Surg 126--Final Flashcards
1
Q
aa
A
of each
2
Q
ad
A
to, up to
3
Q
ad lib
A
as desired
4
Q
amt
A
amount
5
Q
c (with line over it)
A
with
6
Q
KVO, TKO
A
keep vein open, to keep open
7
Q
npo, NPO
A
nothing by mouth
8
Q
per
A
by means of, by
9
Q
Rx
A
take
10
Q
s (with line over it)
A
without
11
Q
sig
A
label
12
Q
sos
A
once if necessary
13
Q
stat
A
immediately
14
Q
bid
A
twice a day
15
Q
H, hr
A
hour
16
Q
PRN, prn
A
as necessary (pro re nata)
17
Q
q
A
every
18
Q
qh
A
every hour
19
Q
q2h
A
every 2 hours
20
Q
qid
A
four times a day
21
Q
tid
A
three times a day
22
Q
cap
A
capsule
23
Q
tab
A
tablet
24
Q
gtts
A
drops
25
soin
solution
26
susp
suspension
27
ung
ointment
28
im
intramuscular
29
iv
intravenous
30
PO, po
per os, orally
31
Absorption is the process _____.
by which a drug is taken into the body and moves from the site of administration into the blood
32
Oral absorption varies depending on the drug's chemical structure as well as the _____ and _____ of the gastrointestinal tract.
pH (acidity), motility
33
Synergists are _____.
drugs that enhance the effect of another drug
34
The Controlled Substance Act was passed in _____.
1970
35
The Controlled Substance Act _____.
1. established the DEA
2. set tighter controls on drugs capable of being abused
3. required stricter security controls for anyone who dispenses, receives, sells, or destroys controlled substances
4. set limits on the use of prescriptions: established guidelines for the number of times drugs can be prescribed in a period of time, and set rules on which preparations may be prescribed over the phone to the pharmacy
5. required each prescriber register with DEA, and obtain DEA number
6. identified drugs that can be abused and that are addicting, classifying them into schedules according to the degree of danger
36
What are state practice acts and what do they govern?
they govern the ordering, dispensing and administration of medication
37
All new medicines and first tested on _____.
animals
38
Atleast _____ species of _____ must be used for testing on animals.
two, mammals (both genders must be used)
39
"What drug is required?"
right drug
40
"How much of the drug is required in what concentration?"
right dose
41
"How will the drug be administered?"
right route
42
"Who will receive the drug?"
right patient
43
"When will the drug be administered?"
right time
44
"Accurately recorded?"
right documentation
45
Medication must be carefully identified by both the _____ and _____.
circulator and scrub
46
Scrub must always state the _____ and _____ of the drug aloud as he hands it to the surgeon.
name and strength
47
Why must the scrub always state the name and strength of the drug aloud as he hands it to the surgeon?
Serves as confirmation that the medication is correct
48
True or False: The name should be spoken aloud even if the syringe (or other delivery container) is labeled
True
49
What are the six steps is medication identification?
Step 1-Circulator reads the label
Step 2-Circulator reads labels aloud to the scrub
Step 3-Circulator shows label to the scrub
Step 4-Scrub states medication information aloud
Step 5-Scrub accepts medication
Step 6-Scrub labels medication containers immediately
50
What are antibiotics?
Natural chemicals (or metabolites) produced by microorganisms that inhibit the growth of other microorganisms.
51
The natural substances that make up antibiotics include _____ and _____.
Fungi (and molds) and bacteria
52
What percentage of antibiotics in the U.S. are prescribed for prophylaxis of infections?
30 – 50%
53
Surgical site infections, are they exogenous or endogenous?
endogenous
54
Preoperatively and intraoperatively, medications are given _____.
intravenously
55
Which antibiotic has 4 generations?
cephalosporins
56
Ampicillin is generic for _____.
aminopenicillin
57
To perform a radiopaque contrast media test, a _____ is injected into the circulatory system or instilled into a body cavity; then a radiograph is taken.
contrast medium
58
Pharmacologic agents called _____ are used in certain diagnostic radiographic tests.
radiopaque contrast media (ROCM)
59
Many contrast media contain _____ or _____, which are radiopaque.
iodine
| barium
60
_____ are solutions that color or mark tissue for identification.
Dyes
61
Dyes may be used to mark _____.
skin incisions
62
Dyes may be used to delineate normal _____.
tissue planes
63
Dyes may be used to _____ of certain anatomic structures during a surgical procedure.
enhance visualization
64
_____ are used in surgery to help visually identify abnormal cells.
Staining agents
65
Staining agents are most frequently used in procedures on the _____.
cervix
66
_____ are chemicals in solution that react differently with abnormal cells from the way the react with normal cells.
Staining agents
67
_____ are high-density pharmacological agents used to visualize low-contrast body tissues.
Contrast media
68
Contrast media are used to visualize _____, _____, _____, and the _____.
vascular structures
the urinary bladder
the gastrointestinal tract
the biliary tree
69
Contrast media can be easily confused with other medications on the sterile back table because they are _____.
clear in color
70
Methylene blue is most often used in surgery during procedures on the _____ or _____.
urinary bladder
| fallopian tubes
71
To detect possible injury, _____ is instilled into the bladder through an indwelling urinary catheter.
Methylene blue
72
Methylene blue is used to check for leaks or tears in the _____.
bladder
73
In gynecology, methylene blue is used to demonstrate _____ of the fallopian tubes.
patency
74
Methylene blue is used to check the fallopian tubes in a procedure called _____.
tubal dye study (TDS)
75
Delineation of lymphatic vessels for sentinel lymph node biopsy.
lymphazurin
76
Given to color the urine for verification of bladder integrity or kidney function. Excreted by the kidneys usually with in 10 minutes after injection.
indigo carmine
77
Dyes used for skin marking.
gentian violet
78
Staining agents may be used in surgery to help identify _____ for biopsy or excision. Used in GYN to locate areas of cervical dysplasia.
abnormal tissue
79
Normal level of potassium
3.5 to 5.0
80
Too much potassium is _____.
Hyperkalemia
81
Where are nephrons found?
Bowmans capsule
82
Medications administered to prevent reabsorption of sodium and water by the kidneys?
Diuretics
83
What is the trade name for furosemide?
Lasix
84
Lasix (furosemide) is a _____ diuretic.
loop
85
Lasix is _____ ceiling diuretic.
high
86
Low potency diuretics commonly used to treat edema and hypertension and to help restore potassium levels in hypokalemic patients.
Potassium-sparring drugs
87
What type of diuretic is hydrochlorothiazide?
Thiazide diuretic
88
What is the most common cardiac dysfunction requiring treatment with diuretics?
CHF (congestive heart failure)
89
Used to treat acute renal failure after cardiac surgery, to treat intracranial pressure, and to reduce intraocular pressure in the open globe.
osmotic diuretics
90
Given to necessitate placement of indwelling catheters.
Osmitrol
91
Critical for the development of male sex organs and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics.
androgens, primarily testosterone
92
What gland secretes oxytocin?
the neurohypophysis of the pituitary gland
93
What are steroid hormones derived from?
cholesterol
94
The simplest hormones are _____, derived from amino acids.
amines
95
Hormones made of short chains of amino acids are called _____.
peptide hormones
96
What is the generic name for pitressin?
vasopressin
97
What is pitressin used to stabilize?
fluid balance
98
What are the symptoms of hypothyroidism?
sleepy, tire easy, less mentally alert, reduced endurance, slow heart rate
99
Hormones produced by medulla of Adrenal glands are collectively called?
catecholamines
100
What initiates the “Fight or Flight Response”?
epinephrine & norepinephrine
101
What gland produces Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)?
Anterior lobe of the pituitary (adenohypophysis)
102
What hormone is used with local anesthetics?
epinephrine
103
What steroid maintains sodium levels in blood?
alsosterone
104
What is the generic for Decadron?
Dexamethasone
105
What organ functions as exocrine and endocrine gland?
pancreas
106
What are the ovarian hormones?
- Estrogens
- Progestins
- Inhibin
107
What are the stages of clotting?
a. Thromboplastin is formed
b. Thromboplastin converts to prothrombin to thrombin
c. Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
108
What is a natural clot-dissolving enzyme?
Fibrinolysin
109
What vitamin plays role in coagulation?
vitamin K
110
What procedure is done to remove blood clot?
arterial embolectomy
111
Types of microfibrillar collagen?
- avitene
| - instat MCH
112
How is avitene applied?
dry instruments only
113
A mechanical barrier used in Ortho and neurosurgery to control bleeding on bone surface.
bone wax
114
Example of a cauterizing agent.
silver nitrate
115
Calcium salts are contraindicated in patients with _____.
Malignant Hyperthermia (MH)
116
Why are anticoagulants used?
to help prevent clot formation
117
In AV fistulas _____ units of heparin in _____ mL of saline is used.
5000
| 1000
118
What is the onset and duration of Heparin?
Rapid, with in 5 min, with duration of 2 to 4 hrs
119
Generic name for Coumadin?
warfarin
120
What drug is used to reverse heparin
protamine sulfate
121
Why are oral anticoagulants used?
for long-term medical management of thromboembolic disease such as DVT or pulmonary embolism
122
Name 9 electrolytes...
1. sodium
2. chloride
3. potassium
4. calcium
5. magnesium
6. phosphate
7. bicarbonate
8. sulfate
9. carbonic acid
123
What are normal hemoglobin levels in adult females?
12 to 16 g/100mL
124
What are normal hemoglobin levels in adult males?
14 to 18 g/100mL
125
Normal hematocrit levels in females?
35-46%
126
Normal hematocrit levels in males?
40-52%
127
What blood test measures oxygen carrying capacities of the blood?
hematocrit
128
What blood component contains hemoglobin?
RBC
129
What are some risks associated with donor blood?
transmission of blood-borne pathogens such as Hep B and C and HIV.
130
How long after thawing must plasma be used?
within 6 hours
131
Which formed element of blood is necessary for clotting?
platelets
132
Which form of donor blood contains RBC’s?
whole blood
133
What is auto transfusion?
Involves the collection, processing, and reinfusing of the patient's own blood during surgery using "cell saver" technology. Results in little damage to RBC's.
134
When is cell saver used?
-emergency procedures when rapid infusion is required
