper norm,
    1. and the ratio ALT to ALP is equal to or lower than 2.

“Duke” has Colorectal cancer

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184
Q

classification of 6

Colorectal cancer - about ___ % ____ type .
Staging - Dukes classification:

A

Colorectal cancer - about 85% are adenocarcinomas.

A - a tumor limited to the intestinal wall
B - the tumor exceeds the intestinal wall
C - tumor size is irrelevant because there are metastases in the lymph nodes:
C1 - pericolic
C2 - along the blood vessels
D - distant metastases.

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185
Q

Gastric cancer - ___% is _____.
Type of Classifiction used?

A

Gastric cancer -** 95% is adenocarcinoma**.

Laurenaclassification - is the most commonly used microscopic classification of gastric adenocarcinoma.

Lauren I - intestinal type - more often endemic, most likely associated with environmental factors, better prognosis
**Lauren II **- diffuse type - worse prognosis, genetic predisposition.

“Lauren” has Gastric cancer…L-II others are involved = genetic

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186
Q

The staging of cancer of the ____ and ___ ___ is based on the TNM classification.

A

The staging of cancer of the pancreas and hepatocellular carcinoma is based on the TNM classification.

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187
Q

hemangioma or haemangioma

A
  • is a usually benign vascular tumor derived from blood vessel cell types.
  • The most common form, seen in infants, is an infantile hemangioma, known colloquially as a “strawberry mark”, most commonly presenting on the skin at birth or in the first weeks of life
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188
Q

liver hemangioma is a

A
  • noncancerous (benign) mass in the liver made up of a tangle of blood vessels.
  • Also known as hepatic hemangiomas or cavernous hemangiomas, these liver masses are common and are estimated to occur in up to 20% of the population.

-Liver hemangiomas concern about 3% of the population.
-They are usually accidentally detected during imaging tests. In most patients, hepatic haemangiomas do not cause any symptoms.
-Rare symptoms are pain in the right hypochondrium and pressure on neighboring organs.

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189
Q

hepatic colic (biliary)

A
  • sudden, rapidly growing pain in the right hypochondrium radiating to the right shoulder and/or scapula; usually nausea, vomiting and abdominal distension also occur
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190
Q

acute cholecystitis

A
  • usually caused by obstruction of the cystic duct, diagnosed in 20% of patients; dull pain over the entire epigastric region, are diffuse, intensifying during inhalation; nausea, vomiting, fever (38-39°C), chills, sometimes jaundice
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191
Q

chronic cholecystitis

A
  • a result of mechanical irritation of gallbladder mucosa by gallstones; in 25% leads to bacterial bile infection occurs, symptoms include biliary colic, right upper quadrant (epigastric) pain, burping, nausea, bloating, feeling of fullness after meals
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192
Q

gallbladder hydrops

A
  • as a result of blockage of the cystic duct; colic attack, after which you can feel a slightly painful gallbladder
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193
Q

gallbladder empyema

A
  • the formation mechanism is the same as in hydrops, but is accompanied by bacterial inection/inflammation; the symptoms include high fever (39-40°C), chills, peritoneal symptoms, constant severe pain in the right subcostal (hypochondrium) area with radiation to the right scapula
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194
Q

perforation of the gallbladder

A
  • this is a complication of untreated inflammation (empyema), hydrops or abscess
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195
Q

morphine causing contraction of the ___ -___ ___.

A

morphine causing contraction of the hepato-pancreatic ampulla

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196
Q

The conservative treatment of cholecystolithiasis is based on:

A
  1. diet (elimination or significant reduction of fried products as well as fats, cream, peas, egg yolks and chocolate)
  2. supply of analgesics and relaxant (most commonly metamizole, hyoscine and papaverine, it is possible to use nitroglycerin sublingually, which is a strong relaxant; avoid morphine causing contraction of the hepato-pancreatic ampulla)
  3. administering choleretic drugs (Cholestol or Raphacholin, but they do not prevent biliary colic attacks)
  4. in the case of inflammation or abscess - administration of antibiotics
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197
Q

The indications for surgical treatment are:

A
  1. symptomatic gallstones
  2. asymptomatic cholelithiasis, but only when it is associated with a high risk of gallbladder cancer, i.e. in people:
    a. young, especially with multiple gallstones, at risk of acute pancreatitis as a complication
    b. with a porcelain gallbladder (especially when the calcification of walls is irregular)
    c. with diabetes
    d. before extensive cardiac surgeries or organ transplantation
    e. treated with immunosuppressants or cytostatics
    f. women planning pregnancy
    g. with gallbladder polyps (>1 cm or between 6-10 mm, when gallstones are growing and present, or regardless of size in patients with sclerosing cholangitis)
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198
Q

The surgical treatment of umbilical hernia depends on whether the hernia gates are large or small:

A
  1. small gats - the operation involves reducing the hernia sac and stitching the gates
  2. large gates - the operation consists in reducing the sac and closing the gates with the Mayo method, which consists in suturing the doubled patches formed by the sheaths of the rectus abdominis muscles
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199
Q

Complications of thyroid surgery:

A
  • hypoparathyroidism (3-10%) - the most frequent complication after thyroidectomy, caused by parathyroid dysfunction or accidental excision. It is associated with a decrease in the concentration of parathyroid hormone produced by parathyroid glands, which is manifested by hypocalcaemia and tetany. Most often, the symptoms are transient. Treatment consists in the administration of vitamin D and calcium preparations.
  • haemorrhage (<1%) - more often during retrosternal, mediastinal and overactive goiter surgery.
  • unilateral damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (1-5%) - this causes phonation disturbances.
  • bilateral damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerves (0.1%) - there is dyspnea that threatens life, what is an indication for tracheostomy.
  • thyroid storm - it happens very rarely when the patient was not prepared for the procedure in terms of compensation of thyroid hormones.
  • recurrent goiter - recurrence of thyroid cancer after incomplete excision of the gland.
  • keloid - a scar with a thick, red, raised surface, going beyond the original cut line.
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200
Q

in pancreatic head cancer - resection using Whipple or Traverso method

Traverso-Longmire operation

A
  • it is a resection of the head of the pancreas and duodenum while preserving stomach
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201
Q

in pancreatic head cancer - resection using Whipple or Traverso method

Whipple operation

A
  • involves the removal of the head of the pancreas, duodenum and part of the stomach.
  • Then, anastomoses are made: the pancreas with the end of the intestine, the common bile duct with the side of the intestine, the stomach with the small intestine loop.
  • An additional anastomosis is decompressive anastomosis, which consists in suturing the small intestine side to side.
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202
Q

Blumberg sign

A
  • acute, short-lasting abdominal pain, felt at the moment of sudden release of manual skin compression.
  • Positive in peritonitis.
  • A positive Blumberg sign and abdominal guarding as symptoms of peritonitis can also occur in the perforation of the large intestine.

“B” Be “Positive” B- for bluberg

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203
Q

Rovsing sign

A
  • pain in the right iliac fossa, caused by compression of the left half of the abdomen (this causes the displacement of the contents in the colon, which causes the pain while stretching the ceacum).
  • Characteristic of appendicitis.
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204
Q

Jaworski sign

A
  • the patient lying on his back raises the lower leg straightened in the knee joint. The examiner compresses the right hip, instructing the subject to gradually lower the limb.
  • The sign is positive when the patient feels pain while lowering the limb.
  • The sign is evidence of retrocaecal appendicitis.
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205
Q

The signs of Jaworski and Rovsing are characteristic of?
and usually accompanied by?

A

-appendicitis.
-Appendicitis is usually accompanied by peritonitis

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206
Q

Acute diverticulitis requires

A

hospitalization, antibiotic therapy and a liquid diet

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207
Q

incomplete, initial, so called

A

-so called bubonocele
- hernia is limited in the inguinal canal

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208
Q

complete (or vaginal)

A
  • exceeds the canal; the hernia passed through the superficial inguinal ring
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209
Q

scrotal

A
  • hernia in the scrotum
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210
Q

labial

A
  • hernia near the labia majora
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211
Q

sliding

A
  • partially intraperitoneal organ pulled to the hernia
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212
Q

direct inguinal hernia

A
  • always acquired, rarer than indirect inguinal hernia,
  • does not descend into the scrotum, gates are formed by medial inguinal fossa.
  • The hernia manifests itself with a bulge above the inguinal ligament, close to the pubic symphysis
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213
Q

The femoral hernia

A
  • the hernia sac enters the femoral ring through the femoral canal. It is an acquired hernia, more common in women.
  • The symptom is a bulge in the medial part, below the inguinal ligament.
  • The only treatment is surgery.
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214
Q

Riolan arc is in the area of the splenic flexure
-It is the connection

A

-between the left branch of the central colic artery (branch of superior mesenteric artery) and the ascending branch of the left colic artery (branch of the inferior mesenteric artery).

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215
Q

Takayasu’s arteritis (TA),

A
  • also known as aortic arch syndrome, nonspecific aortoarteritis, and pulseless disease,
  • is a form of large vessel granulomatous vasculitis with massive intimal fibrosis and vascular narrowing,
  • most commonly affecting young or middle-aged women of Asian descent, though anyone can be affected.
  • It mainly affects the aorta and its branches, and pulmonary arteries.
  • Females are about 8–9 times more likely to be affected than males.
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216
Q

Buerger’s disease, or

A
  • thromboangiitis obliterans, is an inflammation of all layers of the vessel, which leads to thrombus formation and obliteration of its lumen.
  • It most often occurs in the lower extremities and affects both small arteries and veins.
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217
Q

Buerger’s disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans

symptoms:

A

feeling of cold, numbed toes,
excessive foot sweating,
intermittent claudication - foot pain while walking,
over time, foot pain at rest and necrotic changes.

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218
Q

During the physical examination, the circumferences of both limbs should be compared, as 70% of cases of unilateral edema are caused by?

A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

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219
Q

Deep vein thrombosis
Useful in diagnostics:

A
  1. Homans’s sign - pain within the calf and popliteal fossa during dorsal flexion of the foot
  2. Mozes sign - increased tension and stiffness of calf muscles
  3. Payr sign - painfulness of the medial edge of the foot
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220
Q

Ménétrier’s disease

A
  • (protein-losing hypertrophic gastropathy)
  • is the idiopathic proliferation of gastric mucosal folds usually located in the gastric fundus and body
  • is a rare premalignant hyperproliferative gastropathy characterized by massive overgrowth of foveolar cells in the gastric lining, resulting in large gastric folds, and manifesting with epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, peripheral edema and, less commonly, anorexia and weight loss.
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221
Q

Sympt/ Diag/TX

Ménétrier’s disease (protein-losing hypertrophic gastropathy)

A
  • belongs to precancerous conditions, necessary endoscopic monitoring every 1-2 years
    more often occurs in men, usually around 55 years of age
  • the most common symptoms: abdominal pain, weakness, lack of appetite, weight loss, diarrhea
    -* diagnostics:*
    a. gastroscopy: oversized> 1 cm stomach folds in typical places (see above), and hist-pat . b. examination: disappearance of the glandular ducts
    c. *treatment: *from eradication of H.pylori (some allow full recovery), PPI to cetuximab or partial resection of the stomach.
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222
Q

Ménétrier’s disease (protein-losing hypertrophic gastropathy)

If the question about Ménétrier’s disease appeared on the pediatric part, it is worth remembering that in children the etiology is associated with ?

A

with the CMV virus and after the detection of the disease, ganciclovir is used.

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223
Q

According to the guidelines, the indications for surgical treatment of obesity are:

A

1) BMI ≥40 kg / m2 without comorbidities:
2) BMI 35-40 kg / m2 with a coexisting disease, the course of which may be improved after bariatric surgery. ( hypertension, type 2 diabetes or dyslipidemia.)

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224
Q

Crohn’s disease - a chronic, segmental inflammation, covering the entire thickness of the wall and potentially each section of the gastrointestinal tract (ie from the mouth down to the anus).

A
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225
Q

Crohn’s disease

Symptoms:

A

diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, weakness, perianal changes, anal fissures, abscesses, fistulas, tumors in the abdomen.

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226
Q

Crohn’s disease

Non-GI symptoms:
remember them through the acronym “SEALK”

A

-the most common are within the osteoarticular system - joint inflammation in the course of inflammatory bowel diseases,

  • -additionally: *suttona aphta, erythema nodosum and gangrenous dermatitis, urolithiasis, cholelithiasis, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC).
  • Skin disorders ( erythema nodosum and gangrenous dermatitis )
    E ye inflammation (inflammation of the iris, cornea, sclera)
    A rthritis (arthritis)
    L iver or gallbladder disease (primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC).
    K idney disorders (urolithiasis)
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227
Q

Short bowel syndrome (SBS) is a condition after

A

-condition after excision or exclusion from the intestinal passage of some or all of the small intestine,
-which leads to a reduction in absorption to such a large extent that nutrition exclusively by the digestive tract is not sufficient to maintain health.
-SBS can occur when the length of the active small intestine is less than 150-200 cm or when 50% of the intestine is switched off.

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228
Q

Short bowel syndrome (SBS) is a condition after excision or exclusion from the intestinal passage of some or all of the small intestine- The most common cause of extensive excision is?

A

-upper mesenteric artery thrombus/embolism

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229
Q

Short bowel syndrome (SBS)

Other causes of resection include:

A

Crohn’s disease (Pl. Leśniowski-Crohn’s disease)
volvulus
abdominal injury
tumor

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230
Q

The following are characteristic for AP in laboratory tests:

A

-leukocytosis, high concentration of CRP,
-increase of: lipase in the blood (the highest sensitivity and specificity in the diagnosis of AP), amylase in blood and urine,
-urea increase, hypocalcaemia
- hyperbilirubinemia, ALT, AST, ALP, and GGTP increase suggest a biliary ethiology of AP.

231
Q

AP Diagnostics

A

In ultrasonography : enlargement of the pancreas, obliteration of its borders, reduced and inhomogeneous echogenicity of the parenchyma, plus the widening of the bile ducts again suggests biliary etiology.

232
Q

The AP of bile etiology is treated by

A
  • removing bile duct deposits (ERCP) ,
  • and then after the symptoms disappear, it is recommended to plan the gall bladder removal to reduce the risk of relapse.
233
Q

Anisocoria is a condition characterized by

A

unequal pupil sizes

234
Q

On the basis of the Glasgow scale, loss of consciousness is usually divided into:

GCS 13-15 -
GCS 9-12 -
GCS 6-8 -
GCS 5 -
GCS 4 -
GCS 3 -

A

GCS 13-15 - mild
GCS 9-12 - moderate
GCS 6-8 - unconscious - INTUBATION
GCS 5 - decortication - INTUBACTION
GCS 4 - decerebration - INTUBATION
GCS 3 - brain death - INTUBATION

235
Q

Decortication

A

-is a type of surgical procedure performed to remove a fibrous tissue that has abnormally formed on the surface of the lung, chest wall or diaphragm.
-through full thoracotomy is a major surgical procedure
- A five or six-inch incision is made on the chest wall, through which the pleural peel is accessed and the infection is removed.
- Drainage tubes are placed to drain blood, which are retained for 4-7 days.

236
Q

The McBurney point

A
  • one-third of the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus, place of attachment of the appendix to the cecum.
  • This is the most painful place when examining a patient with appendicitis.
237
Q

The Lanz point

A

situated on a line connecting the two anterior superior iliac spines one third of the distance from the right spine

238
Q

Colles Frature

A

fracture of the distal head of the radius bone. This type of fracture is the most common within the distal base of the bone.

239
Q

Perforation of peptic ulcer:

Who is more likely to be afflicted M or F ?
symptoms:

A

-men are twice as likely to get this disease, so we will see them more often with complications

  1. sudden stabbing pain in the epigastrium
  2. symptoms of peritonitis:
    strong stomach ache
    nausea, vomiting
    gas and stool retention
    tension of the abdominal wall, i.e. a hard, tight stomach (“like a board”)
    urinary retention
    pale and sweaty skin
240
Q

gastrointestinal perforation (peptic ulcer perforation)

Diagnosis :

A
  • in the case of perforation of the digestive tract, the X-ray shows free gas under the dome of the diaphragm in the shape of a sickle.
  • Western countries usually use abdominal CT, when ulcer perforation is suspected.
241
Q

Perforation of peptic ulcer:

Treatment:

A

** most common cause of gastrointestinal perforation is perforation of duodenal and gastric ulcers, therefore urgent surgical intervention should be performed, followed by analgesic therapy, PPIs and antibiotic**

242
Q

Aortic aneurysm

A
  • is a local dilatation of aorta by more than 50% of the norm.
  • The diameter of the abdominal aorta is about 2 cm, which means that we can speak of an aneurysm when the diameter is ≥ 3 cm
243
Q

Carcinoid tumors are

A
  • gastrointestinal tumor,
  • most often located in the appendix : 90% according to Noszczyk,
  • usually less than 2 cm, too small to give metastases to the liver
    -* other location:* small intestine (terminal ileum - much more often metastasizes to the liver), esophagus, stomach, large intestine, bronchi
  • neuroendocrine tumor: it secretes mainly serotonin- a type of slow-growing cancer that can arise in several places throughout your body.
244
Q

Carcinoid Syndrome:

A
  • Frequency: 1-2 / 100,000. They are more common in women and older people.
  • associated with the secretion of serotonin into the blood

symptoms: (attacks in the carcinoid syndrome may appear under the influence of certain stimuli, such as stress, physical activity, alcohol, meal, some medicines (especially antidepressants):
- acceleration of the heart rhythm
- paroxysmal redness of the face and neck
- dizziness
- hypertension
- excessive sweating
- diarrhea
- stomach pain
- weight loss
symptoms of bronchospasm, such as dyspnoea, wheezing

245
Q

For severe injuries, especially when there has been a* hemorrhage ( shock )*, we have the so-called** “death triad”:**

A
  1. hypothermia - below 34 degrees
  2. coagulopathy PT> 19 sec, APTT> 60 sec.
  3. acidosis - pH <7.2
  • Hypothermia inhibits the coagulation cascade, which causes symptoms of hemorrhagic diathesis.
  • This promotes further blood loss. As a result of hypovolaemia, metabolic acidosis develops depressing the heart, causing further deterioration of peripheral perfusion and consequently death.
  • Any serious injury or shock, by triggering inflammation factors, may cause damage to the blood-air barrier and, as a result, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
246
Q

definition:

erysipelas:

A

acute inflammatory disease of the skin of streptococcal etiology ( S.pyogenes, beta-hemolytic group A streptococcus)

247
Q

pathogenesis:

erysipelas:

A

streptococcus infection spreads through skin, it can also spread via the lymphatic pathways - migrating erysipelas

248
Q

symptoms:

erysipelas:

A
  • acute start, quick progress
  • general symptoms - fever ( > 40 ° C )
  • local symptoms - swelling and redness of the skin clear margins, usually located on the lower limbs or face, may be present with necrosis and gangrene
249
Q

treatment:

erysipelas:

A

benzyl penicillin
or
antibiotic treatment

250
Q

Linitis plastica

A
  • is a widely used term for* Brinton’s disease* (also known as** leather bottle stomach**), a morphological variant of diffuse (or infiltrating) stomach cancer (adenocarcinoma) .
  • In some texts, the term is also used to describe the condition of a *rigid, non-distensible stomach *which may be caused by a non-malignant condition such as a caustic injury to the stomach
  • is a special form of gastric cancer (adenocarcinoma), causing diffuse thickening of the wall, which causes its stiffness and resistance to stretching.
  • This form gives early metastases to the lymph nodes.
251
Q

Etiopathogenesis of hernias:

A
  • collagen disorders (frequently genetic background), frequent, significant increases in intra-abdominal pressure (COPD, constipation, prostate hypertrophy, physical exercise, etc.), systemic diseases that aggravate tissue endurance (diabetes, malnutrition)
252
Q

Treatment of hernias
traditional operations:

A

Bassini
Halsted
Shouldice

253
Q

Mesh operations (tension-free methods)- (better effects than traditional operations)
Treatment of hernias:

A

Lichtenstein
Rutkow
PHS (prolen hernia system)

254
Q

7 types (outlet)

The structure of the inguinal canal:

A

internal outlet - deep inguinal ring
external outlet - superficial inguinal ring
upper wall - edges of the internal oblique m. and transverse abdominal m. together with their fasciae
lower wall - inguinal ligament
front wall - inclination of oblique ext.m.
posterior wall - peritoneum and transverse fascia

255
Q

Classification by depth of the burn:

A

Grade I covers only the epidermis (erythema)
Grade IIa covers the epidermis and part of the dermis (blister)
Grade IIb covers the epidermis and dermis (superficial necrosis)
Grade III necrosis is subject to the entire thickness of the skin (deep necrosis)
Grade IV necrosis or charring of deeper tissues

256
Q

burns can be described as severe:

A
  • 2nd degree burns >25% of body surface area in adults and >20% of body surface area in children
  • 3rd degree burns >10% of body surface regardless of age
  • 3rd degree burns on hands, face, neck, feet, hands, groin, circular
  • inhalation, electric and chemical burns
  • burns complicated by other severe injuries or comorbidities
257
Q

Kwashiorkor is a form of malnutrition caused by a lack of:

A
  • severe protein deficiency in a high-carbohydrate diet.
  • there is no weight loss observed. It may even increase due to edema and water retention inside the body.
  • Parenteral nutrition is recommended as treatment.
  • The WHO recommends that malnutrition should be suspected in patients with a BMI <18.5 kg/m2.

Other types of malnutrition:

Marasmus - caused by protein and caloric deficiencies due to starvation
Mixed malnutrition

The WHO recommends that malnutrition should be suspected in patients wit

258
Q

Buerger’s disease

A
  • (thromboembolic vasculitis) is a disease of the small to medium-sized arteries and the veins in the limbs, which causes blood clots and vascular overgrowth.
  • The disease usually affects young smoking men aged about 20-30 years, and the disease after 50 years is rare.
  • Initially manifested by migrating thrombophlebitis followed by intermittent claudication or pain at rest in the feet and hands, accompanied by numbness, a feeling of cold and excessive sweating.
  • The characteristic feature is the lack of a pulse around the wrist and ankle with its simultaneous presence in the popliteal and brachial arteries.
259
Q

Buerger’s disease (thromboembolic vasculitis)
Treatment includes

A

anticoagulants, painkillers and vasodilators, and quitting smoking is key. Surgical treatment consists of a lumbar sympathectomy or the injection of ethyl alcohol into the ganglia, which results in the expansion of arterioles, and thus better blood supply to the limbs.

260
Q

Blood group A increases the risk of

A

stomach cancer

261
Q

Rotter’s lymph nodes are

A
  • small interpectoral lymph nodes located between the pectoralis major and pectoralis minor muscles.
  • They receive lymphatic fluid from the muscles and the mammary gland, and deliver lymphatic fluid to the axillary lymphatic plexus.
  • These lymph nodes are susceptible to breast cancer, as the cancer sometimes spreads (metastasizes) to the interpectoral lymph nodes
262
Q

The risk factors for developing breast cancer include:

A

History of breast cancer
Family history of breast cancer
The presence of other tumors
Consuming alcohol
Obesity
Hormonal factors and estrogen intake

263
Q

Pringle maneuver describes the compression of the __ __.
Which contains what ?

A

hepatoduodenal ligament

The hepatic-duodenal ligament contains:

Hepatic artery
Portal vein
Common bile duct

264
Q

In the case of acute cholecystitis, ___ is the diagnostic examination of choice

A

ultrasound

265
Q

Bloomberg sign

A

rebound tenderness

266
Q

The Whipple surgery involves removing:

A

pancreas head
duodenum
gallbladder
CBD
pylorus

267
Q

The Whipple surgery modified by Traverso involves removal of:

A

pancreas head
duodenum
gallbladder
CBD

268
Q

Ogilvie syndrome

A
  • acute colonic pseudoobstruction
  • colonic blockage without obturation
    manifests itself by a significant distension of the right part of the colon without obstacle in the large intestine
269
Q

extranodal location of lymphoma is most commonly found in the ?

A

-The digestive tract (Stomach) is the most common extranodal location of lymphoma.
-Most of them are non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas (NHL)

270
Q

The __ ___is used to assess the degree of limb ischemia, which determines the choice of treatment.

A

The Fontaine scale is used to assess the degree of* limb ischemia,* which determines the choice of treatment.

271
Q

> surgical procedure “BHS”

Inguinal hernia

A

Bassini’s operation
Halsted surgery
Shouldice’s operation

272
Q

Operations using a mesh are made basing on the Bassini method with some modifications:

A
  1. Lichtenstein’s method
  2. Rutkow’s method
  3. PHS (prolen hernia system)
273
Q

Laparoscopic surgeries are performed mainly

A
  • in recurrent hernias.
  • They can be performed both from transabdominal and peritoneal access.
274
Q

Surgical treatment of hiatal hernia is performed depending on the type of hernia:

A
  1. sliding hernia (most often Nissen’s surgery )
  2. paraesophageal hernia
  3. mixed hernia
275
Q

Surgical treatment of the femoral hernia is the only effective treatment

A

There are 2 ways of operating:

  1. access from the thigh
  2. access over the inguinal ligament
276
Q

The surgical treatment of umbilical hernia depends on whether the hernia gates are large or small:

A
  1. small gates
  2. large gates- Mayo method
277
Q

Carcinoid is an epithelial tumor derived from cells of the neuroendocrine system and is most commonly located in:

A
  • gastrointestinal tumor
  • most often located in the appendix : 90%
  • usually** less than 2 cm**
  • too small to give metastases to the liver

Carcinoid is annoyed with my apendix

278
Q

Cullen sign is not a

A
  • Cullen sign is not a classic clinical feature of acute appendicitis
  • Instead, it is a rare sign of acute pancreatitis describing the foci of subcutaneous tissue necrosis in the form of brown patches found in the umbilical region.
279
Q

abdominal compartment syndrome occurs

A
  • when there is a rapid increase in pressure in the abdominal cavity and the pressure measured in the urinary bladder is> 25 mmHg
280
Q

Diagnosis of colorectal cancer is based on:

A
  1. Endoscopic examination with biopsy
  2. Contrast barium enema of the colon
  3. Imaging techniques
  4. Endoscopic Ultrasound
281
Q

Symptoms of insulinoma include:

A
  1. Neurological disturbances associated with fasting: dizziness, confusion, coma, convulsions,
  2. Rapid improvement after glucose administrations,
  3. Concomitant hypoglycemia (<40 mg/dl).
282
Q

Diagnosis of an insulinoma is based on:

A
  1. low fasting blood glucose
  2. high levels of insulin in the blood
  3. fasting test
  4. USG, CT, MRI
283
Q

Chełmoński’s sign describes

A
  • pain in the right hypochondrium after “slapping” this area.
  • This is a common sign of cholecystolithiasis.
284
Q

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

A
  • refers to a** longitudinal tear or laceration in gastric mucosa** at the location where the abdominal part of the esophagus and the cardia meet - the gastroesophageal junction
    -The typical clinical symptom is vomiting, characterized by coffee-ground or bloody content.
285
Q

Bormann classification is used to assess

A

macroscopical advanced gastric cancer during endoscopy

286
Q

Bormann criteria:

A

Type 1 polypoid - single exophytic tumor (usually without ulceration) -
Type 2 fungating - sharply demarcated tumor with elevated margins
Type 3 ulcerative - ulceration with indefinite margins
Type 4 diffuse - infiltrating (linitis plastica, leather bottle stomach) tumor infiltrates uniformly through gastric wall

287
Q

Causes of small intestine mechanical obstruction
include:

A

-adhesions: most common cause
-entrapment of a hernia
-Meckel’s diverticulum
-gallstone: who got out of the gallbladder in a person suffering from cholelithiasis
-cancer
-internal hernias

288
Q

Causes of mechanical bowel obstruction include:

A

-colorectal cancer: most common cause
-torsion of the intestine
-diverticulitis
-adhesions
-residual fecal masses
-inflammatory bowel disease

289
Q

Causes of paralytic obstruction include:

A

-previous abdominal surgery
-metabolic disorders:
porphyria
ketoacidosis: resulting from diabetes
-renal colic
-atherosclerosis
-intra-abdominal infections
-medicines:
anticholinergic
anti-Parkinson
opioids

290
Q

Visceral pain

A

is led by the sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers of the autonomic nerves
it’s difficult to locate it exactly
it is more often a projected pain than that experienced at the source of the pain
the pain is deep and diffuse
it can be permanent or colic
the patient cannot find a position in which the pain would be less severe

291
Q

Organic pain

A

is caused by an organic disease (such as obstruction, Crohn’s disease, etc.)

292
Q

Somatic pain

A

is due to the irritation of the spinal nerve endings that innervate the peritoneal wall
is precisely located, radiates in specific directions
it is accompanied by muscle defense and increased tension

293
Q

Neuralgic pain

A

pain appears in the area of innervation of the nerve
e.g. trigeminal neuralgia
often paroxysmal

294
Q

Phantom pain

A

-discomfort is felt in the place of the amputated body part
-it is unrelated to the effects of pain stimuli
-the pain may be dull, burning or spasmodic

295
Q

Hernia which contains a diverticulum, e.g. Meckel’s diverticulum is called a

A

Littré hernia

296
Q

Richter’s hernia is a

A

special form of hernia containing a peripheral fragment of the intestinal wall

297
Q

Buerger’s disease

A
  • also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, which is an inflammation of the walls of the vessels of small arteries that most often affects the lower extremities.
  • Young men under 40 are affected, and smoking is one of the most important factors involved in the pathogenesis of the disease.
  • Smoking cessation is able to stop the progression of the disease.
298
Q

Buerger’s disease result of

A

-As a result of vasculitis, vascular lumen decreases, resulting in:
lower limb ischemia and the resulting intermittent claudication
-numbness of the fingers
-bruising and coldness of the skin of the feet
-↑ sweating of the feet

299
Q

Leriche’s syndrome

A
  • is obstruction or narrowing of the end section of the abdominal aorta or iliac arteries.
  • It mostly affects older men.
  • As with Buerger’s disease, symptoms of Leriche’s syndrome include ischaemia of the lower extremities and intermittent claudication, as well as necrotic skin changes resulting from ischemia.
  • An additional symptom of the syndrome is erectile dysfunction.
  • Another similarity is that smoking is a risk factor for the disease.
  • Leriche syndrome is associated with atherosclerosis.
300
Q

Horton’s disease

A
  • i.e. giant cell arteritis,
  • most often affects the aorta and / or its branches.
  • Women are sick 2-3 times more often than men.
  • Most often, the disease begins in the 7th decade of life.
301
Q

Pancreatic cyst is defined as

A

-clearly delimited fluid reservoirs filled with pancreatic secretions. They can be located anywhere on the pancreas or outside it.
-They are usually the result of chronic pancreatitis

302
Q

pseudocysts

A

-they are much more common than true cysts, they account for up to 80% of all cysts
-they are usually the result of acute pancreatitis
-simply finding a pseudocyst is not an indication for surgery

303
Q

true cysts

A

-unlike pseudocysts, they are** lined with epithelium**
-they are usually the result of cancer or existing pancreatic malformations

304
Q

Courvoisier’s symptom is

A
  • painless jaundice and an enlarged, painless gallbladder that can be felt through the abdominal wall.
  • It is most often associated with a tumor of the pancreatic-duodenal area, which, by infiltrating the common bile duct, causes impaired bile flow from the liver to the intestine, which leads to mechanical jaundice and distension of the gallbladder.
305
Q

Virchow’s triad consists of:

A

-vascular endothelial injury
-slow blood flow
-may occur, among others as a result of prolonged immobilization or cancer
-change in blood composition which causes hypercoagulation:
antithrombin III deficiency
protein C, protein S deficiency
thrombocythemia
disturbances in the balance between pro-coagulant and anti-coagulant factors
-the most important factors in the pathogenesis of blood clots

306
Q

In the TNM classification of colorectal cancer, the “T” characteristic means:

A

Tis - infiltration of the mucosa,
T1 - infiltration of the submucosa,
T2 - muscle membrane infiltration,
T3 - infiltration of periocecal / perianal tissues,
T4 - infiltration of adjacent organs / structures or visceral peritoneum.

307
Q

depending on the location of the tumor, there are:

segmental resections:

A

transverse colon tumors
sigmoid tumors

308
Q

depending on the location of the tumor, there are

right hemicolectomy:

A

caecum tumors
ascending colon tumors

309
Q

depending on the location of the tumor, there are

left hemicolectomy:

A

descending colon tumors
sigmoid tumors

310
Q

depending on the location of the tumor, there are

Hartman’s operation:

A

-tumors of the left half of the large intestine (including sigmoid colon).

-In some cases (tumor histologically well differentiated, diameter <3 cm), local resection is allowed. This method of treatment should be combined with radiation therapy.

311
Q

The FAST examination consists of 4 applications of the ultrasound probe,

A
  1. the area of the liver and the right kidney are assessed, which reveal the hepatorenal recess (the so-called Morrison recess)
  2. the right costo-diaphragm angle. This allows for the preliminary exclusion of haemothorax, as the blood initially locates in the lowest parts of the lungs, ie in the costal-diaphragmatic angles.
  3. The same applies to the other side of the abdominal cavity → the splenorenal recess, called the Keller recess,
  4. the left costo-diaphragmatic angle.
312
Q

6

Complications from massive transfusion can include:

A
  1. Coagulopathy - due to a dilution effect (deficiencies of plasma clotting factors and platelets (*Thrombocytopena *)
  2. hypothermia - (one RBC unit stored at 4oC can lower body temperature by 0.25C)
  3. metabolic disorders (hyperkalemia is caused by the release of potassium ions from aging erythrocytes during storage
  4. metabolic alkalosis and hypokalemia associated with the transfusion of large amounts of citrate
  5. hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia associated with the toxic effects of citrate, especially in patients with hepatic failure and congestive heart failure
  6. an air embolism may occur and symptoms of cardiovascular overload may appear, especially in people with heart failure
313
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A
  • is a disease from the group of inflammatory bowel diseases, which is most often diagnosed between the ages of 20 and 40.
  • The clinical picture of the disease is dominated by diarrhea with blood and abdominal pain
314
Q

Symptoms

Primary sclerosing cholangitis
(PSC)

A

-Jaundice (yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes)
-Itching
-Pain in the right upper part of the abdomen
-Fever, chills
-Unexplained weight loss
-Fatigue

315
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

A

-is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder.

-The bile duct scarring that occurs in PSC narrows the ducts of the biliary tree and impedes the flow of bile to the intestines.
-Eventually, it can lead to cirrhosis of the liver and liver failure.
-PSC increases the risk of various cancers, including liver cancer, gallbladder carcinoma, colorectal cancer, and cholangiocarcinoma

316
Q

Ulcerative colitis is treated surgically. The gold standard in elective treatment is:

A

restorative proctocolectomy

317
Q

2

Ulcerative colitis is a disease from the group of inflammatory bowel diseases, manifested mainly by bloody diarrhea, which, over time, significantly increases the risk of colorectal cancer. Treatment of ulcerative colitis can be divided into:

A
  1. Conservative treatment → patients with UC should use non-pharmacological treatment (avoiding stress, oral antibiotics, and other exacerbation factors).
    - Additionally used pharmacological treatment (sulfasalazine, GCS, immunosuppressants)
    2.* Surgical treatment *→ target treatment for ulcerative colitis due to the high risk of developing cancer. Depending on the patient’s condition, operations performed in UC are divided into:
318
Q

Acute peritonitis is a condition where

A
  • the body responds to bacteria or uninfected body fluid entering the peritoneal cavity. Bacteria can enter the peritoneal cavity in many ways:

-Gastrointestinal perforation → Most common cause
-Displacement of bacteria without perforation of the intraperitoneal organ (in the course of enteritis, obstruction)
-Rupture of an abscess into the peritoneal cavity
-Entry of bacteria from an exogenous infection

319
Q

The most common bacteria that cause inflammation of the peritoneum are

A

coli and streptococci.

320
Q

Hemorrhoids, or haemorrhoids,

A

are extensions of the venous plexuses around the anus, usually in the form of easily bleeding nodules.

321
Q

The causes of hemorrhoids arise from conditions that impede the outflow of venous blood from the plexuses around the anus and include:

A

Constipation
Weakening of the connective tissue
Pregnancy and natural birth
Lifting heavy objects
Chronic cough
Low-residue diet, too abundant, with lots of fats
Alcoholism
Sedentary lifestyle

322
Q

Hemorrhoid classification:

A

Grade I → the nodules do not extend beyond the anus, they can be visualized on endoscopy
Grade II → nodule prolapse with pressure and spontaneous reduction into the anal canal after defecation
Grade III → the protruding nodules do not reduce spontaneously after defecation, but can be reduced using the finger
Grade IV → the protruding nodules cannot be reduced

323
Q

Conn’s syndrome is most often associated with

A
  • a benign adenoma of the glomerular layer of the adrenal gland → it is a disease caused by excessive secretion of aldosterone, most often by a hormonally active adenocortical adenoma. –It is derived from the glomerular layer of the adrenal gland, which is responsible for the secretion of mineralocorticosteroids, including aldosterone.
324
Q

Indications for a spleen excision:

A
  1. Hematological diseases (spherocytosis, chronic thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly)
  2. Extensive injuries, ruptures
  3. Abscesses
  4. Cysts more than 10 cm in diameter
  5. Tumors
  6. Portal hypertension
  7. Aneurysm of the splenic artery> 2.5 cm, if it causes compression symptoms, otherwise a stent-graph can be inserted and the spleen preserved
325
Q

Boundaries of the femoral canal:

A
  1. from the upper-front side - inguinal ligament
  2. medially - lacunar ligament
  3. from the lower-posterior side - upper branch (ramus) of the pubis, or rather the pubic crest
  4. laterally - femoral vein
326
Q

A femoral hernia is a hernia in which

A
  • the hernial sac moves through the femoral canal from the deep femoral ring to the hiatus of the saphenous vein.
  • The femoral ring is the gateway to the femoral canal.
327
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A
  • is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder (APC gene) (A) leading to the presence of numerous polyps in the large intestine, and sometimes in the stomach and duodenum.
  • In such patients there is a significant increase in the risk of developing colorectal cancer compared to the general population, therefore these patients require:

Once a year → check-up colonoscopy
every 1-2 years → check-up gastroduodenoscopy

328
Q

Patients after splenectomy have an increased risk of infection with

A
  • enveloped bacteria, especially pneumococci, meningococci and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), therefore vaccination against these pathogens is particularly recommended in this group of patients.
329
Q

Patients after splenectomy have an increased risk of infection with enveloped bacteria, especially pneumococci, meningococci and Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib), therefore vaccination against these pathogens is particularly recommended in this group of patients.

A

Pneumococcal vaccine - Due to the increased risk of Invasive Pneumococcal Disease, the PCV-13 conjugate vaccine (Prevenar 13) is recommended.
Meningococci vaccine - Due to the increased risk of Invasive Meningococcal Disease, based on epidemiological data in Poland, a group B meningococcal vaccine (e.g. Bexero) is recommended first, followed by a 4-valent group A, C vaccine, W, Y (e.g. Nimenrix) or against group C (e.g. Neisvac)
Vaccination against Hib - it is registered only up to the age of 5, therefore its administration to older children and adults is an off-label procedure.

330
Q

Thalassemia

A
  • is haemolytic anemia resulting from genetically conditioned disturbances in the quantitative synthesis of protein globin chains.
  • Splenectomy is indicated in some patients with the most severe form of the disease (thalassemia major) where it helps to reduce the destruction of abnormal red blood cells.
331
Q

Sickle cell anemia

A
  • is a qualitative hemoglobinopathy in which hemoglobin has an abnormal structure (hemoglobin S) and altered physicochemical properties (including lower oxygen affinity), and red blood cells take on a sickle shape and have a shorter survival time.
  • As in the above diseases, splenectomy is indicated in patients with the most severe course of the disease - it allows to extend the survival time of red blood cells and reduce the number of hemolytic breakthroughs.
332
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia

A
  • is an autoimmune disease in which the presence of antiplatelet autoantibodies causes their excessive destruction and reduced production of platelets in the bone marrow.
  • Platelets coated with antibodies are phagocytosed by macrophages and prematurely destroyed in the spleen.
    • Splenectomy* allows to limit this process, but it is indicated only in patients without improvement after> 12 months of treatment with glucocorticoids and second-line drugs.
333
Q

Graves’ disease

A
  • also known as toxic diffuse goiter, is an autoimmune disease that affects the thyroid
  • It frequently results in and is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.
  • It also often results in an enlarged thyroid
  • Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism may include irritability, muscle weakness, sleeping problems, a fast heartbeat, poor tolerance of heat, diarrhea and unintentional weight loss.
  • Other symptoms may include thickening of the skin on the shins, known as pretibial myxedema, and eye bulging, a condition caused by Graves’ ophthalmopathy.
334
Q

The Whipple procedure is a procedure used in resectable pancreatic cancer. During its duration, the following are removed:

A
  • head of the pancreas;
  • segment of the duodenum adjacent to the pancreas;
  • gallbladder;
  • gastric pylorus.
335
Q

The Whipple procedure is a procedure used in resectable pancreatic cancer. During its duration, the following are removed:

A
  • head of the pancreas;
  • segment of the duodenum adjacent to the pancreas;
  • gallbladder;
  • gastric pylorus.
336
Q

In Whipple procedure
In order to restore the continuity of the digestive tract after the surgery, anastomosis is performed:

A
  1. the common bile duct and the loop of the small intestine (ducto-intestinal);
  2. small intestine with the pancreatic body (duodenal-pancreatic);
  3. small intestine and stomach stump (gastrointestinal).
337
Q

**It is worth mentioning two characteristic symptoms that can occur in pancreatic cancer:

A
  1. **Courvoisier’s symptom **- enlarged, painless gallbladder - a symptom also present in cancer of the bile ducts, duodenum and Vater’s papilla;
  2. migratory superficial thrombophlebitis, which may be its first symptom in approximately 15% of patients.
338
Q

The second main surgical method in the treatment of pancreatic cancer is surgery using the _____method. It is a modification of the Whipple operation in which the ___is preserved. Other variants of pancreatic cancer surgery are:

A
  • Traverso method.
  • pylorus is preserved.
  • partial peripheral pancreatectomy (also with spleen excision), or complete pancreatectomy with duodenum.
339
Q

A gallbladder empyema is caused by

A
  • a blockage in the outflow of bile and an ongoing inflammatory process.
  • Progressive infection causes thickening of the follicle wall and then gangrene with a subsequent risk of perforation and biliary peritonitis.
  • Alveolar-intestinal fistula is one of the less common complications.
340
Q

Tubular polyps

A
  • are polyps with the structure of branching coils.
  • They are the most common adenomatous polyps.
341
Q

villous adenomas

A

They are the rarest of adenomas, but have the greatest ability to be malignant.

342
Q

Inflammatory polyps

A
  • are infiltrates and inflammatory granules left over from the normal mucosa. - - They appear in the course of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
343
Q

hyperplastic polyps

A
  • polyps caused by the thickening of the mucosa.
  • They are not atypical and account for about 90% of colon polyps.
  • Most prevelant colon polyps
  • Single ones may not cause any symptoms.
  • When symptoms appear: bleeding is most common, and there may also be pressure on the stools, mucus in the stools or diarrhea.
  • Polyps are detected by endoscopic examination
344
Q

Two scales are used to assess nutrition

A
  1. SGA (subjective global assessment of nutritional status)
  2. NRS (Nutritional Risk Score), which allows to estimate the risk associated with malnutrition.
345
Q

Malnutrition Indicators:

A
  1. loss of 10% of body weight in the 3 months prior to admission to hospital
  2. anthropometric measurements:
    BMI (body mass index) value <18.5 is underweight
    assessment of the thickness of the skin fold over the triceps muscle of the non-dominant arm,
    biochemical research:
    albumin (<3.5 g / dl) and prealbumin,
    transferrin (due to the short half-life of 8 days, it is used to monitor rapid changes in malnutrition)
    total lymphocyte count (CLL =% lymphocytes x lymphocyte count / 100) - a value of <800 indicates immunodeficiency and impaired nutritional status.
    nitrogen balance (a negative nitrogen balance may indicate insufficient energy supply)
346
Q

Symptoms of acute cholecystitis:

A
  1. pain localized in the gallbladder projection, under the right costal arch,
  2. pain increases with breathing and pressure,
  3. radiates to the right shoulder blade,
    4 nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite
  4. tachycardia, increased body temperature,
  5. leukocytosis,
  6. muscle tension,
  7. positive Murphy symptom,
347
Q

Acute inflammation should be differentiated from:

A
  1. peptic ulcer perforation,
  2. acute upper abdominal appendicitis,
  3. acute pancreatitis
  4. myocardial infarction
  5. basal pneumonia.
348
Q

Paronychia is an

A
  • inflammation of the tissues surrounding the nail. It is caused mainly by staphylococci that have entered the body through damage to the skin.
  • The inflammatory process causes a sub-epidermal abscess that can penetrate under the nail plate.
  • Paronychia is manifested by throbbing pain in the limb that increases as patient leaves the limb.
  • In addition, there is redness and swelling of the tissues around the nail.
  • Treatment consists of incision of the abscess, and if the inflammation also affects the tissue under the nail, removal of the nail.
349
Q

A felon is

A
  • an inflammation that develops on the palmar side of the hand and fingers. Its etiology is also mainly staphylococcal.
  • In the case of a felon, the inflammatory process may be local - limited to the skin, or also include subcutaneous tissue, tendons, bones, and joints.
  • We distinguish the felon:

skin;
subcutaneous - swelling may also appear on the dorsal side of the finger;
tendinous;
bony;
joint.
- The symptoms of a felon, depending on its type, are pain, swelling, limited mobility, and even fever and chills in the tendon, bone and joint felon.
- Treatment consists of incision of the skin and removal of pus, and in more severe cases, antibiotic therapy and immobilization of the hand.

350
Q

Paraphimosis

A
  • is a common urologic emergency that occurs in uncircumcised males when the foreskin becomes trapped behind the corona of the glans penis.
  • This can lead to strangulation of the glans and painful vascular compromise, distal venous engorgement, edema, and even necrosis
351
Q

A 56-year-old male patient diagnosed with adenocarcinoma of the body of the stomach, confirmed by histopathological findings, came to see a doctor at an outpatient clinic. Which examination will you order for the local staging assessment of the cancer:

A

abdominal CT

  1. it is a thorough examination that *allows the assessment of both infiltration and the presence of metastases. *
  2. It allows for the* assessment of the clinical advancement of the tumor.*
352
Q

Is CEA a cancer marker?

A
  1. carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test measures the level of CEA in the blood.
  2. CEA is a protein normally found in the tissue of a developing baby in the womb.
  3. The blood level of this protein disappears or becomes very low after birth. In adults, an abnormal level of CEA may be a sign of cancer.
  4. Anything greater than 10 ng/mL suggests extensive disease, and levels greater than 20 ng/mL suggest the cancer may be spreading.
  5. carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) test is used to check how well treatment is working in certain types of cancer, particularly bowel cancer.
  6. Carcinoembryonic antigens are proteins produced by some types of cancer. In response to the antigens, the body produces antibodies to help fight them.
353
Q

A 70-year-old female patient with a history of rectal cancer surgery three years before, came in to an outpatient clinic. She provided the findings of the last two CEA blood tests. The first one showed 8.45 ng/ml, and the other one, performed three months afterwards, 19.39 ng/ml (normal range <5.0 ng/ml). The dual-phase abdominal and thoracic CT scan and colonoscopy findings did not show any abnormalities. Indicate which examination should be ordered for the patient:

A
  • PET-CT is a more precise examination than CT, and it also covers the entire body.
  • it is possible to assess whether the metastases have appeared in other places than those we examined in CT or colonoscopy.
354
Q

Polydipsia

A

excessive thirst.

355
Q

The main types of catecholamines are

A
  • dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine.
    Epinephrine is also known as adrenaline.
356
Q

What is catecholamine made from?

A

All catecholamines are synthesized from the amino acid l-tyrosine according to the following sequence:

tyrosine → dopa (dihydroxyphenylalanine) → dopamine → norepinephrine (noradrenaline) → epinephrine (adrenaline).

357
Q

Where are catecholamines produced?

A
  • Neuroendocrine chromaffin cells, responsible for the biosynthesis of catecholamines, are located throughout the brain and in the adrenal glands.
  • The highest density of chromaffin cells is located within the adrenal medulla, the most functionally significant area of catecholamine production
358
Q

Desmoid tumors

A
  • are noncancerous growths that occur in the connective tissue.
  • most often occur in the abdomen, arms and legs.
  • Another term for desmoid tumors is aggressive fibromatosis.
  • Some desmoid tumors are slow growing and don’t require immediate treatmen
  • associated with a mutation of the* CTNNB1 gene*, and many of these appear during or after pregnancy.
  • Some desmoid tumors are linked to previous injuries.
  • In rare instances, desmoid tumors are associated with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), a genetic condition that’s linked to colon cancer.
359
Q

direct inguinal hernia

A
  • always an acquired hernia (it is worth noting that the patient in the question suffers from COPD - a chronic, intense cough may predispose to hernia formation).
  • Its gate is the medial inguinal fossa (Hesselbach’s triangle).
  • In a simple inguinal hernia, the inferior epigastric vessels visible in USG lie laterally from the hernial sac - as is the case with the patient in the question.
  • This hernia is less common than the oblique inguinal hernia, has a short canal, and never goes down to the scrotum
360
Q

6

Diagnostics of bile duct neoplasms:

A

USG - first-line examination in the diagnosis of cholesthetic jaundice;

CT - allows you to determine the degree of advancement and resectability;

MR - a key test for suspected cholangiocarcinoma;

MRCP - visualizes narrowing and widening of the bile ducts;

EUS - assessment of extrahepatic bile ducts, gallbladder, hilum, regional lymph nodes and vessels;

ERCP - allows you to take specimens for histopathological examination and brush swab;

361
Q

USG

A
  • first-line examination in the diagnosis of cholesthetic jaundice;
362
Q

CT

A
  • allows you to determine the degree of advancement and resectability;
363
Q

MRI

A
  • a key test for suspected cholangiocarcinoma;
364
Q

MRCP

A
  • magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) is an imaging test to examine pancreatic and biliary (bile duct) systems.
  • test uses a dye, infused into your veins through an intravenous (IV) line.
  • visualizes narrowing and widening of the bile ducts;
365
Q

EUS

A
  • assessment of extrahepatic bile ducts, gallbladder, hilum, regional lymph nodes and vessels;
  • An endoscopic ultrasound (EUS) procedure examines the inside of your digestive tract.
  • can detect pancreatic cancer, colon cancer, as well as cancer that’s spread to other parts of your body.
  • EUS can also detect inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), pancreatitis and other causes of abdominal pain.
366
Q

Treatment:

A
  1. endoscopic polypectomy or ampulectomy;
  2. local excision of the lesion by duodenotomy;
  3. ;
  4. papillotomy with drainage of the bile ducts - palliative treatment.
367
Q

ampullary cancer (cancer of the ampulla of Vater)

Treatment:

A
  1. endoscopic polypectomy or ampulectomy;
  2. local excision of the lesion by duodenotomy;
  3. pancreatoduodenectomy
  4. papillotomy with drainage of the bile ducts - palliative treatment.
368
Q

The most common thyroid cancer

A

-** papillary carcinoma**,
- which originates in follicular cells,

  • while the proliferation of C cells, also known as perivveolar cells, results in an outbreak of medullary thyroid cancer, which only occurs in 5% of cases.
369
Q

Dispanserization:

A
  • Identification of homogeneous groups in the population requiring special medical care.
  • In occupational medicine it is e.g. a group of workers exposed to permanent effects of a specific factor harmful to health at the workplace.
370
Q

describe

Visceral pain

A

-it is conducted by sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers of the autonomic nerves
-it is difficult to locate it exactly
-more often it is referred pain than felt at the source of pain
-the pain is deep and diffuse
-may be permanent or colic
-it is characteristic that the patient cannot find a position in which the pain would be less severe

371
Q

Organic Pain

A

is caused by an organic disease (such as obstruction, Crohn’s disease, etc.)

372
Q

Somatic Pain

A

-results from irritation of the pain endings of the spinal nerves that innervate the parietal peritoneum
-it is precisely located, it radiates in certain directions
-it is accompanied by muscular defense and increased eyelid tension

373
Q

Neurologic pain

A

-pain occurs in the area of ​​innervation of a given nerve
-its example is, for example, trigeminal neuralgia
is often violent

374
Q

Phantom pain

A

-discomfort is felt at the site of the amputated part of the body
it is unrelated to the action of pain stimuli
-the pain may be dull , burning or cramping

375
Q

A fracture of the first metacarpal is called a

A

Bennett’s fracture.

376
Q

Monteggia fracture -

A

isolated fracture of the shaft of the ulna with displaced fragments and dislocation of the radial head.

377
Q

Galeazzi fracture -

A

isolated fracture of the radial shaft with displaced fragments and dislocation of the head of the ulna.

378
Q

Smith’s fracture -

A

fracture of the distal epiphysis of the radius with volar displacement of the fragments (conversely, not Colles’ fracture) - occurs as a result of a fall on an outstretched limb in the palmar flexion of the wrist joint

379
Q

cause, sympt, tx

Colles’ fracture

A
  • is a fracture of the distal epiphysis ( loco typico ) of the radius. This type of fracture is the most common within the distal epiphysis of this bone.

Cause: fall on an outstretched limb with dorsiflexion in the radiocarpal joint and simultaneous setting of the forearm in the reversal position.

Symptoms: upward bending and dorsal displacement of the distal radius. Significant swelling of the wrist and deformation of the axis of the forearm are visible.

Treatment: setting and immobilization for 4-6 weeks . In the case of an unstable fracture, Kirschner wires are used to fix the fractures and a plaster cast is used.

380
Q

Volkmann syndrome (Volkman’s contracture):

A

-flexion contracture of the fingers of the hand
-most often affects children between 4 and 8 years of age
-is most often caused by a supracondylar fracture of the humerus -

symptoms - evolution:
-forearm pain => loss of feeling in the forearm, pale and blue fingers => swelling of the hand increases => fibrosis of the forearm muscles => the hand takes on a clawed appearance

381
Q

Homans sign

A
  • appearance of pain in the calf and popliteal fossa during dorsiflexion of the foot, may be useful in the diagnosis.
  • The cause is increased tension and stiffness of the calf muscles.
  • The presence of this symptom confirms the diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis of the lower limbs, although it is not a necessary symptom to make a diagnosis and does not always occur.
382
Q

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT )

A

is the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the lower limbs, less often the upper limbs.

383
Q

Factors known as Virchow’s triad lead to the formation of a blood clot:

A

-slowing down blood flow (e.g. due to immobilization of a limb)
-damage to the vessel wall (e.g. as a result of trauma)
-predominance of prothrombotic factors over coagulation inhibitors and fibrinolytic factors (inherited and acquired thrombophilias)

384
Q

Virchow’s triad

The most important risk factors for the disease are:

A

prolonged immobilization
past venous thrombosis
Cancer
surgery
bone injuries and fractures
pregnancy and puerperium
thrombocythemia
thrombophilias

385
Q

Buerger’s disease

A

( thromboangiitis obliterans) is a disease of small and medium-sized arteries and veins of the limbs, which leads to the formation of blood clots and vascular overgrowth.

The disease usually affects young, smoking men aged about 20-30 years, and cases after the age of 50 are rare.

386
Q

The Fontaine scale is used to assess

A

The Fontaine scale is used to assess the degree of limb ischemia, which determines the choice of treatment method

387
Q

name “degree’s”

Fontaine scale:

A

-I degree - a patient asymptomatic or with non-specific symptoms such as numbness and freezing of the fingers

-II degree - a patient with intermittent claudication

-III degree - the patient feels pain in the limb at rest

-IV degree - the patient’s limb is covered with necrosis

388
Q

name 7

Antiemetic treatment:

A
  1. First generation antihistamines (dimenhydrinate, promethazine)
    2 Phenothiazine derivatives (chlorpromazine, thiethylperazine, levomepromazine, prochlorperazine)
  2. Haloperidol (induced emesis and metabolic disorders)
  3. Prokinetic drugs (metoclopramide, itopride)
  4. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonists (ondansetron, palonosetron)
  5. Corticosteroids (dexamethasone, methylprednisolone)
  6. NK1 receptor antagonists (aprepitant)
389
Q

Complications of vomiting:

A

-dehydration,
-electrolyte imbalance ( hypokalaemia, hypochloremia ),
-metabolic alkalosis ,
-aspiration and aspiration pneumonia,
-rupture of the wall of the esophagus (Boerhaave’s syndrome)
-inear ruptures of the mucosa in the region of the gastroesophageal junction (Mallory-Weiss syndrome),
-malnutrition

390
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A
  • a syndrome caused by a mutation in the APC gene , causing the formation of polyps in the large intestine (usually more than 100) and in the stomach and duodenum.

Patients with this genetic syndrome from 10-12 years of age r _ require annual follow-up colonoscopy and gastroduodenoscopy, as the risk of developing cancer around the age of 35 is almost 100%.

391
Q

Variations:

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A
  1. Gardner’s syndrome (FAP and osteomas, retinal changes and soft tissue tumours),
  2. Turcot’s syndrome (FAP and CNS tumours).
392
Q

FAP-familial adenomatous polyposis

Treatment:

A
  • prophylactic colectomy or proctolectomy with the creation of a pouch from the small intestine are usually used in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life, while pharmacological treatment is treated as complementary.
  • The best effect can be achieved with NSAIDs.
  • The use of COX-2 inhibitors may be initiated after exclusion of the presence of factors that increase the risk of cardiac complications.

In the case of rectal-sparing surgery, an average rectal examination should be performed every 3-6 months .

393
Q

Mallory-Weiss syndrome is

A
  • a linear tear in the mucosa of the ventral esophagus and gastric cardia. -
  • TRUE. They are usually located on the posterior wall of the stomach , and the coexistence of a sliding hiatal hernia may be observed.

They are caused by conditions that can cause increased pressure in the region of the cardia, e.g. intense vomiting, coughing. This is a syndrome seen more often in people who abuse alcohol.

Its symptoms are vomiting, characteristic coffee grounds or bloody content.

394
Q

Ulcerative colitis is a disease from the group of inflammatory bowel dis

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

A
  • is characterized by longitudinal mucosal lacerations (intramural dissection) in the distal esophagus and proximal stomach, which are usually associated with forceful or prolonged vomiting or retching.
  • The lacerations often lead to bleeding from submucosal arteries.
395
Q

```

Ulcerative colitis is a disease from

A
  • the group of inflammatory bowel diseases, which is most often diagnosed between the ages of 20 and 40 .
  • The clinical picture of the disease is dominated mainly by diarrhea with an admixture of blood and abdominal pain.
  • patient reports symptoms that do not result directly from inflammation of the intestine.

persistent itching of the skin
chronic fatigue
weakness
All these symptoms are similar to those associated with cholestasis . Of the given distractors, the listed conditions that can cause bile blockage are:

396
Q

cholecystitis

A

→ occurs most often in the complication of gallstones, typically pain and fever symptoms resulting from inflammation in this area predominate.
-Ulcerative colitis is also not a disease that predisposes to gallstones, which is the cause of inflammation.
-Typically, urolithiasis occurs mainly inobese women over 40 years of age.

397
Q

chronic pancreatitis

A

→ chronic pancreatitis as a result of inflammation of the pancreatic parenchyma, formation of inflammatory cysts may lead to compression of the bile ducts.
-In this case, however, the key to the diagnosis would be the presence of symptoms in this patient such as strong, enveloping upper abdominal pain and risk factors for CP (mainly alcoholism

398
Q

primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

-it is a disease often coexisting with inflammatory bowel diseases, mainly ulcerative colitis.
-In addition, it occurs mainly in males (as in the patient described in the question).
-The disease is more common in men (70–75%)
- The coexistence of inflammatory bowel disease is very characteristic of PSC. Such a coincidence is observed in more than 75% of patients with PSC and most often it is UC .
- This disease is characterized by a chronic inflammatory process with subsequent fibrosis of the bile ducts causing obstruction to the formation and flow of bile, i.e. cholestasis

399
Q

**

Courvoisier’s sign consists

A

-of painless jaundice and an enlarged, painless gallbladder palpable through the abdomen.

-It is most often associated with a tumor of the pancreaticoduodenal area, which, by infiltrating the common bile duct, causes impaired bile flow from the liver to the intestine, which leads to mechanical jaundice and gallbladder distension

400
Q

**

Severe injuries, especially when there has been a hemorrhage ( shock ),
include the so-called

A

“death triad”:

-hypothermia - below 34 degrees
-coagulopathy PT >19 sec, APTT >60 sec.
-acidosis - pH <7.2

401
Q

define

carcinoid

A
  • gastrointestinal cancer,
  • most often located in the appendix : 90% according to Noszczyk,
    usually less than 2 cm, too small to metastasize to the liver
  • other location: shadow intestine (terminal ileum - metastases from here to the liver much more often), esophagus, stomach, large intestine, bronchi
  • neuroendocrine tumor: secretes mainly serotonin
402
Q

incidence and associated with

Carcinoid syndrome:

A
  • incidence: 1–2/100,000.
  • They are more common in women and the elderly
  • associated with the release of serotonin into the blood
403
Q

Symptoms:

Carcinoid syndrome:

A
  • Symptoms: (seizures in carcinoid syndrome may occur under the influence of certain stimuli, such as stress, physical exertion , alcohol , meal , certain medications (especially antidepressants):
    acceleration of heart rate
  • paroxysmal redness of the skin of the face and neck
    dizziness
    hypertension
    excessive sweating
    diarrhea
    stomach pain
404
Q

Sudeck’s syndrome, otherwise known as

A

algodystrophy, is a painful, long-lasting swelling of periarticular tissues with blood supply disorders and atrophic changes in soft tissues and bones.

-Most commonly, the wrist is affected , less often the knee, foot, ankle, sometimes the whole limb (shoulder-hand or hip-foot syndrome), occasionally the face or trunk.

A factor conducive to the development of the disease is too tightly applied immobilizing dressing or placing the limb in a forced position.

405
Q

Sudeck’s syndrome

Symptoms of the Sudeck’s syndrome include:

A

thin, cool and moist skin
brittle nails
contracture in joints located peripherally from the fracture
muscle wasting

406
Q

Sudeck’s syndrome
Treatment consists of

A

rehabilitation
physical therapy
pharmacological treatment to improve circulation and bone calcification.

407
Q

Raynaud’s phenomenon consists in the appearance of

A
  • consists in the appearance of paleness, bruising and then reddening of the skin of the fingers and/or toes when exposed to cold.
  • This symptom arises as a result of a rapid contraction and then relaxation of small arterioles in the fingers and toes
408
Q

Juvenile arthritis is the most common

A
  • is the most common childhood arthropathy .
  • The diagnosis of JIA must meet the criteria of the International League Against -Rheumatism (ILAR): onset before the age of 16, at least 6 weeks of clinical symptoms, exclusion of other causes of arthritis.
409
Q

Leriche’s syndrome is an

A

Leriche’s syndrome is an obstruction or stenosis of the distal abdominal aorta or iliac arteries. It most often affects older men .
- As in Buerger’s disease, the symptoms of Leriche’s syndrome include ischemia of the lower limbs and intermittent claudication, as well as skin necrosis resulting from ischemia . An additional symptom of the syndrome is erectile dysfunction .
- Another similarity is that smoking is a risk factor for the disease.
- Unlike Buerger’s disease, Leriche’s syndrome is associated with atherosclerosis.

410
Q

Horton’s disease

A

or giant cell arteritis, most commonly affects the aorta and/or its branches.
- Women are affected 2-3 times more often than men .
- Most often, the disease begins in the 7th decade of life.

411
Q

Buerger’s disease, otherwise known as

A

** thromboangiitis obliterans**,
- is an inflammation of the walls (all layers of the vessels) of the vessels of small arteries, which leads to the formation of blood clots and overgrowth of its lumen.
- It is most common on the lower extremities and affects both small arteries and veins.
- The disease usually affects young men, below 40 years of age, and one of the most important factors involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is smoking.
- Stopping smoking can stop the progression of the disease.
- As a result of vasculitis, their lumen becomes overgrown, which results in:

lower limb ischemia
and resulting intermittent claudication
numbness of the fingers
blueness and coldness of the skin of the feet
↑ foot sweating Symptoms of Buerger’s disease do not result from the presence of atherosclerosis.

412
Q

The Fontaine classification describes the symptoms in a patient with

A

** chronic lower limb ischemia**
- It is a condition in which the supply of oxygen to the tissues is insufficient due to chronic impairment of blood flow in the arteries.
- In most cases, the cause of chronic ischemia is atherosclerosis.

413
Q

Classification acc. Fontaine:
1
2a
2b
3
4

A

I - asymptomatic
IIa - claudication > 200 m - mild claudication
IIb - claudication < 200 m - moderate/severe claudication
III - pain at rest
IV - necrosis and ischemic ulcers

414
Q

Leriche’s syndrome is a

A

set of symptoms caused by stenosis or occlusion of the distal abdominal aorta and/or iliac arteries

415
Q

Leriche’s syndrome
Symptoms:

A
  • In >98% of patients, atherosclerosis is the cause of ischemia.

Symptoms:

  • easier fatigue of the lower limbs, cold and pale feet.
  • no pulse in the groin on both femoral arteries
  • erectile dysfunction caused by obstruction of the internal iliac arteries
    impotence
  • clear symptoms of ischemia, i.e. intermittent claudication and retrograde changes, appear only after 3-5 years
416
Q

define and Provide Grade

The Forrest classification is used to assess the severity of

A

** ulcer bleeding:**

Grade:
(Ia) - active bleeding that is throbbing
(Ib) - oozing

IIa - visible non-bleeding vessel
IIb - clot at the bottom of the ulcer
**IIc **- discolored ulcer base

III - white bottom of the ulcer

417
Q

The most common type of neoplastic polyps, i.e. those in which features of dysplasia can be observed, are

A

adenomatous polyps

418
Q

The risk of malignant transformation of an adenomatous polyp into adenocarcinoma depends on:

A
  • diameter (the risk increases with large polyp sizes),
  • shape (sitting polyp is more predisposed to transformation),
  • histological structure - the risk of transformation into cancer is the highest in the case of villous adenoma
  • the lowest in the case of tubular adenoma
419
Q

name 3

Non-cancerous polyps:

A
  1. hamartomas (found in Peutz-Jeghers disease and juvenile polyposis
  2. inflammatory polyps (pseudo, arise as a result of incomplete destruction of the mucous membrane),
  3. hyperplastic polyps (small changes made of glandular tubules, without features of cellular atypia )
420
Q

Dunphy’s sign

A
  • otherwise cough symptom; pain when coughing is caused by an increase in intra-abdominal pressure and an increase in abdominal muscle tone.
  • May be positive in acute appendicitis
421
Q

Blumberg’s sign

A
  • is a symptom found in peritonitis, acute appendicitis, characterized by sharp pain that occurs when the pressure is suddenly released when the examiner’s hand is removed from the abdominal integuments.
422
Q

Jaworski’s sign

A
  • characteristic of retro-caecal appendicitis.
    • The patient, lying on his back, raises the straightened lower limb, and the examiner presses with his hand in the area of ​​the appendix.
      • The symptom is positive when the patient feels gradually increasing pain when lowering the lower limb.
423
Q

MacBurney point

A

(between the outer and middle 1/3 of the line connecting the navel with the right upper iliac spine), muscular defense and Blumberg’s sign.

424
Q

Cullen’s sign is

A

Cullen’s sign is superficial edema and bruising in the subcutaneous fatty tissue around the umbilicus.

425
Q

Cullen’s sign
Causes include:

A
  • acute pancreatitis, where methemalbumin formed from digested blood tracks around the abdomen from the inflamed pancreas
  • bleeding from blunt abdominal trauma
  • bleeding from aortic rupture
  • bleeding from ruptured ectopic pregnancy
426
Q

Symptoms - Whipple’s triad:

A
  • Disturbances of consciousness (memory disorders, periodic blackouts, apathy).
  • Hypoglycemia.
  • Relief of symptoms after administration of carbohydrates (occur during fasting).
427
Q

define, diag, tx

Insulinoma (isletoma)

A
  • is a rare cancer of the pancreas that can occur in any age group, but most often affects adults.
  • In most cases it is a benign tumor (75%).

Diagnosis: determination of the serum insulin to glucose ratio after fasting.

Treatment: surgical enucleation of the tumor or partial pancreatectomy.

428
Q

Ogilvie’s syndrome

A

(acute pseudoobstructive obstruction of the large intestine) - this is a special form of paralytic ileus, involving a significant dilatation of the right half of the colon.

429
Q

Ogilvie’s syndrome
Risk factors:

A

age - occurs in people over 70 years of age,
medical history - past operations within the abdominal cavity,
injuries - extensive bodily injury.

430
Q

Ogilvie’s syndrome
Symptoms

A

Symptoms - similar to mechanical obstruction:

  • colicky abdominal pain that runs in waves,
  • vomiting,
  • gas and stool retention
  • abdominal bloating,
  • in slim people, the symptom of “intestinal erection”,
  • auscultation of single, metallic tones of peristalsis,
  • peritoneal signs may appear on physical examination.
431
Q

**

Ogilvie’s syndrome
Diagnosis :

A

A colorectal contrast scan or colonoscopy that does not show a mechanical obstruction is critical (differentiation from mechanical obstruction).

432
Q

type of cancer

Stage - Dukes classification
(Duke has what type of cancer?)

A

Colorectal cancer - about 85% are adenocarcinomas.

Stage - Dukes classification :

A - tumor limited to the intestinal wall
B - the tumor crosses the intestinal wall
C - the extent of the tumor is irrelevant because there are metastases in the lymph nodes:
C1 - paracolic
C2 - along the blood vessels
D - distant metastases.

433
Q

Lauren’s classification - is the most commonly used microscopic classification of
(Lauren has what type of cancer ?)

A

Stomach cancer - 95% of it is gastric adenocarcinoma

Lauren I - intestinal type - more endemic, most likely related to environmental factors, better prognosis
Lauren II - diffuse type - worse prognosis, genetic predisposition.

434
Q

The staging of pancreatic cancer and hepatocellular carcinoma is based on the?

A

TNM classification.

435
Q

Ogilvie’s syndrome
also known as?

A

acute pseudoobstructive ileus

  • colonic obstruction without obstruction -
  • manifested by a large dilatation of the right half of the colon without obstruction of the large intestine
  • most likely it is caused by disturbed autonymous innervation of the intestine as a result of e.g. injury, surgery, medications, metabolic diseases
  • most often affects people over 70 years of age
  • diagnostics (examinations do not show a mechanical obstacle in the large intestine):
  • colorectal examination of the large intestine
  • colonoscopy
436
Q

Linitis plastica is

A
  • a special form of gastric cancer, causing diffuse thickening of its wall , which makes it stiff and resistant to stretching.
  • This form gives early metastases to the lymph nodes.
437
Q

adenocarcinoma

A

The most common malignant tumor of the stomach, occurring in up to 95% of cases

438
Q

Klatskin’s tumor is

A

a cancer of the bile ducts located at the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts

439
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma most often occurs in the

A

extrahepatic ducts, taking the form of adenocarcinoma.

440
Q

Pancreatic head cancer - symptoms:

A
  • pain in the epigastrium often appearing at night, radiating to the left hypochondrium or to the thoracic spine of a “burning” or “crushing” nature.
  • Changing the position of the body with a forward bend usually reduces the intensity of pain.
  • Mechanical jaundice and Courvoisier’s sign (palpable through the integuments, enlarged, painless gallbladder) may be the first symptom of a tumor located in the head of the pancreas.
  • Jaundice is caused by compression or tumor invasion of the common bile duct.
  • The risk of pancreatic cancer increases with age, and more than 80% of cases are diagnosed after the age of 50, so in a 68-year-old patient with painless jaundice, always rule out pancreatic head cancer first.
441
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis

A
  • this is the old name of primary cholangitis (PBC) , i.e. a chronic autoimmune liver disease of unknown etiology, with cholestasis caused by the destruction of the small intrahepatic bile ducts.
  • The main symptoms are chronic fatigue, skin itching and pain in the right subcostal area.
  • Hepatomegaly, jaundice, signs of cirrhosis are present.
  • Other autoimmune diseases may coexist.
442
Q

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

A
  • chronic, cholestatic liver disease leading to damage to the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts.
  • In 15-45% of patients, the course is asymptomatic.
  • Main symptoms as in PBC. Ulcerative colitis or, less frequently, Crohn’s disease coexist in 70% of patients.
443
Q

Acute cholecystitis

A
  • in 90% of cases caused by obstruction of the gallbladder duct by deposits of gallstones.
  • Usually preceded by an attack of biliary colic.
  • The pain is dull, not clearly localized, and may cover the entire epigastrium.
  • They are accompanied by nausea, vomiting, fever, chills and elevated inflammatory parameters.
  • There was tenderness on pressure and muscular defense in the right hypochondrium, positive Chełmoński’s sign .
444
Q

Acute cholangitis

A
  • an acute inflammatory process of the intra- and/or extrahepatic bile ducts caused by infection as a result of obstruction or obstruction of the outflow of bile.
  • Typical clinical symptoms include the Charcot triad - severe pain in the form of biliary colic in the right hypochondrium or in the middle epigastrium, fever with chills and jaundice.
445
Q

Acute inflammation should be differentiated from:

Which disease entities should be considered in the differential diagnosis of acute cholecystitis?

A
  • peptic ulcer perforation ,
  • acute retrocecal appendicitis in the upper abdominal cavity,
  • acute pancreatitis ,
  • myocardial infarction,
  • basal pneumonia.
446
Q

In simple inguinal hernia,

A
  • the inferior epigastric vessels visible in ultrasound lie lateral to the hernial sac
  • This hernia is less common than the oblique inguinal hernia,
  • has a short canal,
  • and never descends into the scrotum.
447
Q

Based on TNM gastric cancer

Assessment of the primary focus

A

Tx- primary tumor cannot be assessed

T0- no features of the primary tumor

Tiscan in situ - does not infiltrate the lamina propria, high-grade dysplasia

T1- tumor invades the lamina propria, muscularis or submucosa

T2- the tumor invades the muscle layer

T3- the tumor infiltrates the subserous layer

T4- Tumor perforates the serosa (visceral peritoneum) or invades adjacent structures

448
Q

Assessment of regional lymph nodes

A

Nx- local lymph nodes cannot be assessed

N0- there are no metastases in regional lymph nodes

N1- metastases in 1-2 regional lymph nodes

N2- metastases in 3-6 regional lymph nodes

N3- metastases in at least 7 regional lymph nodes

449
Q

Assessment of distant metastases

A

M0- no distant metastases are found

M1- distant metastases are found

450
Q

Hernia
The main indication for laparoscopic operations are ?
Name 3 traditional operations

A

** recurrent hernias**

traditional operations:
Bassini
Halsted
Shouldice

451
Q

Hernia
Name 3 Mesh operations

A

mesh operations ( tension-free methods ): –> better results than traditional operations
Liechtenstein
Rutkow
PHS (prolen hernia system)

452
Q

**

Takayasu disease is characterized by inflammatory changes in:
name 4 types

A

Type I - there are symptoms of cerebral ischemia resulting from changes in the aortic arch,

Type II - there are arterial hypertension, which is the result of changes in the aorta or renal arteries,

Type III - there are changes above and below the diaphragm,

Type IV - there are changes in the aortic wall or its branches.

453
Q

**

A
454
Q

Causes of hypertonic dehydration:

A

Hypertonic dehydration is a lack of water in the body, and increased effective molality (hypertonia) of body fluids is also present.

  • insufficient water supply
  • loss of water through the lungs (hyperventilation - in addition, it can cause respiratory alkalosis)
  • loss of hypotonic fluid through the skin (sweating)
  • fluid loss through the digestive tract (diarrhoea, vomiting)
  • renal fluid loss (diabetes insipidus, excessive diuresis due to glucosuria).
455
Q

Courvoisier’s sign

A
  • an enlarged, painless and palpable gallbladder.
  • It occurs in tumors located within the junction of the cystic duct with the common hepatic duct or within the common bile duct.
456
Q

Uncomplicated diverticular disease of the large intestine is treated

A
  • **conservatively. **
  • It is advisable to regulate the rhythm of bowel movements, increase the amount of fluids, a high-residue diet,
  • drugs that increase stool volume and soften the consistency: e.g.
    paraffin,
    mebeverine
  • antispasmodics:e.g.
    hyoscine, drotaverine
457
Q

pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor - VIP-oma

A

→ severe diarrhea leading to electrolyte disturbances such as hypochloridia, hypokalemia with cardiac arrhythmias and asthenia, non-respiratory acidosis is typical.

458
Q

pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor - glucagonoma

A

→ it is a tumor originating from the alpha cells of the pancreas and secreting glucagon. Symptoms are related to the secreted hormone and include diabetes, weight loss, mucositis, diarrhea, anemia, creeping erythema necrotic.

459
Q

pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor - glucagonoma

A

→ it is a tumor originating from the alpha cells of the pancreas and secreting glucagon. Symptoms are related to the secreted hormone and include diabetes, weight loss, mucositis, diarrhea, anemia, creeping erythema necrotic.

460
Q

pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor - insulinoma

A

→ it is a tumor originating from the β cells of the islets of the pancreas. It secretes insulin, and for this reason, in the course of this cancer, we can expect hypoglycemic episodes in the patient and related disorders of consciousness and behavior.

461
Q

pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor - gastrinoma

A

→ a tumor that secretes gastrin, which stimulates the production of gastric juice.
Symptoms cause Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.

462
Q

Zollinger–Ellison syndrome (Z-E syndrome)

A
  • is a disease in which tumors cause the stomach to produce too much acid, resulting in peptic ulcers.
  • Symptoms include abdominal pain and diarrhea.
  • The syndrome is caused by a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes a hormone called gastrin.
  • Too much gastrin in the blood (hypergastrinemia) results in the overproduction of gastric acid by parietal cells in the stomach.
  • Gastrinomas most commonly arise in the duodenum, pancreas or stomach
463
Q

division according to the depth of the burn:

A

degree I - covers only the epidermis (erythema)

stage II a - involves the epidermis and part of the dermis (bladder)

stage II b - covers the epidermis and dermis (superficial necrosis)

stage III - the entire thickness of the skin is necrotic (deep necrosis)

stage IV - necrosis or charring of deeper tissues.

464
Q

burns that can be described as severe :

A
  • 2nd degree burns >25% of the body surface in adults and >20% of the body surface in children
  • 3rd degree burns >10% of body surface regardless of age
  • 3rd degree burns of hands, face, neck, feet, hands, perineum, circular
  • inhalation, electrical and chemical burns
  • burns complicated by other severe injuries or comorbidities
465
Q

to calculate the burn area of: We use the rule of nines, which is as follows:

A

Head - 9%
Each of the upper limbs - 9%
Each of the lower limbs - 18%
Front torso - 18%
Back of the body - 18%
crotch - 1%

466
Q

Name and actual formula used

most commonly used Formula for calculating fluid transfusions

A

**Parkland’s Rule **is the most commonly used rule for calculating fluid transfusions.

First 24h:

Ringer’s lactate solution - 4ml * kg body weight * % burnt body surface,

i.e. in our case: 4ml * 100kg * 19 = 7600 ml in 24 hours

NOTE: The planned daily volume of fluids is given in the following time intervals:

In the first 8 hours, we administer half of the calculated volume of fluids.

467
Q

Paronychia

A
  • an inflammation of the skin around the nail, which can occur suddenly, when it is usually due to the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus, or gradually when it is commonly caused by the fungus Candida albicans
468
Q

Name

Forrest classification of the severity of ulcer bleeding:

A

I a - active arterial bleeding (active bleeding).
I b - active oozing bleeding.
IIa - visible non-bleeding vessel (recent bleeding).
II b - clot at the bottom of the ulcer.
II c - discolored ulcer base.
III - white bottom of the ulcer (long-term bleeding).

469
Q

The Forrest classification is used to assess

A
  • bleeding during gastroduodenoscopy .
  • It is the basic diagnostic test when bleeding into the upper gastrointestinal tract (above the Treitz ligament) is suspected.
470
Q

name 6

We distinguish anesthesia:

A
  1. superficial (application of the drug to the surface of the mucous membranes, used in dentistry and endoscopic procedures),
  2. infiltration (injecting lidocaine into the surgical field during small procedures on integuments),
  3. peripheral nerves ( nerve plexus blocks ),
  4. epidural (administration of the drug into the epidural space),
  5. subarachnoid (administration of the drug into the subarachnoid space),
  6. segmental intravenous anesthesia (administration of the drug into a vein distal to the applied tourniquet, useful in fractures of the upper limb and hand operations).
471
Q

What blood type increases the risk of Stomacn cancer

A

Blood type A

472
Q

WHO recommends that malnutrition should be suspected in patients with BMI

A

BMI < 18.5 kg/m2.

473
Q

Kwashiorkor is a type of malnutrition, which consists of:

A
  • Hypoalbuminemia
  • Edema (due to hypoalbuminemia)
  • water and electrolyte disturbances.

You can also come across a definition saying that kwashiorkor is malnutrition caused by a significant deficiency of protein in a diet with a high supply of carbohydrates.

474
Q

Types of pain name

Types of pain

A

Visceral pain
Organic pain
Somatic pain
Neuralgic pain

475
Q

Types of pain

Visceral pain

A

it is conducted by sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers of the autonomic nerves
it is difficult to locate it exactly
more often it is referred pain than felt at the source of pain
the pain is deep and diffuse
may be permanent or colic
it is characteristic that the patient cannot find a position in which the pain would be less severe

476
Q

Organic pain

A

Organic pain
is caused by an organic disease (such as obstruction, Crohn’s disease, etc.)

477
Q

Somatic Pain

A

results from irritation of the pain endings of the spinal nerves that innervate the parietal peritoneum
it is precisely located, it radiates in certain directions
it is accompanied by muscular defense and increased eyelid tension

478
Q

Neurologic Pain

A

pain occurs in the area of ​​innervation of a given nerve
its example is, for example, trigeminal neuralgia
is often violent

479
Q

Neurologic Pain

A

pain occurs in the area of ​​innervation of a given nerve
its example is, for example, trigeminal neuralgia
is often violent

480
Q

Phantom Pain

A

discomfort is felt at the site of the amputated part of the body
it is unrelated to the action of pain stimuli
the pain may be dull , burning or cramping

481
Q

Phantom Pain

A

discomfort is felt at the site of the amputated part of the body
it is unrelated to the action of pain stimuli
the pain may be dull , burning or cramping

482
Q

Angle of Hiss

A
  • the angle formed between the cardia and the esophagus.
483
Q

Hiatal hernias:

Sliding hernia

A
  • protrusion of the cardia and the upper part of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus into the posterior mediastinum. Hiss angle is abolished -
484
Q

Hiatal hernias:

Sliding hernia

A
  • protrusion of the cardia and the upper part of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus into the posterior mediastinum. Hiss angle is abolished -
485
Q

Hiatal hernias:

Sliding hernia

A
  • protrusion of the cardia and the upper part of the stomach through the esophageal hiatus into the posterior mediastinum. Hiss angle is abolished -
486
Q

Hiatal hernias

Paraesophageal hernia

A
  • protrusion of the fundus of the stomach and the greater curvature through the esophageal hiatus into the posterior mediastinum.
  • The groove is positioned correctly -
487
Q

hiatal hernias

Mixed hernia

A
  • displacement to the mediastinal cardia, upper stomach, fundus and greater curvature
488
Q

Diaphragmatic hernias

Diaphragmatic hernias
name 2

remember “BM”

A

Diaphragmatic hernias** (not affecting the angle of His):**

Morgani’s hernia
Bochdalek’s (posterior) hernia

489
Q

The angle of His, also known as

A
  • also known as the esophagogastric angle, is the acute angle created between the cardia at the entrance to the stomach, and the esophagus.
  • It helps to prevent acid reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus.
  • It is commonly undeveloped in infants, making acid reflux more common
490
Q

External hernias:

A

groin,
thigh,
navel,
peristomal,
lumbar.

491
Q

**Internal hernias:

A

Internal hernias consist in the displacement of the viscera into the recesses of the peritoneum or into the chest. Most often they occur in the form of the intestine entering the recesses of the duodenum or cecum.

diaphragmatic hernia,
paracaecal hernia,
periduodenal recess,
net bag.**

492
Q

Lumbar hernia

A

Lumbar hernia - arises in the course of weakness of the muscles of the lumbar triangle (Petit’s triangle). The hernial sac invaginates through the posterior abdominal wall - a bulge is visible above the iliac crest, especially during coughing.

493
Q

Hernias

Traditional treatment methods:

A

Bassini,
Halsted,
Shouldice

494
Q

Hernias

Tension-free treatment methods - mesh treatments:

A

Liechtenstein,
Rutka,
PHS (prolen hernia system).

495
Q

**

Whipple’s operation and Whipple’s procedure modified by Traverso are used in

A

the removal of pancreatic tumors

496
Q

Whipple surgery involves the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW
pylorus

497
Q

Whipple surgery involves the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW
pylorus

498
Q

Whipple surgery involves the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW
pylorus

499
Q

Whipple surgery involves the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW
pylorus

500
Q

Whipple surgery involves the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW
pylorus

501
Q

Whipple surgery involves the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW
pylorus

502
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:
pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

503
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

504
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

505
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

506
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

507
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

508
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

509
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

510
Q

The Whipple operation in the Traverso modification includes the removal of:

A

pancreatic head
duodenum
gallbladder
PŻW

511
Q

Kehr’s T tube is used for

A
  • short-term postoperative drainage of a common bile duct.
  • Placed in the common bile duct after cholecystectomy removal of gallbladder or choledochostomy helps in draining of bile duct. Used for t tube cholangiogram
512
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

Crohn’s disease - chronic, segmental inflammation, covering the entire thickness of the wall and potentially every section of the digestive tract (i.e. from the mouth to the anus).

512
Q

Kehr’s T tube is used for

A
  • short-term postoperative drainage of a common bile duct.
  • Placed in the common bile duct after cholecystectomy removal of gallbladder or choledochostomy helps in draining of bile duct. Used for t tube cholangiogram
513
Q

Crohn’s disease
Symptoms:

A

diarrhoea, abdominal pain, weight loss, weakness, perianal changes, anal fissures, abscesses, fistulas, tumor in the abdomen.

514
Q

Extraintestinal symptoms: Crohn’s disease

A

Extraintestinal symptoms: the most common concern the osteoarticular system - arthritis in the course of inflammatory bowel disease, additionally: sutton’s aphthae, erythema nodosum and gangrenous dermatitis, urolithiasis, cholelithiasis, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC).

514
Q

Crohns disease Extraintestinal symptoms

Extraintestinal symptoms: SEALK

A

Skin disorders ( erythema nodosum and dermatitis gangrenosum )
E ye inflammation (inflammation of the iris, cornea, sclera)
Arthritis (arthritis)
Liver disease or gallbladder (primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC).
Kidney disorders (urolithiasis)

515
Q

GIST may be present

A

GIST - gastrointestinal stromal tumors , i.e. stromal tumors of the digestive tract.
- in the stomach (40-70%)
- small intestine (20–50%)
- in the large intestine (approx. 5%) and esophagus (<5%)

516
Q

L for Large

Lynch syndrome is a hereditary predisposition to cancer .
There are two subtypes of Lynch syndrome:

A
  • **Lynch I syndrome **- cancer affects only the large intestine.
  • Lynch II syndrome - colorectal cancer is coexisting with malignant neoplasms of the endometrium, ovary, stomach, small intestine, kidneys, ureter, and less often of the skin, bile ducts and tumors of the central nervous system.
  • Lynch syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
  • The syndrome is associated with a 70 % risk of developing colorectal cancer and accounts for approximately 1-3% of all colorectal cancers.
517
Q

Features of colorectal cancer in the course of Lynch I syndrome:

A

Features of colorectal cancer in the course of Lynch I syndrome:

occurs at a young age (< 50 years of age) ,
more often located on the right side or multifocal,
has a lower tendency to metastasize,
usually characterized by a low degree of differentiation,
often resistant to chemotherapy.

518
Q

Types of malnutrition:

  1. Maramus
A

chronic protein-calorie malnutrition due to chronic starvation
progressive weight loss
leads to organ dysfunction
albumin levels are normal for a long time (but sudden illness or injury causes albumin levels to drop quickly)
it is most common in patients with chronic diseases and cancer
in extreme cases, cachexia may occur
gastrointestinal nutrition is recommended

519
Q

Types of malnutrition:
Kwashiorkor

A

acute malnutrition most often due to acute illness, injury, surgery
there is hypoalbuminemia, edema, water and electrolyte disturbances, disturbances of consciousness
may occur in overweight, obese patients when they receive only crystalline fluids, without the supply of protein
very rapid development of malnutrition, without weight loss (weight may even increase due to water retention and edema )
the patient’s condition deteriorates rapidly
parenteral nutrition is recommended

520
Q

Types of malnutrition:
Mixed

A

Mixed

weight reduction
hypoalbuminemia
weakening of immunity
water and electrolyte disorders
it occurs, for example, in patients with severe necrotizing pancreatitis and severe Crohn’s disease
parenteral or combined parenteral-enteral nutrition is recommended

521
Q

Colles’ fracture

A
  • is a fracture of the distal epiphysis ( loco typico ) of the radius.
  • This type of fracture is the most common within the distal epiphysis of this bone.
522
Q

A fracture of the first metacarpal is called a

A

Bennett’s fracture.

523
Q

Monteggia fracture

A
  • isolated fracture of the shaft of the ulna with displaced fragments and dislocation of the radial head.
524
Q

Galeazzi fracture

A
  • isolated fracture of the radial shaft with displaced fragments and dislocation of the head of the ulna.
525
Q

Smith’s fracture

A
  • fracture of the distal epiphysis of the radius with volar displacement of the fragments (conversely, not Colles’ fracture) - occurs as a result of a fall on an outstretched limb in the palmar flexion of the wrist joint
526
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A
  • a syndrome conditioned by a mutation in the APC gene , causing the formation of polyps in the large intestine (usually more than 100) and in the stomach and duodenum.

Patients with this genetic syndrome from 10-12 years of age r _ require annual follow-up colonoscopy and gastroduodenoscopy, as the risk of developing cancer around the age of 35 is almost 100%.

527
Q

```

~~~

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP):
Variations:

A

Gardner’s syndrome (FAP and osteomas, retinal changes and soft tissue tumours),
Turcot’s syndrome (FAP and CNS tumours).

528
Q

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
Treatment:

A
  • prophylactic colectomy or proctolectomy with the creation of a pouch from the small intestine are usually used in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life, while pharmacological treatment is treated as complementary.
  • The best effect can be achieved with NSAIDs.
  • The use of COX-2 inhibitors may be initiated after exclusion of the presence of factors that increase the risk of cardiac complications.

In the case of rectal-sparing surgery, an average rectal examination should be performed every 3-6 months .

529
Q

Ostomy
Colostomy

A
  • is a surgical procedure used to create an opening for urine and feces to be released from the body.
  • Colostomy refers to a surgical procedure where a portion of the large intestine is brought through the abdominal wall to carry stool out of the body.
529
Q

Courvoisier’s sign

A

(palpable, painless, enlarged gallbladder) if the tumor is located in the common bile duct

530
Q

Klatskin’s tumor

A

is a cancer of the bile ducts located at the junction of the right and left hepatic ducts

531
Q

Klatskin’s tumor

Symptoms:

A
  • mechanical jaundice - the first, most common symptom, it is not accompanied by fever or pain
  • pain under the right costal arch in the later stages of the disease
532
Q

Klatskin’s tumor:
physical examination presents with What Sign?

A
  • Courvoisier’s sign (palpable, painless, enlarged gallbladder) if the tumor is located in the common bile duct
  • In laboratory tests increased bilirubin, CEA (carcinoembryonic antigen) and CA 19-9.
533
Q

Klatskin’s Tumor:
Laboratory tests reveal ?

A
  • In laboratory tests increased bilirubin, CEA and CA 19-9.
534
Q

Klatskin’s Tumor:
Laboratory tests reveal ?

A
  • In laboratory tests increased bilirubin, CEA and CA 19-9.
535
Q

Klatskin Tumor:
TX

A

Treatment - radical, surgical removal of the tumor (5-year survival rate of about 10%).

536
Q

Klatskin Tumor:
TX

A

Treatment - radical, surgical removal of the tumor (5-year survival rate of about 10%).

537
Q

Klatskin Tumor:
TX

A

Treatment - radical, surgical removal of the tumor (5-year survival rate of about 10%).

537
Q

tubular adenomas

A
  • Tubular polyps are polyps with branching tubular structures.
  • They are the most common adenomatous polyps.
538
Q

tubular adenomas

A
  • Tubular polyps are polyps with branching tubular structures.
  • They are the most common adenomatous polyps.
539
Q

villous adenomas

A

They are the rarest of the adenomas, but have the greatest malignant potential

540
Q

tubulo-villous adenomas

A

They combine the features of both of the above-mentioned polyps

541
Q

tubulo-villous adenomas

A

They combine the features of both of the above-mentioned polyps

542
Q

A
543
Q

tubulo-villous adenomas

A

They combine the features of both of the above-mentioned polyps

544
Q

A
545
Q

tubulo-villous adenomas

A

They combine the features of both of the above-mentioned polyps

546
Q

A
547
Q

Inflammatory polyps are

A
  • infiltrates and inflammatory granulation tissue left over from the normal mucosa.
  • They appear in the course of ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.
548
Q

Mechanical obstruction most often (as much as 80%) concerns the

A

**small intestine. **
The most common cause of mechanical obstruction of the small intestine are postoperative adhesions, answer B , and of the large intestine - colorectal cancer

549
Q

The most common cause of mechanical obstruction of the small intestine are___ and of the large intestine___

A

Intestinal diverticula can generally be divided into two basic groups:

Acquired diverticula (pseudo) - protrusion of the mucous membrane through the muscular layer - answer B - TRUE.
Congenital (true) diverticula - bulging of the entire intestinal wall- postoperative adhesions
- colorectal cancer

550
Q

The most common cause of mechanical obstruction of the small intestine are

A

-.postoperative adhesions - colorectal cancer

551
Q

Intestinal diverticula can generally be divided into two basic groups:

A

-** Acquired diverticula (pseudo)** - protrusion of the mucous membrane through the muscular layer
-** Congenital (true) diverticula **- bulging of the entire intestinal wall

552
Q

Ankle-brachial index (ABPI)Courvoisier’s sign consists of

A
  • the quotient of the systolic pressure measured on the foot to the systolic pressure on the arm determined with the patient lying down.
  • Normally, arterial pressure is equal to or slightly greater in the ankle.
  • Values ​​in the range of 1.0 - 1.4 are considered normal (limit values ​​are 0.9 - 1.0).
  • a value <0.9 indicates the presence of strictures (in critical ischemia it is usually <0.5) ,
  • a value >1.4 indicates abnormal vascular stiffness (in patients with diabetes, chronic kidney disease, in the elderly).- painless jaundice and an enlarged, painless gallbladder palpable through the abdomen.
  • It is most often associated with a tumor of the pancreaticoduodenal area, which, by infiltrating the common bile duct, causes impaired bile flow from the liver to the intestine, which leads to mechanical jaundice and gallbladder distension.
553
Q

**

Bismuth scale is

A

used to classify bile duct damage.

554
Q

Useful in diagnostics

Homans’ symptom

A
  • pain in the calf and popliteal fossa when dorsiflexing the foot .
555
Q

Useful in diagnostics

Moses’ sign

A
  • increased tension and stiffness of the calf muscles
556
Q

Useful in diagnostics

Payr’s sign

A
  • pain in the medial edge of the foot
557
Q

Ménétrier’s disease
also known as?

A
  • (also known as hypertrophic gastropathy)
  • is an idiopathic hyperplasia of the folds of the gastric mucosa, usually located in the body or bottom of the stomach.

-Note: If a question about Ménétrier’s disease arises in the pediatric section, it is worth remembering that in children the etiology is related to the CMV virus and ganciclovir is used when the disease is detected.

558
Q

Ménétrier’s disease

The disease is very rare, the most important information is:

A
  • It is a precancerous condition and requires endoscopic supervision every 1-2 years
  • it occurs more often in men, usually around 55 years of age
559
Q

Ménétrier’s disease

most common symptoms :

A

abdominal pain, weakness, lack of appetite, weight loss, diarrhea

560
Q

Ménétrier’s disease

diagnostics:

A
  • gastroscopy: overgrown stomach folds >1 cm in typical places
  • hist-pat examination: atrophy of the glandular ducts and hypertrophy of the gastric follicles
561
Q

Ménétrier’s disease

treatment:

A
  • from H.pylori eradication (in some cases it allows for full recovery), IPP to cetuximab or partial gastrectomy.
562
Q

Courvoisier’s sign

A
  • is the presence of painless jaundice and an enlarged, painless gallbladder palpable through the abdominal wall.
  • Most often, it is associated with cancer of the pancreaticoduodenal area, which by infiltrating the common bile duct causes impaired bile flow from the liver to the intestine, which leads to mechanical jaundice and gallbladder distension.
563
Q

Bormann’s classification:

A
  1. *polypoid form *- it is a single exophytic tumor without ulceration
  2. mycosis fungoides (ulcerative-polypoid) – sharply circumscribed cancer with raised edges
  3. ulcerative form - poorly limited ulceration,
  4. diffuse form ( linitis plastica ) – cancer uniformly infiltrating the stomach wall.
564
Q

Bormann’s classification:

polypoid form

A
  • it is a single exophytic tumor without ulceration
565
Q

Bormann’s classification:

mycosis fungoides (ulcerative-polypoid)

A

– sharply circumscribed cancer with raised edges

566
Q

Bormann’s classification:

ulcerative form

A
  • poorly limited ulceration
567
Q

Bormann’s classification:

diffuse form ( linitis plastica )

A

– cancer uniformly infiltrating the stomach wall

568
Q
A
569
Q
A