SUGER 🍦🍧🍨🍩🍪🎂🍭🍬🍫 Flashcards

1
Q

What proteins contribute to polycystic kidney disease?

A

Polycystin-1 causes PKD1
Polycystin-2 causes PKD2

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2
Q

How much of the cardiac output does the kidney receive?

A

Each kidney receives 10% of the cardiac output
Not just to meet their metabolic requirements, but to filter and excrete the metabolic waste products of the whole body

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3
Q

Key volumes of the kidney

A

Cardiac output - 5 L/min
Renal blood flow- 1 L/min
Urine flow- 1 ml/min

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4
Q

What do afferent and efferent mean?

A

afferent away
efferent towards

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5
Q

Factors determining filtration

A

Pressure
Size of the molecule
Charge
Rate of blood flow
Protein binding

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6
Q

How does pressure affect glomerular filtration?

A

Favours filtration:
Glomerular capillary blood pressure (PG)
Opposes filtration:
Fluid pressure in Bowman’s space (PBS)
Osmotic forces due to protein (πG)

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7
Q

How does size affect glomerular filtration?

A

Small molecules and ions up to 10kDa can pass freely
e.g. glucose, uric acid, potassium, creatinine
Larger molecules increasingly restricted
e.g. plasma proteins

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8
Q

How does charge affect glomerular filtration?

A

Fixed negative charge in GBM (glycoproteins and proteoglycans) repels negatively charged anions
e.g. albumin, phosphate, sulfate, organic anions

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9
Q

How does protein binding affect glomerular filtration?

A

Albumin has a molecular weight of around 66kDa but is negatively charged ∴ cannot easily pass into the tubule

Filtered fluid is essentially protein-free

Tamm Horsfall protein in urine produced by tubule

Affects substances that bind to proteins e.g. drugs, calcium, thyroxine etc

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10
Q

Glomerular filtration rate equation

A

Glomerular filtration rate = filtration volume per unit time (minutes)

GFR = KF (PG - PBS) - (πG)

KF is the filtration coefficient

Net filtration is normally always positive

Units are ml/min/1.73m2

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11
Q

What is GFR determined by?

A

-Net filtration pressure
-Permeability of the filtration barrier
-Surface area available for filtration (approx. 1.2-1.5m2 total)

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12
Q

GFR is not measured directly- how is it measured?

A

Calculated by measuring excretion of marker (M)
CM = UMV/PM

V = urine flow rate (ml/min)
UM = urine concentration of marker
PM = plasma concentration of marker

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13
Q

Properties of a good marker to measure GFR

A

Properties of a good marker:
freely filtered
not secreted or absorbed
not metabolised

∴ All the M that is filtered will end up in the urine, no more (as it is not secreted) and no less (as it is not reabsorbed)

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14
Q

Normal GFR

A

Has to be above 90
normal is 125ml/min

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15
Q

Why is creatinine used?

A
  • Muscle metabolite
  • Constant production
  • Freely filtered
  • Not metabolised
    Although tubular secretion which is not the best as should not be secreted or absorbed
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16
Q

Things affecting creatinine

A

Gender
Height
Age
muscle damage
muscle mass
Supplements/ medications
Weight
Renal tubular handling

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17
Q

Outline cystatin c as a marker for measuring GFR

A

Cystatin C
Non-glycosylated protein produced by all cells

Properties of a good marker:
freely filtered ✓
not secreted or absorbed ✗ (reabsorbed)
not metabolised ✗ (metabolised)

Influenced by thyroid disease, corticosteroids, age, sex and adipose tissue

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18
Q

Inulin as a marker for measuring GFR

A

Inulin (gold standard)
Properties of a good marker:
freely filtered ✓
not secreted or absorbed ✓
not metabolised ✓

51Cr EDTA

99mTc-DTPA

Radioisotopes

Iohexol

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19
Q

Pressure regulation in the kidneys

A

Aim to maintain renal blood flow and GFR over defined range 80-180 mmHg

Protects against extremes of pressure

Independent of renal perfusion

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20
Q

Outline renal autoregulation of pressure

A

Myogenic mechanism
Tuboglomerular feedback

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21
Q

Outline myogenic mechanism

A
  • Intrinsic ability of renal arterioles
  • Able to constrict or dilate
  • only pre glomerular vessles
  • opposite for low bp
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22
Q

How does the myogenic mechanism work?

A

↑BP → stretches blood vessel wall → opens stretch-activated cation channels → membrane depolarisation → opens voltage-dependent calcium channels → ↑ intracellular calcium → smooth muscle contraction → ↑ vascular resistance → minimises changes in GFR

↓BP causes the opposite

ONLY PRE-GLOMERULAR RESISTANCE VESSELS

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23
Q

Outlinw tuboglomerular feedback

A

Juxtaglomerular apparatus
Stimulus NaCl concentration
Influences AFFERENT arteriolar resistance

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24
Q

Outline neural regulation of glomerular regulation

A

Sympathetic nervous system:
-Vasoconstriction of AFFERENT arterioles
-Important in response to stress, bleeding or low BP

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25
Q

Outline hormonal regulation of glomerular filtration

A

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS)
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

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26
Q

Outline the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS):

A

Renin released from JGA
Initiates cascade
Aldosterone influences Na reabsorption at distal tubule which influences blood volume and pressure

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27
Q

Outline the role of Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) in glomerular filtration

A

Released by atria
Stimulus of blood volume
Vasodilation of AFFERENT arterioles

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28
Q

What does the RAAS system do?

A

Negative feedback mechanism

Stabilises RBF and GFR

Minimises impact of changes in BP on Na excretion

Without renal autoreg - increase in BP leads to increase GFR and losses

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29
Q

How do intrarenal baroreceptors affect glomerular filtration?

A
  • Respond to changes in pressure in glomerulus
  • Influence diameter of AFFERENT arterioles
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30
Q

Outline the affect of extracellular fluid volume on glomerular filtration

A

Changes in blood volume
Resultant hydrostatic pressure

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31
Q

Effect of Blood colloid osmotic pressure
on glomerular filtration

A

Oncotic pressure exerted by proteins

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32
Q

Effect of inflammatory mediators in glomerular filtration

A

Local release of prostaglandins, nitric oxide, bradykinin, leukotrienes, histamine, cytokines, thromboxanes

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33
Q

What causes vasodilation of afferent arteriole?

A

Prostaglandins
Nitric slide 50

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34
Q

slide 51

A
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35
Q

slide 52

A
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36
Q

slide 53

A
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37
Q

Outline glomerular nephritis

A

Umbrella term
Causes: infection (bacterial/viral), autoimmune disorders, systemic diseases
Presentation: haematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, impaired kidney function

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38
Q

Outline nephrotic syndrome

A

Umbrella term
Increased permeability of glomerular filtration barrier
Presentation: triad of oedema + proteinuria + low albumin

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39
Q

Outline IgA neuropathy

A

Deposition of IgA antibody in the glomerulus
Resultant inflammation and damage
Cause: immune-mediated
Presentation: haematuria, potentially following resp/GI infection

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40
Q

Outline membranous neuropathy

A

Thickening of GBM
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults
Cause: primary or secondary
Presentation: proteinuria (often leading to nephrotic syndrome)

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41
Q

Outline diabetic neuropathy

A

Prolonged exposure to high blood glucose
Presentation: initially asymptomatic then progresses to proteinuria, hypertension and reduced kidney function

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42
Q

Outline minimal change disease

A

Type of nephrotic syndrome, only in children
Only visible under electron microscope

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43
Q

Outline Alport syndrome

A

Genetic disorder affecting GBM (X linked or autosomal recessive)
Progressive kidney damage
Potentially includes hearing loss and eye abnormalities

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44
Q

Define acidosis

A

Disorder tending to make blood more acid than normal

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45
Q

Define alkalosis

A

Disorder tending to make blood more alkaline than normal

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46
Q

Define acidemia

A

Low blood pH

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47
Q

Define alkalemia

A

High blood pH

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48
Q

Factors affecting pH

A

Metabolic component
intrinsic acid
extrinsic acid
1more
resp CO2 component
CO2 bicarbonate

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49
Q

What is Stewart’s strong ion difference?

A

Principle: pH and HCO3- are dependent variables governed by:
pCO2
Concentration of weak acids (ATOT)
ATOT = Pi + Pr + Alb
Strong ion difference (SID)
SID = Na+ + K+ + Mg2+ + Ca2+ – Cl- – other strong anions (eg lactate, ketoacids)

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50
Q

Strengths and problems with Stewart’s strong ion difference

A

Strengths:
Identifies the factors controlling pH
Problems:
Calculation can be very problematic
Probably adds little in practice

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51
Q

How do you diagnose an acid base disorder?

A

Disorders can be divided into acidoses – disorders that tend to make the blood acid and alkaloses
Disorders can be respiratory (ie driven by changes in CO2 excretion) or metabolic (ie driven by changes in acid load, acid excretion or bicarbonate recycling)
Different disorders can co-exist (mixed patterns)

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52
Q

What is measured in arterial blood gas?

A

pH
pO2
pCO2
Std HCO3-
Std Base excess
May include other measures (eg lactate, Na+, K+)

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53
Q

What is standard bicarbonate for?

A

What it would be if CO2 was normal- allows you to ignore the resp component of acid base in the blood

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54
Q

Outline standard bicarbonate

A

Measures of metabolic component of any acid-base disturbance
Absolute bicarbonate is affected by both respiratory and metabolic components
Standard bicarbonate is the bicarbonate concentration standardised to pCO2 5.3kPa and temp 37
Bicarbonate and std bicarbonate are calculated not actually measured

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55
Q

What is base excess?

A

Quantity of acid required to return pH to normal under standard conditions
Standard base excess corrected to Hb 50g/L
Can be used to calculate bicarbonate dose to correct acidosis 0.3xWtxBE (but not generally used in practice)
Base excess is negative in acidosis, can be referred to as base deficit

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56
Q

How do we interpret acid-base status?

A

2 major approaches:
Henderson
Stewart’s theory (strong ion difference)

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57
Q

What are the clinical features of acidosis

A

long term- stunted growth and muscle wasting
Clinical features: Sighing respirations (Kussmaul’s resps), tachypnoea
Compensatory mechanism: Hyperventilation to increase CO2 excretion

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58
Q

Outline investigation using the anion gap

A

Difference between measured anions and cations
Anion gap = [Na+] + [K+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-]
Normal 10-16

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59
Q

What causes a wide anion gap?

A

Lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, ingestion of acid, renal failure

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60
Q

What causes a narrow anion gap?

A

GI HCO3- loss: diahorrea, fissure, renal tubular acidosis,

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61
Q

Outline causes of metabolic alkalosis

A

Alkali ingestion
Gastrointestinal acid loss: Vomiting
Renal acid loss: Hyperaldosteronism, hypokalaemia

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62
Q

Compensatory mechanism of metabolic alkalosis

A

Hypoventilation (but limited by hypoxic drive), renal bicarbonate excretion

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63
Q

Outline respiratory acidosis

A

CO2 retention, leading to increased carbonic acid dissociation
Causes: Any cause of respiratory failure
Compensatory mechanism: Increased renal H+ excretion and bicarbonate retention (but only if chronic)

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64
Q

Outline respiratory alkalosis

A

CO2 depletion due to hyperventilation
Causes: Type 1 respiratory failure, anxiety/panic
Compensation: Increased renal bicarbonate loss (if chronic)

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65
Q

Questions to ask in ABG interpretation

A

What is the pH?
What is the respiratory component (ie pCO2)?
What is the metabolic component (std HCO3-, base excess)?
Which component is congruent with the pH?

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66
Q

Renal function numbers

A

Renal blood flow- 1250ml/min
Renal plasma flow- 700ml/min
Glomerular filtration rate- 120ml/min
Urine flow rate- 1ml/min

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67
Q

Outline the proximal tubule

A

Active reabsorption of multiple solutes
Metabolically active cells – lots of mitochondria
Sodium gradient generated by Na/K ATPases
Vulnerable to hypoxia and toxicity

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68
Q

Proximal tubular disorders

A

Reabsorbed solute Disorder
Glucose Renal glycosuria
AAs Aminoacidurias (eg
cystinuria)
Phosphate Hypophosphataemic rickets
(eg XLH)
Bicarbonate Proximal renal tubular
acidosis
Multiple Fanconi syndrome

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69
Q

Outline renal glycosuria

A

Defect: Sodium glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2)
Mechanism: Failure of glucose reabsorption
Clinical features: Incidental finding on testing, benign
SGLT2 inhibitors (eg empagliflozin) now established as treatments for type 2 diabetes
Wider use in heart failure and CKD

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70
Q

Outline Aminoaciduria: Cystinuria

A

Defect: Sodium glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2)
Mechanism: Failure of glucose reabsorption
Clinical features: Incidental finding on testing, benign
SGLT2 inhibitors (eg empagliflozin) now established as treatments for type 2 diabetes
Wider use in heart failure and CKD

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71
Q

Treatment of aminoaciduria: cystinuria

A

High fluid intake: High urine flow, lower concentration
Alkalinise urine: Increases solubility of cystine
Chelation: Penicillamine, captopril
Management of individual stones (percutaneous treatment, surgery etc)

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72
Q

Outline Hypophosphataemic rickets

A

Commonest form is X-linked hypophosphataemic rickets (XLH)
Defect: PHEX – zinc dependent metalloprotease
PHEX mutation results in increased FGF-23 levels, leading to decreased expression and activity of NaPi-II in proximal tubule

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73
Q

Clinical features and treatment of Hypophosphataemic rickets

A

Clinical features: Bow legged deformity, impaired growth
Treatment: Phosphate replacement

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74
Q

Outline proximal (type 2) renal tubular acidosis

A

Defect: Na/H antiporter
Mechanism: Failure of bicarbonate reabsorption
Clinical features: Acidosis, impaired growth
Treatment: Bicarbonate supplementation

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75
Q

Outline the disorder affecting carbonic anhydrase

A

Genetic defects in carbonic anhydrase produce a mixed proximal/distal renal tubular acidosis
Inhibited by acetazolamide – mild diuretic effect and induces a metabolic acidosis
Used to treat altitude sickness – allows more rapid compensation of respiratory alkalosis

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76
Q

Outline Fanconi syndrome

A
  • Mechanism: Generalised proximal tubular dysfunction, possibly due to failure to generate sodium gradient by Na/K ATPase
  • Clinical features: Glycosuria, aminoaciduria, phosphaturic rickets, renal tubular acidosis
  • Causes: Genetic (eg cystinosis, Wilson’s disease), myeloma, lead poisoning, cisplatin
  • Not to be confused with Fanconi anaemia
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77
Q

What does the loop of henle do?

A

Generates medullary concentration gradient
Active Na reabsorption in thick ascending limb

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78
Q

Loop of Henle disorders: Barrter’s syndrome

A

Defect: NKCC2, ROMK, ClCKa/b, Barrtin
Mechanism: Failure of sodium, potassium and chloride cotransport in thick ascending limb. Salt wasting, hypokalaemic alkalosis due to volume contraction, failure of voltage dependent calcium & magnesium absorption

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79
Q

Clinical features of Barrter’s syndrome and what it is similar to

A

Clinical features:
Antenatal: Polyhydramnios, prematurity, delayed growth, nephrocalcinosis
Classical: Delayed growth, polyuria, polydipsia
Similar to effects of loop diuretics (eg furosemide, bumetanide)

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80
Q

What does the distal tubule and collecting duct do?

A

Distal tubule and cortical collecting duct allow “fine tuning” of sodium reabsorption, potassium and acid-base balance
Collecting duct mediates water reabsorption and urine concentration

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81
Q

Distal tubular & collecting duct disorders

A

Gitelman’s syndrome
Distal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis
Disorders resembling hyperaldosteronism
Type 4 renal tubular acidosis
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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82
Q

Outline Gitelman’s syndrome

A

Gitelman’s syndrome
Distal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis
Disorders resembling hyperaldosteronism
Type 4 renal tubular acidosis
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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83
Q

Outline the actions of aldosterone

A

Steroid hormone – predominantly acts on transcription
Increase expression of ENaC, Na/K ATP-ase
Mineralocorticoid receptor also activated by cortisol
Cortisol entry to renal tubular cells prevented by 11-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

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84
Q

Outline distal (type 1) renal tubular acidosis

A

Defect: ? Luminal H+ ATPase or H+/K+ ATPase
Mechanism: Failure of H+ excretion and urinary acidification
Can be genetic or acquired (eg Sjogren’s syndrome, chronic pyelonephritis, drugs – amphotericin)

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85
Q

Outline the disorders that cause aldosterone levels to be out of control

A

Excessive aldosterone activity produces sodium retention, hypertension and hypokalaemic alkalosis
Excessive aldosterone production may be primary (eg Conn’s syndrome) or secondary (eg renal artery stenosis)
Several disorders can produce a “hyperaldosteronism” phenotype with high blood pressure, hypokalaemia and alkalosis

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86
Q

Outline Glucocorticoid remediable aldosteronism

A

Defect: Chimeric gene – 11beta hydroxylase and aldosterone synthetase
Mechanism: Aldosterone is produced in the adrenal in response to ACTH, so levels inappropriately high
Treatment: Suppress ACTH using glucocorticoids

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87
Q

Outline Liddle’s syndrome

A

Defect: Activating mutation of ENaC
Mechanism: Sodium channel always open so constant aldosterone like effect
Treatment: Amiloride (blocks ENaC)

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88
Q

Outline Syndrome of Apparent Mineralocorticoid Excess (AME)

A

Defect: 11-beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
Mechanism: Cortisol not broken down in the renal tubules, therefore activates mineralocorticoid receptor.
Treatment: Spironolactone (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist)

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89
Q

Outline Hyperkalaemic distal (type 4 ) renal tubular acidosis

A

Defect: Low aldosterone levels
Mechanism: Reduced generation of electrochemical gradient, resulting in failure of H+ and K+ excretion
Common in elderly patients with diabetes
Treatment: Diuretics or fludrocortisone

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90
Q

Outline Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Defect: Vasopressin V2 receptor or aquaporin 2 water channel
Mechanism: Failure of water reabsorption in the collecting duct, resulting in inability to concentrate urine
Clinical features: Polyuria, polydipsia, hypernatraemia

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91
Q

Describe the make up of the pancreas

A
  • Formed of small clusters of glandular epithelial cells
  • 98-99% of cells are clusters called acini
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92
Q

Outline the exocrine activity of the pancreas

A

Exocrine activity performed by acinar cells
Manufacture and secrete fluid and digestive enzymes, called pancreatic juice, which is released into the gut

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93
Q

Outline the endocrine activity of the pancreas

A
  • Endocrine activity performed by islet cells
  • Manufacture and release several peptide hormones into portal vein
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94
Q
A

60-70% beta cells- insulin
rest alpha cells which secrete glucagon
and delta cells which secrete somatostatin

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95
Q

Outline the communication between the alpha and beta cells of the islets of langerhans

A

Paracrine ‘crosstalk’ between alpha and betacells is physiological, i.e., local insulinrelease inhibits glucagon

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96
Q

What are the peptides secreted by the islets of langerhans?

A

Insulin
Glucagon
Somatostatin
Pancreatic polypeptide
Ghrelin

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97
Q

Outline insulin

A

polypeptide, 51 amino acids
Reduces glucose output by liver, increases storage of glucose, fatty acids, amino acids

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98
Q

Outline glucagon

A

29 amino acid peptide
Mobilises glucose, fatty acids and amino acids from stores

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99
Q

Outline somatostatin

A

Somatostatin secreted from d cells – inhibitor

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100
Q

Outline pancreatic polypeptide

A

Pancreatic Polypeptide – inhibit gastric emptying

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101
Q

Outline ghrelin

A

Ghrelin – stimulates release of glucagon

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102
Q

What does insulin do?

A

Suppresses hepatic glucose output
- Decreases Glycogenolysis
- Decreases Gluconeogenesis
Increases glucose uptake into insulin sensitive tissues
- Muscle – glycogen, and protein synthesis
- Fat – fatty acid synthesis
Suppresses
- Lipolysis
- Breakdown of muscle (decreased ketogenesis)

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103
Q

What is the function of glucagon?

A

Counterregulatory
Increases hepatic glucose output
- Increases Glycogenolysis
- Increases Gluconeogenesis
Reduces peripheral glucose uptake
Stimulates peripheral release of gluconeogenic precursors (glycerol, AAs)
- Lipolysis
-Muscle glycogenolysis and breakdown

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104
Q
A

Other counterregulatory hormones (adrenaline, cortisol, growth hormone have similareffects to glucagon and become relevant in certain disease states, including diabetes

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105
Q

Outline insulin secretion by the beta cells

A

Glucose entry via GLUT2 glucosetransporter
Glucokinase does glucose metabolism which produces ATP which stimulates the
—-> look at it again- slide 12

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106
Q

Outline the role of proinsulin in insulin release

A
  • Proinsulin contains the A and B chains of insulin (21 and 30 amino acid residues respectively), joined by the C peptide.
  • Disulfide bridges link a and B chains
  • Presence of C peptide implies endogenous insulin production
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107
Q

Outline the biphasic insulin release

A
  • B-cells sense rising glucose and aim to metabolise it
  • First phase response is rapid release of stored product
  • Second phase response is slower and as it is the release of newly synthesised hormone
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108
Q
A

Insulin receptors on plasma membrane-n high affinity
Signalling cascade
stimulates GLUT4 vesicles which mobo
15

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109
Q

Outline glucose homeostasis

A

Glucose levels should remain constant
Liver glycogen is a short-term glucose buffer

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110
Q

What happens if blood glucose is too high?

A

> 6 is too high
SHort term response- Make glycogen (glucose to glycogen= glycogenesis)
Long term response- Make triglyceride lipogenesis slide 16

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111
Q

Outline glucose sensing

A
  • Primary glucose sensors are in the pancreatic islets
  • Also in medulla, hypothalamus and carotid bodies
  • Inputs from eyes, nose, taste buds, gut all involved in regulating food
  • Sensory cells in gut wall also stimulate insulin release from pancreas - incretins
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112
Q

Does it matter where you get the glucose from?

A
  • Primary glucose sensors are in the pancreatic islets
    Also in medulla, hypothalamus and carotid bodies
  • Inputs from eyes, nose, taste buds, gut all involved in regulating food
    Sensory cells in gut wall also stimulate insulin release from pancreas - incretins
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113
Q

Outline incretins

A

K and L cells in gut
secrete glp 1 and gip

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114
Q

How are post prandial glucose levels regulated?

A

Increase of insulin-> rising plasma glucose stimulates beta cells to secrete incuijn

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115
Q

GLP1- glucose dependent and short half life

A

dipeptidyl peptidase IV cleaves GLP-1

Half life is 1-2 mins
DPPIV prevents hypoglycaemia

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116
Q

Outline regulation of CHO metabolism

A
  • In the fasting state, all glucose comes from liver
    - Breakdown of glycogen
    - Gluconeogenesis (utilises 3 carbon precursors to synthesise glucose including lactate, alanine and glycerol)
  • Glucose is delivered to insulin independent tissues, brain and red blood cells
  • Insulin levels are low
  • Muscle uses FFA for fuel
  • Some processes are very sensitive to insulin, even low insulin levels prevent unrestrained breakdown of fat
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117
Q

Outline the regulation of CHO metabolism post prandial

A
  • After feeding (post prandial) - physiological need to dispose of a nutrient load
  • Rising glucose (5-10 min after eating) stimulates 5-10 fold increase in insulin secretion and suppresses glucagon
  • 40% of ingested glucose goes to liver and 60% to periphery, mostly muscle
  • Ingested glucose helps to replenish glycogen stores both in liver and muscle
  • Excess glucose is converted into fats
  • High insulin and glucose levels suppress lipolysis and levels of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA or FFA) fall
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118
Q

What is diabetes mellitus?

A

A disorder of carbohydrate metabolism characterised by hyperglycaemia

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119
Q

What causes diabetes

A

Mutations to Kir 6.2
Sulphonylureas

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120
Q

Describe pathogenesis of diabetic ketoacidosis

A
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121
Q

Outline gametogenesis

A

-The process by which gametes are produced in the reproductive organs (gonads)
of an organism.
-Gametes are fundamental for sexual reproduction and genetic diversity.

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122
Q
A

follicule 1 oocyte

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123
Q

Steps of folliculogenesis

A

Primordial follicle-> Primary follicle -> Developing follicles -> Mature (graafian) follicle + secondary ovum -> ruptured follicle + liberated ovum -> early corpus luteum -> corpus luteum -> corpus albicans

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124
Q

What is oogenesis?

A

Oogenesis Begins in fetal life, with significant milestones at puberty and ceasing at menopause

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125
Q

Describe the stage of oogenesis that happens during foetal life

A

Oogonium (diploid) divides by mitosis to form 2 daughter oogonium
These then grow and form primary oocytes

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126
Q

Describe the stage of oogenesis that happens after puberty

A

Primary oocyte (diploid) undergoes meiosis I to form the first polar body and a secondary oocyte (haploid)

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127
Q
A
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128
Q

What covers the oocyte?

A

Oocyte initially covered in cumulus cells
then when that is gone it is covered in a layer of proteins called the zona pellucida

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129
Q

What are the two female reproductive hormones that are produced by the pituitary gland

A

FSH- stimulates maturation of the oocyte
LH- stimulates the release of an oocyte

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130
Q

What is the duration of the menstrual cycle?

A

Around 28 days

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131
Q

What does FSH do?

A

FSH goes to ovary and stimulates production of follicles and stimulates oestrogen production

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132
Q

What does oestrogen do?

A

Oestrogen stimulates proliferates endometrium cells so the endometrium gets thicker

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133
Q

What are the first 14 days categorised as?

A

Proliferating phase

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134
Q

What happens at around day 14 of the menstrual cycle?

A

Surge of LH
stimulates ovulation release of oocyte

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135
Q

What happens on day 20?

A

Empty follicle converts to corpus luteum and corpus albicans

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136
Q

What phase is it between days 14 and 28?

A

cyclical phase
progesterone is high

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137
Q

Describe the relationship between GnRH, FSH and Oestrogen

A

GnRH- starts
Stimulates pituitary to produce FSH
FSH affects oestrogen
Oestrogen increases eggs and uterus

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138
Q

Describe the relationship between LH and Progesterone

A

LH surge
stimulates ovulation
corpus luteum
progesterone produced

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139
Q

Days 1-7 of menstrual cycle

A

menstruation

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140
Q

Days 8-11 of menstrual cycle

A

Lining of womb thickens in preparation for the egg

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141
Q

Day 14 of menstrual cycle

A

ovulation

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142
Q

Days 18-25 of menstrual cycle

A

If fertilisation has not taken place the corpus luteum fades away

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143
Q

Days 26-28 of menstrual cycle

A

The uterine lining detaches leading to menstruation

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144
Q

What is spermatogenesis?

A

Spermatozoa being produced in the testis

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145
Q

What is ejaculate made of?

A

-Ejaculate is a mixture of spermatozoa and seminal
plasm

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146
Q

Outline the testes

A

Oval organ, 4 cm long x 2.5 cm in
diameter
* Covered anteriorly by a saclike extension
of the peritoneum (tunica vaginalis) that
descended into the scrotum with the testes
* Tunica albuginea = white fibrous capsule

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147
Q

Outline the compartments of the testes

A

septa divide the organ into compartments containing
seminiferous tubules where sperm are produced

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148
Q

Outline leydig cells

A

clusters of cells between the seminiferous
tubules and source of testosterone

AKA interstitial cells

produce sperm

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149
Q

Outline sertoli cells

A

s promote sperm cell development
* blood-testis barrier is formed by tight junctions between
sertoli cells; separating sperm from immune system

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150
Q

Where do seminiferous tubules drain into?

A

eminiferous tubules drain into network called rete testi

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151
Q

Outline male inguinal and scrotal region

A

*Pendulous pouch holding the testes divided into 2 compartments
by median septum
*Testicular thermoregulation is necessary since sperm are not
produced at core body temperature - need to be 35 not 37

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152
Q

Outline mitosis

A

Mitosis produces 2 genetically identical daughter
cells (occurs in tissue repair & embryonic growth)

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153
Q

Outline meiosis

A

Meiosis produces gametes haploid cells required
for sexual reproduction
– 2 cell divisions (after only one replication of DNA)
– meiosis keeps chromosome number constant from
generation to generation after fertilization
– meiosis occurs in seminiferous tubules of males

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154
Q

What are the 2 cell divisions of meiosis?

A

Meiosis produces gametes haploid cells required
for sexual reproduction
– 2 cell divisions (after only one replication of DNA)
* meiosis I separates homologous chromosome pairs2
haploid cells
* meiosis II separates duplicated sister chromatids4 haploid
cells
– meiosis keeps chromosome number constant from
generation to generation after fertilization
– meiosis occurs in seminiferous tubules of males

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155
Q

What are the 2 types of spermatogonia daughter cells?

A

Type A
Type B

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156
Q

Describe type A spermatogonia

A

Type A remain outside blood-testis
barrier & produce more
daughter cells until death

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157
Q

Outline type B spermatogonia

A

type B differentiate into
primary spermatocytes
* cells must pass through
BTB to move inward
toward lumen - new tight
junctions form behind
these cells
* meiosis I  2 secondary
spermatocytes
* meiosis II  4 spermatids

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158
Q

What is spermiogenesis?

A

Spermiogenesis is transformation of spermatids into
spermatozoa
– sprouts tail and discards cytoplasm to become lighter

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159
Q

Number of sperm produced

A

-300 to 600 sperm are made
per gram of testis per second.
-50g x 50 min x 60 sec x 500
sperm =
75,000,000 spermatozoa

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160
Q

Describe the hormonal regulation of sperm production

A

GnRH-
ptuitary produces FSH and LH
FSH induces surge if spermatogenesis
LH acts on leydig cells

leydig cells produces testosterone inhibits gnrh

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161
Q

Outline the head of the sperm

A

Head is pear-shaped front end
– 4 to 5 microns long structure
containing the nucleus, acrosome
and basal body of the tail flagellum
* nucleus contains haploid set
of chromosomes
* acrosome contains enzymes
that penetrate the egg
* basal body

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162
Q

Outline the tail of the sperm

A

Tail is divided into 3 regions
– midpiece contains mitochondria
around axoneme of the flagellum
(produce ATP for flagellar
movement)
– principal piece is axoneme
surrounded by fibers
– endpiece is axoneme only and is
very narrow tip of flagellum

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163
Q

Outline the efferent ductules

A

– 12 small ciliated ducts collecting sperm
from the rete testes and transporting it
to the epididymis

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164
Q

Outline the epididymis

A

– 6 m long coiled duct adhering to the
posterior of testis
– site of sperm maturation & storage
(fertile for 40 to 60 days)

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165
Q

Outline the ductus (vas) deferens

A

– muscular tube 45 cm long passing up
from scrotum through inguinal canal to
posterior surface of bladder
– widens into a terminal ampulla

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166
Q

Outline ejaculatory duct

A

– 2 cm duct formed from ductus deferens
& seminal vesicle & passing through
prostate to empty into urethra

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167
Q

What are the accessory glands?

A

Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Bulbourethral gland

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168
Q

Outline main components of semen

A

-2-5 mL of fluid expelled during orgasm
– 60% seminal vesicle fluid, 30% prostatic & 10% sperm and
trace of bulbourethral fluid
* normal sperm count is 50-120 million/mL (< 25 million/mL is
associated with infertility)
* sperm serve to digest path through cervical mucus and to
fertilize egg

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169
Q

Outline other components of semen

A

– fructose provide energy for sperm motility
– fibrinogen
– clotting enzymes convert fibrinogen to fibrin causing semen to
clot
– fibrinolysin liquefies semen within 30 minutes
– prostaglandins stimulate female peristaltic contractions
– spermine is a base stabilizing sperm pH at 7.2 to 7.6

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170
Q

Outline the role of sex chromosomes

A
  • Our cells contain 23 pairs of chromosomes
    – 22 pairs of autosomes
    – 1 pair of sex chromosomes (XY males: XX females)
  • males produce 50% Y carrying sperm and 50% X carrying
  • all eggs carry the X chromosome
  • Sex of the child is
    determined by the type
    of sperm that fertilizes
    the mother’s egg
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171
Q

Sperm transport in female reproductive tract

A

*A small number of
spermatozoa reach to the
upper part of female
reproductive tract
*Both Sperm motility and
female reproductive tract
movement are responsible
for sperm transport
*Cervical mucus
Penetration test

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172
Q

Outline capacitation

A

*Capacitation was first discovered by Chang and
Austin independently (1950).
*The final maturational stage of spermatozoa that
takes place in the female genital tract, before
spermatozoa gain the ability to fertilize oocyte.
*It is one of the most investigated areas of
andrology and one of the least understood areas
of andrology.

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173
Q

Decsribe acrosome reaction

A

Happens when sperm is in contact with the zona pellucida
zp3 starts
then zp2

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174
Q

What is an embryo morula?

A

The morula is a globular solid mass of 16-32 blastomeres formed by cleavage of the zygote that precedes the blastocyst

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175
Q

Different types of lab processes to do with stem cells and gametes

A

*Artificial Insemination (AI)
*Embryo Transfer (ET)
*In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
*Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)
*Somatic Nuclear Transfer (Cloning)
*Stem Cell Therapy (Regenerative Medicine)
*IPS Cells (Induced pluripotent Stem Cells)

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176
Q

Outline day 1 of fertilisation

A

Oocyte activation is key and is triggered by a sperm protein called Phospholipase C zeta (PLCz).
This ‘activates’ the egg to release calcium from internal stores and this rise in calcium facilitates fertilisation.
Oocyte activation is essential for the transformation of the decondensed sperm nucleus in to pronucleus.
4-7 hours after gamete fusion the two sets of haploid chromosomes form the female and male pronucleus (23 chromosomes each)
Pronuclei are equal size and contain nucleoli
In IVF multinucleate oocytes can be identified - polyspermic

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177
Q

What happens in syngamy?

A
  • Male and Female pronucleus migrate to centre (cytoskeletal system plays important role)
  • Haploid chromosomes pair and replicate DNA in preparation for the first mitotic division
  • The pronuclear membranes breakdown
  • The mitotic metaphase spindle forms
  • 46 Chromosomes organise at the spindle equator
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178
Q

Describe day 2 cleavage

A

Approx 24 hours after fertilisation the ooplasm divides in to two equal halves

If one or more of the PN fail to decondense and move in to one of the blastomeres, diploid or triploid mosaics may occur

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179
Q

What is cleavage and what does it do?

A

Cleavages are timed from sperm entry by an oocyte program that also regulates ‘house keeping’ activities in embryos.

Successive cleavages result in an increase in cell number – essential to provide sufficient cells for differentiation.

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180
Q

Describe genetic control in the embryo

A

Prior to 4-8 cell stage the developmental control depends on maternally-derived stores of RNA laid down during oogenesis.

Activation of the embryonic genome and start of embryonic transcription occurs in a 4-8 cell embryo.

Developmental arrest can occur.

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181
Q

Describe day 3 cleavage

A

Early cleavage stage embryos are ‘totipotent’ – the nuclei of individual blastomeres are each capable of forming an entire foetus.

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182
Q

Describe day 4 compaction

A
  • Cells flatten
  • Maximise intracellular contacts
  • Tight junctions form
  • Polarisation of outer cells
  • Morula – 16 cells
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183
Q

Descriebe day 5 cavitation and differentiation

A
  • Tight junctions occur between outer cells – forms the trophectoderm
  • Fluid filled cavity expands
  • Sodium pumped in which pulls water in by osmosis
    Now >80 cells
    50-66% comprise trophectoderm, rest is ICM
    Pluripotent
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184
Q

What do trophectoderm cells do?

A

Trophectoderm cells pump fluid in to the embryo to form the blastocoel cavity

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185
Q

Describe day 5/6 expansion

A
  • Cavity expands
  • Diameter increases
  • ZP thins
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186
Q

Outline day 6+ hatching

A
  • Blastocyst expansion and enzymatic factors cause the embryo to hatch from the ZP.
    Essential for implantation
  • TE – extraembyronic
  • ICM - embryonic
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187
Q

When is the embryo transplanted into the uterus?

A

Day 5

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188
Q

Describe the energy metabolism and requirements of the early pre-implantation embryo

A

ATP turnover low
ATP / ADP ratio is high
Energy metabolism characterised by consumption of pyruvate
Glucose uptake and utilisation is low

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189
Q

Describe the Energy metabolism and requirements in the Blastocyst stage

A

Metabolic activity rises sharply
ATP / ADP ratio falls, reflecting an increase demand for energy e.g for protein biosyntheses and ion pumping associated with blastocoel cavity.
Glucose is the predominant exogenous energy substrate

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190
Q

Genetic control of the embryo at different stages

A

early cleavage- maternal
blastocyst- embryonic

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191
Q

What is exogenous nutrients in vivo supplied by?

A

Cumulus cells
Fallopian Tube secretions e.g. calcium,
sodium, chloride, glucose, proteins.
Uterine secretions e.g. iron, fat soluble vitamins, glucose

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192
Q

How is the fallopian tube adapted to provide the right nutrients to the embryo?

A

Concentrations of nutrients vary along the tract to provide the embryo requirements at the right time

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193
Q

Growth factors and cytokines

A

important in embryonic growth and differentiation
Insulin-like growth factor - IGF–I and IGF–II increase cell numbers in blastocyst
Leukaemia inhibitory factor (LIF) enhances embryo-endo interaction

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194
Q
A

Cellular differentiation – 10 days
After implantation embryogenesis continues with the next stage of gastrulation when the three germ layers of the embryo form in a process called histogenesis
The 3 germ layers form: ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm (three overlapping flat discs)
It is from these three layers that all the structures and organs of the body will be derived

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195
Q

Changes to the uterus for implantation

A
  • Endometrial cell changes to help absorption of uterine fluid – bring the blastocyst nearer to the endometrium and immobilises it.
  • Changes in thickness of endometrium and its blood supply development
  • Formation of the decidua

Implantation window = 4 days (6-10 days postovulation)

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196
Q

Outline the implantation process

A

Well defined starting point

Gradual process over several weeks

No universal agreement when process is completed

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197
Q

Relationship between size of implantation site and thickness of endometrium

A

small size of implantation site compared to thickness of endometrium

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198
Q

Outline the regulation of implantation

A

After embryo hatched the embryonic and maternal cells enter into a complex dialogue

High degree of preparation and coordination required

Controlled cascade of trophoblast proliferation, differentiation, migration
and invasion

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199
Q

Mechanisms of embryo implantation

A

The cross talk between endometrium and the developing embryo is mediated by substances including:
Hormones (sex steroids)
Cell adhesion molecules
Proteases
Cytokines, Growth Factors

Also genetics
5 genes up regulated during implantation window (Haouzi et al 2009)

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200
Q

3 phases of embryo implantation

A

Apposition

Attachment

Invasion

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201
Q

Describe apposition

A

Unstable adhesion of the
blastocyst to the uterine lining

Synchronisation of embryo
and endometrium (decidua)

Hatched blastocyst orientates via embryonic pole (always attaches at the area above the ICM)

Receptive endometrium (implantation window day 19 – 22)

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202
Q

Describe Attachment (adhesion)

A

Stable/stronger adhesion
penetrate with protrusions of the trophoblast cells (microvilli)
Massive communication between the blastocyst and endometrium conveyed by receptor-ligand interactions
Apical surfaces of the endometrial epithelial cells express variety of adhesion molecules (integrin subunits)
Trophoblastic cells also express integrins
Attachment occurs through the mediation of bridging ligands that connect with integrins on their surfaces

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203
Q

Describe invasion (penetration)

A

Trophoblast protrusions continue to proliferate and penetrate the endometrium
cells differentiate to become syncytiotrophoblast
The trophoblast surrounding the ICM = cytotrophoblasts.
Highly invasive - trophoblast quickly expands and erodes into endometrial stroma.
Invasion is enzymatically mediated
Syncytiotrophoblast erodes endometrial blood vessels
Eventually syncytiotrophoblast comes into contact with maternal blood and form chorionic villi – in initiation of the formation of the placenta
Blood filled lacunae form (spaces filled with maternal blood). Exchange nutrients and waste products.

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204
Q

What happens to the invasiveness of the trophoblast?

A

After first few days of implantation, the trophoblast changes character to become less invasive

killer cells don’t attack it

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205
Q

Outline decidual reaction

A

Promotes placental formation
stromal cells adjacent to the blastocyst differentiate into metabolically active, secretory cells or Decidual Cells (under influence of progesterone)
Secretions include growth factors/proteins to support growth of implanting blastocyst in the initial stages before the placenta is fully developed.
Endometrial glands enlarge and local uterine wall becomes highly vascularised.
The decidual reaction is not required for implantation e.g. ectopic implantation can occur anywhere in the abdominal cavity.

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206
Q

What changes happen in the decidual reaction

A

These changes include swelling of stromal cells due to accumulation of glycogen and other nutrients. These nutrients help the embryo survive the initial days before the placenta is fully developed, which then establishes a channel for fetus nutrient exchange.

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207
Q

When does the decidual reaction happen and where?

A

The decidual reaction is seen in very early pregnancy in the generalized area where the blastocyst contacts the endometrial decidua. It consists of an increase in secretory functions of the endometrium at the area of implantation, as well as a surrounding stroma that becomes edematous.[1]

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208
Q

Role of progesterone in implantation

A
  • Modifies the distribution of oestrogen receptors
  • Stimulates secretory activity
  • Stimulates stromal oedema
  • Increases volume of blood vessels
  • Primes decidual cells
  • Stabilises lysosomes
  • Might be an immunosuppresent
  • May stimulate growth factors and binding proteins
  • May regulate the formation of reactive oxygen species (reducing oxidative stress)
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209
Q

Describe maternal recognition of the embryo

A

Embryo is antigenically different from the mother
At the same time as the decidual reaction, leukocytes in the endometrial stroma secrete interleukin-2 which prevents maternal recognition of the embryo as a foreign body during the early stages of implantation
uterine natural killer cells

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210
Q

What is Human Chorionic Gonadotropin?

A

produced in the human placenta by the syncytiotrophoblast
hCG-a Synthesised in cytotrophoblast cells
hCG-b synthesised in syncytiotrophoblast cells of placenta

Rising hCG-b levels from day 7-8 signify onset of implantation

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211
Q

What is the role of hCG?

A

Essential to sustain early pregnancy
ensures the corpus luteum continues to produce progesterone throughout the first trimester of pregnancy (prevents menstruation).
Interacts with the endometrium via specific receptors
Immunosuppressive – has highly negative charge, may repel the immune cells of the mother & protect the foetus.

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212
Q

Outline hCG Measurement in early pregnancy

A

hCG to double every 1.3 days in the first 10-12 days of a normal singleton pregnancy

A short doubling time signifies a healthy pregnancy

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213
Q

What might slow rate of increase of HCG show?

A

Early abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
Delayed implantation
Inadequate trophoblast

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214
Q
A

Embryos are highly sensitive to the environment – essential to optimise conditions to enable successful program

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215
Q
A

Use a sequential culture medium – different composition at different stages

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216
Q

What does an embryo need in days 1-3

A

Day 1-3
Water, salts &ions
Pyruvate, lactate, protein
and
No/low Glucose
Non essential amino acids

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217
Q

What do embryos need in day 3+

A

Day 3+
Water, salts &ions
Pyruvate, lactate, protein
and
Glucose
Essential and non essential amino acids
Vitamins

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218
Q

Describe 1 step culture system

A

Culture day 1-6 in same media one media
Let the embryo choose principal
useful in uninterrupted systems like time lapse
Why? Reduce stress, less disturbance, Increase embryo viability

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219
Q

Factors affecting embryo growth

A

maternal factors
embryonic factors
lab conditions

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220
Q

Maternal factors

A

Follicle environment
Oocyte maturity (hCG trigger 36hours before egg collection)

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221
Q

Embryonic factors

A

Cleavage rate, size of blastomeres, degree of fragmentation
Gross chromosome imbalance
Variations in embryo metabolism
Failure or abnormal formation of the blastocoel cavity

222
Q

Lab conditions

A

Exposure to light
Exposure to high oxygen concentrations
Changes in pH or osmolarity
Culture medium
Volatile organic compounds

223
Q

outline embryo transfer

A

Select morphologically (and developmentally) best
embryo(s) to transfer on day 5.

If any remaining embryos - cryopreserve.

Need to be of good quality and correct stage of development to be frozen.

224
Q

Describe the blastocyst transfer evidence

A

Enable better selection (embryonic genome activated)

Promotes synchronization with the endometrium.

Higher pregnancy and live birth rates for selected patient populations.

Recent systematic review and meta-analysis demonstrated a much improved live birth rate compared to the early cleavage stage when equal numbers of embryos were replaced

225
Q

Outline failed implantation

A

Implantation failure is mainly related to either maternal factors or embryonic causes.

Problem with the embryo - high proportion of embryos fail to implant
Aneuploidy (40% IVF fertilised eggs abnormal)

Interaction between embryo and uterus - insufficient trophoblast invasion
miscarriage

Insufficient invasion of maternal blood vessels
Pre-eclampsia, poor foetal growth, hypertension

Sperm problem – DNA fragmentation (abnormal genetic material). Increase miscarriage. Nutrition & lifestyle.

226
Q

Describe Recurrent Implantation failure (RIF)

A

Failure to achieve a clinical pregnancy after transfer of at least 4 good quality embryos in at least 3 cycles

Under the age of 40

227
Q

Underlying causes of RIF

A

Poor ovarian function
Increased sperm DNA fragmentation
Uterine pathologies
Polyps/fibroids
Congenital anomalies
Intrauterine adhesions
Hydrosalpinges shown to significantly reduce implantation and preg rates - fluid toxic to embryos and affects endometrial receptivity.
Immunological factor (NK cells)

228
Q

Outline management of RIF

A

Lifestyle changes (smoking, BMI)
Sperm DNA fragmentation test
Improve embryo selection e.g. PGT-A
Hysteroscopy – remove anomalies
Fibroid / Polyps /Hydrosalpinges removal
Immunotherapy (intravenous immunoglobulin) – maybe only subgroup of women benefit.

229
Q

Describe the intermediate mesoderm

A
  • Forms a ridge of issue on the posterior abdominal wall
  • Both the renal and genital systems develop from it
230
Q

What are the 3 systems of kidney development?

A

Three overlapping kidney systems develop from intermediate mesoderm
- Pronephros
- Mesonephros
- Metanephros

231
Q

Outline pronephros

A

Develops in week - 4/40 (disappears by 5/40)
Function/ role- Non-functional, rudimentary

232
Q

Outline the mesonephros

A

Develops in week- 4/40
Function/role- Part of it persists
in males.
Excretory tubules develop with a group of capillaries
Capillaries > glomerulus
Tubules > Bowman’s capsule

Collecting duct called the mesonephric duct forms

Gonad starts to develop

233
Q

Outline the metanephros

A

Develops in week- 5/40; starts to function at 12/40
Function/ role- Definitive kidney

Definitive kidney
Develops in the pelvic region
Collecting system and excretory system develop differently
Starts to function in week 12 of gestation

234
Q

Fate of the mesonephros in males and females

A

Females:
Tubules and mesonephric duct degenerate

Males:
A few tubules and the mesonephric ducts remain:
mesonephric duct = vas deferens
tubules = ducts of testis

235
Q

Outline the development of the collecting system step 1

A

Develops from the ureteric bud
The ureteric bud grows out from the mesonephric duct
Covered over by a ‘cap’ of metanephric tissue
Bud grows into the cap = renal pelvis

236
Q

Outline the development of the collecting system stage 2

A

Bud splits into two parts = major calyces
Continued subdivision and formation of tubules = ureter, renal pelvis, major and minor calyces, collecting tubules

237
Q

Outline the development of the excretory system

A

Develops from metanephric cap
Development promoted by the developing collecting tubules
Development of each is dependent on the other
Metanephric tissue forms renal vesicles
Vesicles become tubular and capillaries develop = glomerulus
Form nephrons

238
Q

What does the ureteric bud form?

A

Ureter
Renal pelvis
Major and minor calyces
Collecting tubules

239
Q

Outline acid base homeostasis

A

Our systemic pH is maintained within a narrow range (7.35 – 7.45)

Normal diet generates non-volatile acid such as sulphuric and phosphoric acid from Protein metabolism, lactate from anaerobic metabolism of Glucose and volatile acid co2 primarily from carbohydrate metabolism.
Kidneys excrete the acid load and also reclaim filtered bicarbonate.
Lungs mediate excretion of co2.

240
Q

Role of kidneys in acid-base metabolism

A

Role of kidneys in Acid-Base metabolism
Reclaim the filtered HCO3-
Regenerate HCO3-
Excretion of H ions buffered by phosphate or ammonia

241
Q

What is measured in arterial blood gas?

A

pH
pO2
pCO2
Std HCO3-
Std Base excess
May include other measures (eg lactate, Na+, K+)

242
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

It is defined as low arterial pH with in conjunction with a reduced serum HCO3- concentration
What are the causes?
Ketoacidosis, shock, severe diarrhoea, impaired kidney function, ingested toxins
H + HCO3 = H2CO3 = H2O + CO2

243
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

pH and bicarbonate is high
Causes:
- Alkali ingestion
- Gastrointestinal acid loss: Vomiting
- Renal acid loss: Hyperaldosteronism, hypokalaemia (use of diuretics)
Compensatory mechanism: Hypoventilation (but limited by hypoxic drive), renal bicarbonate excretion

244
Q

Respiratory acidosis

A

CO2 retention, leading to increased carbonic acid dissociation
Causes: Any cause of respiratory failure
e.g hypo- over sedation, brain trauma, immobility, resp muscle paralysis
hyper- pneumonia, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, bronchitis
Compensatory mechanism: Increased renal H+ excretion and bicarbonate retention (but only if chronic)

245
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

CO2 depletion due to hyperventilation
Causes: Type 1 respiratory failure, anxiety/panic
Compensation: Increased renal bicarbonate loss (if chronic)

246
Q

Hormones

A

A hormone is a substance secreted directly into the blood by specialised cells
Hormones are present in only minute concentrations in the blood and bind specific receptors in target cells to influence cellular reactions

246
Q

System of control using hormones

A

5

246
Q

Examples of hormones

A

Insulin
Cortisol
Testosterone
Oestrogen
Thyroxine
Adrenaline
Aldosterone
Progesterone
Glucagon
VIP

247
Q

Endocrine glands

A

Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Thyroid
Parathyroids
Adrenals
Pancreas
Ovary
Testes

248
Q

What are the different hormone structures?

A

-Steroids- e.g cortisol

-Peptides- e.g insulin

-Thyroid hormones- e.g thyroxine

249
Q

Steroid hormones

A

All steroid hormones are synthesised from cholesterol

250
Q

What are catecholamines

A

Catecholamines synthesised from tyrosine

251
Q

Peptides and proteins

A

Storage
Secretion
Binding protein
1/2 life
Time to action

252
Q

Steroids and pseudo steroids

A

Storage
Secretion
Binding protein
1/2 life
Time to action

253
Q

Thyroid hormones

A

Storage
Secretion
Binding protein
1/2 life
Time to action

254
Q

Catecholamines

A

Storage
Secretion
Binding protein
1/2 life
Time to action

255
Q

Extracellular receptors

A

Cascade function in the cell
hormone binds to cell surface and can’t go thru the membrane
G-protein coupl
Insulin receptors

256
Q

Intracellular

A

Takes a while as it has to travel thru cell membrane and cell nucleus
Affects gene transcription in the cell

257
Q

How do hormones affect us?

A
  • Pre-menstrual tension
  • Pregnancy – post natal depression
  • Puberty
  • High dose steroids – psychosis
  • Hypogonadism – poor libido
  • Insulinoma - behaviour
258
Q

Thyroid hormone action

A

Basal metabolic rate, growth (esp. of the brain)
Low thyroid hormone means low bmr and lethargy

259
Q

Parathyroid actions

A

Ca2+ regulation

260
Q

Cortisol action

A

Glucose regulation, inflammation, cardiovascular system
Too little- addison’s disease (low BP and insufficiently raised heart rate)

261
Q

Aldosterone action

A

BP, Na+ regulation

262
Q

Catecholamines action

A

BP, stress

263
Q

Oestradiol action

A

Menstruation and femininity

264
Q

Testosterone action

A

Sexual function, masculinity

265
Q

Insulin action

A

Glucose regulation

266
Q

ANP action

A

Na+ regulation

267
Q

Vitamin D action

A

Ca2+ regulation

268
Q

How to measure hormone concentrations?

A

Bioassays
Immunoassays
Mass spectrometry

269
Q

Importance of the pituitary in endocrinology

A

Controls the release of other hormones
Hormones of the anterior pituitary: ACTH, TSH, GH, LH/FSH, PRL
Hormones of the anterior pituitary: ADH, Oxytocin

270
Q

Hormones of the anterior pituitary and functions

A

ACTH - Regulation of adrenal cortex
TSH- Thyroid hormone regulation
GH- Growth (+), metabolism
LH/FSH- Reproductive control
PRL- Breast milk production

271
Q

Posterior pituitary hormones and functions

A

ADH- reduces urine output
Oxytocin- breast milk expression

272
Q

Example of feedback principle

A

Hypothalamus releases TRH
TRH receptor in pituitary stimulates TSH release
This stimulates the TSH receptor in the thyroid which releases thyroxine
This thyroxine acts on cells but also stimulates the pituitary gland and hypothalamus to stop it

273
Q

Excess production endocrine disease

A

Thyrotoxicosis
Cushing’s disease/syndrome- disease bc of pituitary tumour, syndrome bc of a collection of symptoms
Acromegaly

274
Q

Treatment for thyrotoxicosis

A
  • Destruction of thyroid tissue using radioiodine
  • Antithyroid drugs to block hormone synthesis
  • Partial surgical ablation of thyroid
275
Q

Drugs to treat functioning pituitary tumours

A

Somatostatin analogues
Dopamine agonists
GH receptor antagonists

276
Q

Too little endocrine production diseases

A

Severe hypothyroidism
Iodine deficiency- goitre
Addison’s disease

277
Q

Treatments for underactive glands

A

Underactive thyroid – thyroxine
Underactive adrenals – hydrocortisone(cortisol) + fludrocortisone (synthetic aldosterone analogue)
(Premature) menopause – oestrogen replacement
Underactive testes - testosterone

278
Q

Non-gland based endocrinology diseases

A

Carcinoid disease
Small cell lung cancer
Liver secondaries
- Flushing
- Wheezing
- Diarrhoea
- Valvular heart disease

279
Q

Outline the pituitary gland

A

Pea-sized
Weighs ca. 0.5 g

Secretes hormones in response to signals from hypothalamus

280
Q

Arterial supply of pituitrary

A

The anterior pituitary has no arterial blood supply but receives blood through a portal venous circulation from the hypothalamus

281
Q

Slide 9

A

Pit. hormone
Hormone type
Action

282
Q

Outline the hypothalamus

A

Collection of brain ‘nuclei’
Connections to almost all other areas of the brain
Important for homeostasis
primitive functions
appetite, thirst, sleep, temperature regulation
Control of autonomic function via brainstem autonomic centres
Control of endocrine function via pituitary gland

283
Q
A

Hormone released Releasing hormone
TSH TRH
ACTH CRH
FSH GnRH or LHRH
LH
GH GHNRG
Prolactin Dopamine

284
Q

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) effects of excess and deficiency

A

Effect of deficiency is small adrenal gland
Effect of excess is large adrenal gland

285
Q

How does ACTH regulate glucocorticoid synthesis?

A
  • Acutely stimulates cortisol release
  • Stimulates corticosteroid synthesis (and capacity)
  • CRH stimulates ACTH release
  • Negative feedback of cortisol on CRH and ACTH production
286
Q

How do cortisol levels change thru the day?

A

Increase from 3-6 am getting you ready for the day then decreases thru the day with a small peal at 3-4pm

287
Q

Growth hormone (GH) overview

A

Released throughout life
Pulsatile
Stimulated by low glucose, exercise, sleep
Suppressed by hyperglycaemia
Effects mediated by GH and IGF1

288
Q

Actions of growth hormone

A

Linear growth in children
Acquisition of bone mass
Stimulates:
-protein synthesis
-lipolysis (fat breakdown)
-glucose metabolism
Regulation of body composition
Psychological well-being

289
Q

Regulation of thyroid hormone levels

A

Negative feedback loop between TSH and thyroxine

In pituitary failure both TSH and thyroxine are low

(in a case of underactive thyroid, where thyroid and not pituitary is problem, thyroxine is low and TSH rises to stimulate thyroid)

290
Q

LH/ FSH

A

Essential for reproductive cycle
LH stimulates sex hormone secretion
FSH stimulates development of follicles
Absence leads to infertility and hypogonadism

291
Q

Mechanism to stimulate release of LH and FSH

A

E2 (and others) stimulate the hypothalamus to produce GnRH
This stimulates the pituitary to convert the FSH beta and LH beta to be converted to FSH and LH and then be released

Inhibitin

292
Q

Control of prolactin secretion

A
  • Synthesised in lactotrophs
    Regulation of PRL different to other anterior pituitary hormones
  • Negative regulation by tonic release in inhibiting factor - dopamine
293
Q

Prolactin overview

A

Essential for lactation

Levels increase dramatically in pregnancy and during breast-feeding – do not test at these times

Inhibits gonadal activity through central suppression of GnRH (and thus decreased LH/FSH)

Mainly causes disease when present in excess

294
Q

Outline PHYSIOLOGICAL HYPERPROLACTAEMIA

A
  • Physical or psychological stress
  • Post seizure
  • Greater in women
  • Rarely exceeds 850 – 1000 mU/L
  • PRL has circadian rhythm with peak during sleep
295
Q

Clinical features of hyperprolactinemia

A
  • Usually easy to recognise in pre-menopausal women
  • Less apparent in men & post-menopausal women
  • Pre-menopausal women
    -Hypogonadism
    -Oligo/amennorrhoea
    -Oestrogen deficiency
    • Galactorrhoea – spontaneous/ expressible
  • Post-menopausal women
    • Due to hypogonadal status – none of the above
296
Q

Outline PATHOLOGICAL HYPERPROLACTINAEMIA

A

-PRL-secreting pituitary tumours – prolactinomas
-Microadenoma (< 1 cm diameter)
-Macroadenoma (≥1 cm diameter)
-Loss of inhibitory effect hypothalamic DA
-Pituitary stalk compression/ pituitary disconection
-Drugs – DA antagonists
-Phenothiazines, metoclopramide, TCAs, verapamil
-Hypothyrodism

297
Q

Diseases of the pituitary

A
  • Benign pituitary adenoma
  • Craniopharygioma
  • Trauma
  • Apoplexy / Sheehans
  • Sarcoid / TB
298
Q

Presentation of pituitary tumours

A
  1. Pressure on local structure e.g. optic nerves
    Bitemporal hemianopia
  2. Pressure on normal pituitary
    hypopituitarism
  3. Functioning tumour:
    Prolactinoma
    Acromegaly
    Cushing’s disease
299
Q

Why are post. and ant. pituitary separate?

A

Posterior pituitary comes from the neural ectoderm and anterior pituitary comes from oral ectoderm

300
Q

Local effects of pituitary tumours

A

Chiasmatic compression
Cranial nerve damage
Hypothalamic damage
Bony invasion: pain, CSF leaks

301
Q

What is bitemporal hemianopia?

A

Visual field loss due to damage to optic chiasm
Patient can adjust for this by moving head more from side to
side to compensate, may not be aware of deficit

302
Q

Pituitary hormone excess- what it does

A

ACTH – Leads to increased cortisol levels (Cushing’s disease)

GH – Leads to increased GH and IGF-1 levels (Acromegaly)

LH or FSH – Very rare! Might stop periods (Gonadotrophinoma)

TSH – Leads to thyrotoxicosis. Very rare cause!

Prolactin – Leads to galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea
(Prolactinoma)

303
Q

Prolactinomas

A
  • More common in women
  • Present with galactorrhoea / amenorrhoea / infertility
  • Loss of libido
  • Visual field defect
  • Treatment dopamine agonist eg Cabergoline or bromocriptine.
304
Q

Acromegaly

A
  • GH excess
  • Leads to increased Insulin-like Growth Factor-1 production in the liver
  • Both GH and IGF1 increase growth of a range of soft and hard tissues
  • > 98% due to a pituitary tumour, often large
305
Q

Cushing disease/syndrome

A

Fat tissue: Central obesity, moon face, ‘buffalo hump”
Collagen/protein: Thin skin, striae, easy bruising, myopathy, osteoporosis
Androgen excess: Acne, hirsutism, amenorrhoea
Other: Hypertension, depression, diabetes, immunosuppression

306
Q

What causes cushing’s disease and how is it diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed by:
high cortisol production
loss diurnal rhythm of cortisol
loss of negative feedback of glucocorticoids on the pituitary

With pituitary origin ACTH levels will be high or inappropriately normal for the high cortisol levels

ACTH levels will be high in the blood draining from the pituitary

Treatment is by transsphenoidal surgery

307
Q

Hypopituitarism

A
  • GH deficiency causes reduced linear growth in childhood. Symptoms less obvious in adulthood
  • LH/FSH deficiency causes hypogonadism
  • ACTH deficiency causes adrenal insufficiency
  • TSH deficiency causes hypothyroidism
  • Associated with increased morbidity & mortality
308
Q

Causes of cushing’s syndrome

A

Pituitary tumour + Ectopic tumour both produce too much ACTH
Synthetic ACTH-> Biggest cause

309
Q

Causes and clinical features of hypopituitarism

A

Common causes:
Pituitary tumours (often non-functioning)
Pituitary surgery / radiotherapy / infarction
Congenital
Moderate-severe Head injuries

Clinical Features:
Depend on hormones deficient
Usual sequence of failure:
GH, LH/FSH, ACTH, TSH +/- AVP

310
Q

Which part of the nephron does bulk absorption and which part does fine tuning

A

Proximal = bulk absorption = leaky

Distal = fine tuning = impermeable

311
Q

Segments of the nephron

A

Cortex- PCT, proximal straight tubule, part of thick ascending limb, DCT and part of collecting duct
Medulla- Thin descending limb, loop of Henle, thin ascending limb, part of thick ascending limb and collecting duct

312
Q

What does the PCT do?

A

bulk reabsorption: Na, Cl, glucose, amino acids, HCO3; secretion of organic ions

313
Q

What does the loop of henle do?

A

more Na reabsorption, urinary dilution and generation of medullary hypertonicity

314
Q

Distal tubule

A

Fine regulation of Na, K, Ca, Pi, separation of Na from H2O

315
Q

Collecting duct functions

A

similar to distal tubule, + acid secretion, regulated H2O reabsorption concentrating urine

316
Q

Aminoaciduria: cystinuria

A

Tubular defect in uptake of amino acids
Defect; mutations in the SLC3A1 and SCL7A( genes
Genetic test available but not routinely used in clinical practice
Failure of cytokine reabsorption - urinary crystal

317
Q

Proximal bicarbonate reabsorption

A
318
Q

Acute tubular necrosis

A
319
Q

Outline counter-current multiplication aim

A

to generate a hypertonic medullary interstitium so that H2O can be sucked out of the tubule in impermeable distal segments, thus concentrating the urine

320
Q
A

Descending limb
simple squamous
flat cells sparse organelles

simple cuboidal/low collumnar

321
Q

Countercurrent multiplication mechanism

A
  1. Solute reabsorption in the impermeable ascending limb lowers the lumenal osmolality and increases the medullary interstitial osmolarity
  2. Increased interstitial osmolarity draws H2O out of the permeable thin descending limb, increasing the lumenal osmolality.
  3. The continuous flow of fluid pushes the hyperosmotic fluid from end of the thin limb in to the ascending limb.
322
Q

Action of aldosterone

A
  • Increases transcription (steroid receptor) of ENaC (and NaKATPase)
  • This increases apical Na influx
  • This charge movement facilitates K efflux
  • Thus aldosterone drives both Na reabsorption and K secretion
323
Q

ADH (Vasopressin) Action

A

principal cells
adenylyl-cyclase coupled vasopressin receptor (V2R)
kinase actions culminate in insertion of vesicles containing aquaporin 2 into the apical membrane
increases water permeability

324
Q

Bartter’s tubulopathies

A

Site- Loop of Henle
Molecules- NKCC2, ROMK or basolateral K/Cl efflux
Diuretic equivalent- Loop diuretic
Features-HypoK, alkalosis, secondary aldosteronism, lowish BP

325
Q

Gitelman’s tubulopathy

A

Site- DCT
Molecule- NCC
Diuretic equivalent- Thiazide
Features- HypoK, HypoMg, lowish BP

326
Q

Liddle’s tubulopathy

A

Site- Collecting duct
Molecule- ENaC- constitutively active
Diuretic equivalent- n/a
Features- Hypertension, hypokalaemia

327
Q

Functions of skin

A

Waterproof barrier
Physical barrier
Vitamin D synthesis
Endocrine organ
UV barrier
Barrier to infection
Immune organ
Sensory organ
Thermoregulation
Energy store / Shock absorber

328
Q

Key facts about the skin

A

Largest organ of the body
3.6 Kg
2 m2
3 layers
Epidermis
Dermis
Subcutis
Not just a wrapper for the interesting bits!

329
Q

What does the epidermis do?

A

Waterproofing
Physical barrier
Immune function
Vitamin D synthesis (Endocrine)
UV protection
Thermoregulation

330
Q

What does the dermis do?

A

Thermoregulation
Vitamin D synthesis (Endocrine)
Sensory organ

331
Q

What does the subcutis do?

A

Thermoregulation
Energy reserve
Vitamin D storage
Endocrine organ
Shock absorber

332
Q

Outline the waterproofing of the skin

A

Tight junctions between cells in stratum granulosum, epidermal lipids and keratin in stratum corneum form both an inside-out and outside-in barrier to water
Prevents transepidermal water loss

333
Q

Why does the skin wrinkle when wet?

A

Skin on fingers and toes wrinkles if immersed for approx. 5 mins.
Mediated by sympathetic nervous system
Due to vasoconstriction in dermis
Improves grip

334
Q

Outline the skin as a physical barrier

A

Structure of skin helps resist trauma
Stratified epithelium helps resist abrasive forces
Fat in subcutis acts as shock absorber

335
Q

Outline an abrasion

A

Medical term for a graze
Stripping away of the epidermis
Secretions but not blood

336
Q

Outline the skin’s role in vitamin D synthesis and storage

A

7-dehydrocholesterol in plasma membranes of epidermal keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts converted to previtamin D3 by UVB
15-25 mins whole body exposure produces up to 10,000 IU Vitamin D
Serum concentrations peak 24-48 hours after exposure
Lipid soluble – can be stored in subcutis adipocytes

337
Q

Outline the skin as an endocrine organ- site of hormone action

A

Site of hormone action
Androgens act on follicles and sebaceous glands
Thyroid hormones act on keratinocytes, follicles, dermal fibroblasts, sebaceous glands, eccrine glands

338
Q

Outline skin changes in hypothyroidism

A

Epidermal changes
Coarsened thin scaly skin

Dermal changes
Myxoedema

Hair and Nail changes
Dry brittle coarse hair
Alopecia
Thin brittle nails

Sweat gland changes
Dry skin
Decreased sweating

339
Q

Outline the skin as an endocrine organ- site of hormone synthesis

A

Vitamin D3 – unique site for cholecalciferol synthesis
17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase in sebocytes and 5α-reductase in dermal adipocytes convert dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and androstenedione to 5α-dihydrotestosterone
Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) binding protein-3 (IGFBP-3) synthesised by dermal fibroblasts

340
Q

Outline skin as a barrier to UV light

A

Both UV-A and UV-B damage skin
- Burns
- Suppress action of Langerhans cells
- Photo-aging
- DNA damage (skin cancers)
Skin colour depends on:
- Melanin
- Carotenoids
- Oxy/deoxyhaemoglobin

341
Q

Melanin

A

Synthesised in melanosomes within melanocytes from tyrosine
Transported via dendrites to adjacent keratinocytes
Pheomelanin (red/yellow)
Eumelanin (brown/black)
Photoprotective – scatters/filters UV light

342
Q

Outline density of melanocytes and presence of different types of melanin

A

Melanocyte density varies between body sites
Red hair contains more pheomelanin
All skin types contain more eumelanin than pheomelanin.

343
Q

Bad bits of melanin

A

Prone to photodegradation – may generate reactive oxygen species!
Pheomelanin increases release of histamine
Lots of melanin = less able to utilize UV light to make vitamin D

344
Q

Outline immediate pigment darkening of the skin

A

photooxidation of existing melanin
redistribution of melanosomes
occurs within minutes and lasts hours-days.

345
Q

Outline Persistent pigment darkening (tanning)

A

UVA&raquo_space; UVB
oxidation of melanin
occurs within hours, lasts 3-5 days

346
Q

Outline delayed tanning

A

increased melanin synthesis
Occurs 2-3 days after UV exposure, maximal at 10-28 days

347
Q

Outline the skin as a barrier to infection

A
  • Skin presents a large surface area to environment
  • The properties that render the skin a barrier to water also help prevent infection
  • A range of peptides synthesised by granular layer keratinocytes have antimicrobial properties
    • Cathelicidin-related antimicrobial peptide (Cramp – called LL37 in humans)
    • β defensins
    • S100A7 and S100A8
348
Q

Outline the skin as an immune organ

A
  • Innate and acquired immune functions
  • Epidermis
    -Langerhans cells
  • Dermis
    • Regulatory T cells
    • Natural killer cells
    • Dendritic cells
    • Macrophages
    • Mast cells
349
Q

Outline the immune function of the epidermis

A

Keratinocytes secrete cytokines and chemokines that maintain populations of leucocytes in skin

Langerhans cells are antigen-presenting cells and secrete cytokines

350
Q

What happens in the skin when challenged with an infection?

A
  • LC migrate to dermis and lymph nodes and activate a T-cell response
  • Keratinocytes proliferate & secrete cytokines
  • Leucocytes enter skin from blood
351
Q

Outline the skin as a sensory organ

A
  • Merkle cells - basal epidermis (Light touch)
  • Encapsulated mechanoreceptors in dermis
    • Pacinian corpuscles (Pressure/Vibration)
    • Meissner corpuscles (Touch)
  • Myelinated and unmyelinated sensory nerve endings in dermis (Pain, Itch, Temperature)
352
Q

Outline skin as a heat keeper

A

Insulation
- Subcutaneous fat

Heat loss
- Cutaneous blood flow
- Deep vascular plexus (lower reticular dermis)
- Superficial vascular plexus (upper reticular dermis)
- Loops of blood vessels from superficial plexus extend to reticular dermis
- Eccrine sweating
- Hair [What might be other functions of human hair?]

353
Q

Outline the skin as a mechanism of heat loss

A

Humans are endothermic homeotherms
Heat generated through metabolism

Evaporation depends on:
Surface area exposed to environment
Temp and relative humidity of ambient air
Convective air currents

Radiation, conduction and convection can add or remove heat

354
Q

Outline heat storage equation

A

Heat storage = metabolism – work – evaporation +/- radiation +/- conduction +/- convection

355
Q

Blood flow to the skin as a mechanism of thermoregulation

A
  • Autonomic regulation of blood flow in dermal vascular plexuses
    • Sympathetic alpha-noradrenergic: vasoconstriction
    • Sympathetic cholinergic: vasodilation
    • (Both in hairy skin. Hairless skin only has cholinergic innervation)
  • Sympathetic cholinergic nerves that govern sweating may be the same as those controlling active vasodilation
  • Nitric oxide may play a role in active vasodilation
356
Q

Outline sweating

A
  • 1.6-4 million eccrine sweat glands
  • 1-3 L sweat per hour
  • Availability of water is major limiting factor
357
Q

Piloerection (goosebumps)

A
  • Arrector pili muscles innervated by sympathetic α1-adrenergic fibres
  • Contraction raises cutaneous hairs
  • Likely little significant impact on heat conservation
358
Q

Skin as an energy store

A

-Subcutaneous fat acts as an insulator, a shock absorber and as an energy store
- White adipose connective tissue

359
Q

Maternal adaptation to pregnancy- endocrine/biochemical

A

Driven by hormonal changes- include
* Weight gain
* Maternal
* Fetoplacental
* Protein synthesis
* Lipid synthesis
* Insulin resistance

360
Q

Key pregnancy hormones

A
  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin
  • Oestrogen
  • Progesterone
  • Prolactin
  • Relaxin
  • Oxytocin
  • Prostaglandins
361
Q

Outline human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

A
  • Stimulates oestrogen/progesterone production by ovary
  • Pregnancy test hormone
  • Diminishes once placenta mature enough to take over
    oestrogen/progesterone production
362
Q

Outline oestrogen in pregnancy

A
  • Produced throughout pregnancy
  • Regulates levels of progesterone
  • Prepares uterus for baby, breasts for lactation
363
Q

Outline progesterone in pregnancy

A
  • Prevents miscarriage, builds up endometrium for
    support of placenta
  • Prevents uterine contractions
364
Q

Outline prolactin in pregnancy

A
  • Produced by pituitary gland
  • Increases cells that produce milk.
  • After birth levels of P and oestrogen drop dramatically, allowing
    prolactin to stimulate production of milk, also controlled by
    suckling.
  • Prevents ovulation, unreliably
365
Q

Outline relaxin in pregnancy

A
  • High early in pregnancy
  • Limits uterine activity, softens the cervix – cervical ripening in
    preparation for delivery
366
Q

Outline oxytocin in pregnancy

A
  • Triggers “caring” reproductive behaviour.
  • Responsible for uterine contractions during pregnancy
    and labour.
  • Cause of contractions felt during breast feeding.
  • Drug used to induce labour
367
Q

Outline prostaglandins in pregnancy

A
  • Tissue hormones, role in initiation of labour
  • Synthetic prostaglandins used to induce labour
368
Q

How do the hormone levels change during the pregnancy?

A

hCG highest in 1st few weeks then drops as the placenta develops
Progesterone increases a bit then plateaus before increasing exponentially from week 20 with the other hormones
The other hormones start to increase exponentially at the 10th week

369
Q

Cardiovascular changes in pregnancy

A
  • Increasing cardiac output (CO)
  • Reduced systemic blood pressure
  • Reduced total peripheral resistance
    (TPR)
    BP= CO x TPR
  • Increased uterine blood flow Increased blood volume
  • Increased red cell mass
  • Increased alveolar ventilation
370
Q

Visible changes in pregnancy

A

Varicose veins- because of relaxation of smooth muscles
Striae gravidarum + Linea nigra - because of rapid increase in stomach size

371
Q

Internal non-uterine changes in pregnancy

A

Compression of the organs so gastric acid reflux
Lumbar lordosis because of relaxation of ligaments

372
Q

Common maternal problems affecting pregnancy

A
  • Biological factors
    • Poor weight gain/undernutrition
    • Extremes of maternal age
  • Medical conditions
  • Drug misuse: cigarettes, heroin etc
  • Haemorrhage
373
Q

Common foetal problems

A
  • Miscarriage
  • Abnormal development
  • Disordered fetal growth
    • Too big
    • Too small
  • Premature birth and consequences
374
Q

Changes to the uterus in pregnancy and birth

A

*Uterine growth - cell division and
hypertrophy of individual myometrial
cells
*Myometrium
*Smooth muscle cells in bundles,
contract and relax

375
Q

Outline the uterine cervix

A
  • Protects fetus during development
  • Mainly collagen and ground substance with
    glycosaminoglycans
  • Collagen has cross-links which increase tensile strength
376
Q

Outline cervical ripening

A
  • Growth and remodelling of the cervix prior to labour
  • Occurs under influence of placental hormones and relaxin
    throughout gestation
  • Process accelerates last 3 m due to oestrogens and
    dehydroepiandrosterone.
  • Promoted by release of PGE from cervical mucosa,
    relaxin and placental oestrogens.
  • Effacement and dilatation due to muscular action of
    cervix and uterus
377
Q

Prostaglandins in labour

A
  • All uterine tissues able to synthesize PG
  • PGE2 about 10 times as potent as PGF2a in human uterus.
  • PGF2a - main prostaglandin released during labor
378
Q

Different phases of labour

A

Phase 0 - myometrial repression
Phase 1 - Myometrial activation
Phase 2 - Biochemical activation
Phase 3 - Permanent changes

379
Q

Summary of events prelabour

A
  • Enhanced prostaglandin production
  • The initiation of labor
    • maternal signal oxytocin
    • fetal signals oxytocin, vasopressin, & cytokines
  • PGF2a enhance action of oxytocin.
  • With ­ pressure on cervix, ­ release of PG from decidua
    and chorioamnion.
380
Q

Components of labour

A

3 Ps
* Passenger the baby
* Passages the pelvis
* Powers the uterus

381
Q

Outline the passenger- foetus

A

Foetal skull bones not yet fused
Joined at sutures
Can overlap as they are squeezed thru the birth canal

382
Q

Outline the powers- uterus

A
  • Braxton-Hicks contraction
  • Co-ordinate- fundal dominant -push baby down
  • Inco-ordinate- not associated with good labour progress
383
Q

Labour initiation and action

A

*Increased PGF2a enhancing action of oxytocin.
* Increased pressure on cervix, release of PGs from
decidua and chorioamnion.
* The contractile protein actomyosin, formed
from actin and myosin.
* Myosin can react with actin only when
phorphorylated by MLCK.
* MLCK functionally dependent on ca+ ions
and calmodulin, inactivated by its own
phosphorylation

384
Q

Outline the passage- pelvis

A

Inlet- oval shapes - foetal head transverse
Main bit- circular- left occipital-anterior position
Outlet- Oval shaped but the other way- occipital anterior

385
Q

Stages of labour

A

First stage- start of regular contraction and dilatation of the cervix
Second stage- cervix dilated baby travels through vaginal canal
Delivery- Baby comes out
Third stage- placenta is delivered

386
Q

Problems with passages

A
  • Too narrow
  • Too wide
  • Damaged
387
Q

Problem with the passenger

A
  • Too large or too small
  • Abnormal lie or presentation eg breech
  • Tumours
  • Too poorly
388
Q

Problems with powers

A
  • Too strong
  • Too weak
  • Disorganised
  • Cervix too rigid
  • Cervix weak
  • Postpartum bleeding
389
Q

Problems with the stages of labour

A
  • Prolonged latent phase
  • Failure to progress in labour
  • Delayed 2nd stage – instrumental delivery
  • Delayed 3rd stage – manual removal of the placenta
390
Q

Overview of the placenta

A
  • Maternal-foetal organ
  • Begins developing at blastocyst implantation.
  • Delivered after the foetus at birth.
  • Provides for the developing foetus:
    • Nutrition
    • gas exchange
    • waste removal
    • endocrine and immune support
391
Q

Placental structure

A

Fetal surface
Maternal surface

392
Q

Foetal surface of the placenta

A
  • Umbilical cord attachment
  • Covered with amnion attached
    to chorionic plate
  • Umbilical vessels branch into
    anastomosing chorionic vessels
393
Q

Maternal surface of the placenta

A
  • Cotyledons
  • Cobblestone appearance
  • Covered with maternal
    decidua basalis
394
Q

Implantation

A

1st stage in dev of
placenta
* Adhesion/attachment
of embryonic
trophoblast and
endometrial epithelial
cells

395
Q

Placental functions

A

*Metabolism
*Transport
*Endocrine

396
Q

Placental metabolism

A

*Synthesizes
*Glycogen
*Cholesterol
*Fatty acids
*Provides nutrient and energy

397
Q

Placental transport

A
  • Gases and nutrition
  • Oxygen, carbon dioxide, CO
  • Water, glucose, vitamins
  • Hormones, mainly steroid not protein
  • Electrolytes
  • Maternal antibodies – IgG not IgM
  • Waste products
  • Urea, uric acid, bilirubin
  • Drugs and their metabolites
  • Fetal drug addiction
  • Infectious agents
  • Cytomegalovirus, rubella, measles,
    microorganisms
398
Q

Placental hormones

A
  • Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
    like leutenizing hormone, supports corpus luteum
  • Human chorionic somatommotropin (hCS)
    or placental lactogen
    stimulate mammary development
  • Human chorionic thyrotropin (hCT)
  • Human chorionic corticotropin (hCACTH)
  • Progesterone and Oestrogens
    support maternal endometrium
  • Relaxin
399
Q

Placental abnormalities

A
  • placenta accreta
  • abnormal adherence, with absence of
    decidua basalis
  • placenta percreta
  • villi penetrate myometrium
  • placenta praevia
  • placenta overlies internal os of uterus
  • abnormal bleeding * usually require caesarean delivery
400
Q

Haemolytic disease of the newborn

A
  • Fetus Rh+ /maternal Rh-
  • Fetus causes anti rh antibodies
    *Dangerous for 2nd child
401
Q

Placental problems

A
  • Maternal hypertension: pre-eclampsia
  • Foetal growth restriction
  • Tumours
  • Intra-uterine foetal death
402
Q

Outline the posterior pituitary

A

Originates from Neuro tissue – large numbers of Glial-type cells
2 Hormones
vasopressin
Oxytocin

403
Q

Vasopressin (ADH

A

Antidiuretic hormone – controls water secretion into urine)
Primarily from supraoptic nuclei

404
Q

Oxytocin

A

expression of milk from the glands of the breasts to the nipples; promotes onset of labour.
Primarily from paraventricular nuclei

405
Q

How is vasopressin produced?

A
406
Q

Mechanism of action of ADH

A
  1. Binds to membrane receptor
  2. Receptor activates cAMP second messenger system
  3. Cell inserts AQP2 water pores into the apical membrane
  4. Water is absorbed by osmosis into the blood
407
Q

2 types if receptor

A

Baroreceptors- changes in BP- signal to produce ADH
Osmoreceptors- changes in conc.- signal to produce ADH

408
Q

What is osmolality?

A
  • Concentration of particles per kilo of fluid
  • size of particle not important, number is important - i.e one
    molecule of larger protein albumin same effect as Na+
  • sodium, potassium, chloride, bicarbonate, urea and glucose
    present at high enough concentrations to affect osmolality
  • alcohol, methanol, polyethylene glycol or mannitol -
    exogenous solutes that may affect osmolality
409
Q

Serum osmolality

A

Sodium
Glucose
Urea

410
Q

Osmolarity gap

A

0-10 mOsmo/kg gap between measured and calculated - higher
usually due to alcohol

411
Q

Normal osmolality

A

282 - 295 mOsmol/kg

412
Q

Outline the loss of relationship between plasma osmolality and vasopressin

A
  • Drinking rapidly suppresses vasopressin release and thirst.
  • In pregnancy osmotic threshold for VP release and thirst is decreased.
  • Plasma VP concentrations increase with age (also thirst blunting, decreased renal concentrating ability, decreased fluid intake).
413
Q

Disorders of vasopressin (ADH)

A
  • Vasopressin Deficiency, Vasopressin Resistance
  • Syndrome of inappropriate
    antidiuretic hormone secretion -
    SIADH
414
Q

What is polyurea?

A

Large volumes of urine

415
Q

What is polydypsia?

A

Large volumes of drinking

416
Q

Clinical features or AVP-D or AVP-R

A

polyuria
polydypsia
no glycosuria or hypercalcaemia or hypokalaemia

417
Q

How to diagnose AVP-D or AVP-R?

A

measure urine volume - DI unlikely if urine volume
<3L/day
biochemistry
inappropriately dilute urine (<300 mOsm/kg) for
plasma osmolality (>290 mOsm/kg)
normonatraemia or hypernatraemia
water deprivation test

418
Q

Types of AVP diseases

A

Vasopressin Deficiency – Cranial
lack of vasopressin (ADH)

Vasopressin Resistance – Nephrogenic
resistance to vasopressin

419
Q

Causes of AVP- Deficiency

A

Destruction of hypothalamus

Interruption of the connection
of hypothalamus to pituitary
Acquired

Idiopathic
Tumours - craniopharyngioma, germinoma, metastases
Trauma
Infections - TB
Vascular - neurosarcoidosis, Langerhans’s histiocytosis
Granuloma

Familial - very rare -
mutations in the neurophysin part of pro-AVP

Autosomal dominant
Rarely autosomal recessive

420
Q

Causes of vasopressin resistance

A

Aquired-
Osmotic diuresis (diabetes mellitus)
Drugs (lithium, Demeclocycline tetracycline)
Chronic renal failure
Familial-

421
Q

Investigation of VD/VR –

A

Hypertonic Saline Stimulation Test
measure random copeptin
then if iver 21.4 pmol/L
give

422
Q

Management of AVP-D

A

treat any underlying condition

desmopressin

423
Q

Management of AVP-R

A

try and avoid precipitating drugs

congenital DI - very difficult
free access to water
very high dose desmopressin
hydrochlorothiazide or indomethacin

424
Q

SIADH-syndrome of antidiuretic hormone secretion

A

Common in clinical practice

Too much AVP, when it should not be being secreted
Causes low blood concentration - low osmolality
Urine is inappropriately concentrated
Plasma sodium is low
Euvolaemia

425
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of SIADH

A

Hyponatraemia < 135 mmol/L
Plasma hypo-osmolality < 275 mOsm/Kg
Urine osmolality > 100 mOsm/Kg
Clinical euvolaemia
No clinical signs of hypovolaemia (orthostatic decreases in blood pressure, tachycardia, decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes)
No clinical signs of hypervolaemia (oedema, ascites)
Increased urinary sodium excretion > 30 mmol/L with normal salt and water intake
Exclude recent diuretic use, renal disease, hypothyroidism, and hypocortisolism

426
Q

SIADH - management

A

treat underlying condition
fluid restriction <1L/24 hour

sometimes demeclocycline

‘Vaptans’ – V2 receptor antagonists

if Na+ low AND fitting hypertonic N/Saline on ITU

<12mmol/l increase in Na+ per 24 hour

Potential risk of central pontine myelinolysis

427
Q

Oxytocin

A

release stimulated by milk suckling
Action
stimulates milk let down
stimulates contraction of myometrium (100X more potent that AVP)
200X less active at the V2 receptor compared to AVP

428
Q

Cautions for change in sodium levels

A

Hypertonic saline should raise sodium by 1 to 2 mmol/l/hour; monitor sodium every 2 hours

Hypertonic saline should be stopped when asymptomatic or serum sodium >120mmol/l

One should increase sodium around 8 – 12 mmol/l in 24 hours or 16 – 24 mmol/l in 48 hours to avoid osmotic demyelination

Aim for a safe range as opposed to a normal range
Hypertonic saline should raise sodium by 1 to 2 mmol/l/hour; monitor sodium every 2 hours

Hypertonic saline should be stopped when asymptomatic or serum sodium >120mmol/l

One should increase sodium around 8 – 12 mmol/l in 24 hours or 16 – 24 mmol/l in 48 hours to avoid osmotic demyelination

Aim for a safe range as opposed to a normal range

429
Q

What are the 3 layers of the cortex?

A

Zona glomerulosa
zona fasciculata
Zona reticularis

430
Q

WHat does the zona glomerulosa secrete?

A

Mineralocorticoids- aldosterone
for salt

431
Q

What does the zona fasciculata produce?

A

Glucorticoids – Cortisol
for sugar and stress

432
Q

What does Zona reticularis produce?

A

Androgens – DHEA, androstenedione
For sex

433
Q

How is the fetal adrenal gland different

A

Biiger than kidney
Fetal zone, transitional zone and definitive zone instead of layers of cortex (different thicknesses as well)

434
Q

Corticosteroid structure

A

Cholesterol precursor for all adrenal steroidogenesis
cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene structure
three cyclohexane rings (A, B, and C)
single cyclopentane ring (D)

435
Q

Overview of corticosteroids

A
  • Lipid soluble - can pass through biological membranes
  • Bind to specific intracellular receptors
  • Alter gene transcription directly or indirectly
  • Exact action depends on structure, ability to bind specific receptors (and recruit cofactors)
436
Q

Classification of steroids

A

Type carbons hormone
pregnane
derivatives

437
Q

Effect if ACTH on adrenal size

A

Deficiency-> small
Excess -> large

438
Q

Outline glucocorticoids

A
  • Synthesised in zona fasciculata and reticularis
  • Essential to life
  • Have actions on most tissues
  • Many actions “permissive” (do not directly initiate but allow to occur in presence of other factors), e.g. the effects of catecholamines on vascular tone
  • “Permissive” actions only apparent with deficiency
  • Important in homeostasis e.g. conditioning body’s response to stress
439
Q

Important actions of glucocorticoids

A

Increase glucose mobilisation
Augment gluconeogenesis
Amino acid generation
Increased lipolysis
Maintenance of circulation
Vascular tone
Salt and water balance
Immunomodulation
Dampen immune response
Important during stress

440
Q

U shaped action of glucocorticoids

A

Too little -> depression and psychosis
Too much -> The same

441
Q

Transport of glucocorticoids

A

In the circulation glucocorticoids are heavily bound to proteins
90% bound to Corticosteroid-Binding Globulin (CBG)
5% bound to albumin
5% “free”
Only “free” glucocorticoids bioavailable
In clinical practice “total” rather than “free” cortisol levels measured
CBG levels - with inflammation thus % free cortisol ­

442
Q

Cortisol binding

A

Non stressed- most bind to CBG
STressed- break CBG most not bound

443
Q

How does ACTH regulate glucocorticoid synthesis?

A

Acutely stimulates cortisol release

Stimulates corticosteroid synthesis (and capacity)

CRH stimulates ACTH release

Negative feedback of cortisol on CRH and ACTH production

444
Q

MC2R and MRAP

A

Protein folding & translocation across ER
Escorting MC2R to cell surface
Stabilising of MC2R at cell surface
Ligand specificity

445
Q

Regulation of glucocorticoid levels

A

Stress, cytokines and diurnal rhythm, stimulate hypothalamus to produce CRH which stimulates the pituitary to produce ACTH which stimulated the adrenal gland to produce Cortisol and CBG which then acts to reduce output of hypothalamus and pituitary

446
Q

What is stress and what is it caused by?

A

“The sum of the bodies responses to adverse stimuli”

Infection
Trauma
Haemorrhage
Medical illness
Psychological
Exercise/exhaustion

447
Q

Effects of surgery on cortisol levels

A

Huge spike
Loss of diurnal variation
Returns to normal after a few days

448
Q

What is different for the cortisol feedback mechanism in stress?

A

Stress cytokines stimulate hypothalamus
Decreased synthesis and breakdown of CBG

449
Q

Outline mineralocorticoids

A

Synthesised in zona glomerulosa
Aldosterone synthase present in this region
Main mineralocorticoids are aldosterone and DOC
-DOC has 3% mineralocorticoid activity of aldosterone
Essential to life
Critical to salt and water balance in
Kidney, Colon, Pancreas, Salivary glands
Sweat glands

450
Q

Look up aldosterone action in kidney

A

Aldoesterone enters cell and stimulates mineralocorticoid receptors

451
Q

Endocrine salt loss

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency (AI)
CAH
-Aldosterone synthase deficiency
-Inborn AI
Autoimmune AI
X-linked adrenoleukodystrophy
End organ resistance
Mineralocorticoid receptor defects
ENaC defects
Other deficiencies in the collecting tubule pathway
Not in secondary adrenal insufficiency

452
Q

Sodium and potassium levels in plasma and urine when salt loss

A

Plasma: Sodium low, potassium high
Urine: Sodium high, potassium low

453
Q

Other actions of mineralocorticoids

A
  • Effects on pancreas
  • Sweat glands
  • Salivary glands
  • Colon
    All this causes sodium resorption and decrease sodium content
    Non-classical effects:
    • Myocardial collagen production
    • Role in cardiac fibrosis/remodelling
454
Q

How to protect the mineralocorticoid receptors

A

Convert cortisol to cortisone

455
Q

Overview of adrenal androgens

A
  • Weak androgens generated in adrenal gland
  • Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) most abundant adrenal steroid but very weak androgen
  • Androstenedione more androgenic but only 1/10th that of testosterone
  • Major source of androgens in women
  • Oestrogen precursors in postmenopausal women
  • Production regulated by ACTH rather than gonadotrophins
456
Q

Outline the adrenal medulla

A
  • Part of autonomic nervous system
  • Specialised ganglia supplied by sympathetic preganglionic neurones (ACh as transmitter)
  • Synthesises catecholamines
  • Main site for adrenaline synthesis
    (Phenylethanolamine-N-methyl transferase present)
  • Not essential for life
457
Q

Catecholamine synthesis

A

Tyrosine -> cortisol introduced and sympathetic stimulation-> DOPA -> Dopamine -> sympathetic stimulation -> Noradrenaline -> cortisol introduction -> adrenaline

458
Q

Summary of adrenal medulla

A

Relative production of catecholamines
80% adrenaline, 20% noradrenaline
Dopamine in small amounts
Normal catecholamine synthesis dependent on high local cortisol levels (permissive effect)
Catecholamines released during “flight or fight”
­gluconeogenesis in liver and muscle
­lipolysis in adipose tissue
Tachycardia and ­ cardiac contractility
Redistribution of circulating volume

459
Q

When does sex determination happen?

A
  • Migration of primordial germ cells from dorsal
    endoderm to urogenital ridge by 6-8 wks
    gestation
  • Development of indifferent gonad from
    urogenital ridge
  • Presence of SRY gene (on Y chromosome)
    ® testes differentiated by week 9
  • Absence of SRY gene ( on Y chromosome)
    ® ovaries present by 11-12 weeks
460
Q

Organogenesis of adrenal and gonads

A

adrenal and gonads derive from same tissue

461
Q

What do sertoli cells produce

A

AMH - anti mullarian hormone
Mullerian regression

462
Q

What do leydig cells do?

A

Produce testosterone and DHT
Male sex differentiation

463
Q

When does sex determination and differentiation happen?

A

Sex determination -> 4-6 weeks
Sex differentiation -> 7-9+ weeks

464
Q

Sex steroid synthesis

A

Androstenedione produces both testosterone and oestrone
Oestrone produces oestradiol
Testosterone produces oestradiol and 5 alpha -dihydro-testosterone (DHT)

465
Q

Development of the male internal genitalia

A

Testis present and Leydig cells
making testosterone:
Wolffian system develops into - epididymis, - vas deferens,
- seminal vesicles
- ejaculatory ducts
Sertoli cells secret AMH, which
leads to regression of Müllerian
system

466
Q

Outline the development of female internal genitalia

A

No testis or Leydig cells
not making testosterone:
Müllerian system develops into - fallopian tubes
- uterus
- upper third vagina

467
Q

Development of external genitalia

A

Common genital tubercle at
8 weeks, with lateral
urethral folds, labioscrotal
swellings
* Tubercle becomes glans
penis in male, clitoris in
female
* Urethral folds become
corpus spongiosum
enclosing urethra in male,
labia minora in female
* Labioscrotal folds fuse to
form scrotum and ventral
penis, or labia majora

468
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Opening on underside of penis

469
Q

Androgen activation and action

A
470
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

Caused by mutations in
the androgen receptor (AR) Xq11-12
=> AR not responding to androgens
Clinical and biochemical phenotype
* Very high testosterone and dihydrotestosterone levels
* Internal genitalia male (due to AMH production)
* External genitalia and external appearance female
* Gender identity female
=> Diagnosis often because of primary amenorrhoea

471
Q

Exome sequencing

A
  • DSD with external genitalia classified
    – typical female with or without clitoromegaly (21 cases)
    – ambiguous (12 cases)
    – typical male with or without micropenis (7 cases)
  • associated nongenital malformations (7 cases)
  • Genetic diagnosis in a total of 35% (14 of 40)
    – 22.5% with a pathogenic finding
    – 12.5% with likely pathogenic findings
    – 15% with variants of unknown clinical significance
472
Q

Why measure children?

A
  • Measurements of growth provide a sensitive
    indication of health in childhood
  • Growth rates are narrowly defined in healthy
    children with adequate nutrition and an
    emotionally supportive environment
  • Changes in growth rates can provide an early and
    sensitive pointer to health problems in children
473
Q

Body proportions in newborns

A
  • Newborns: larger head, smaller mandible, short neck,
    chest rounded, abdomen prominent, limbs short
  • Adults: relative growth of limbs compared to trunk
474
Q

Infancy component of growth

A

– Rapid, but rapidly decelerating growth in first 2-3 yrs
– determined by nutrition
– long term growth failure, if underfed in infancy

475
Q

Childhood component of growth

A

– switch from nutritional to hormonal dependence
– height velocity slows 2-3 yrs to puberty

476
Q

Puberty component of growth

A
  • Puberty component:
    – growth spurt, ­height velocity due to GH and
    – sex hormones oestrogen and testosterone
    – To age 14-15 girls, 16-17 boys
  • Growth ends with fusion of epiphyses due to
    influence of oestrogens in boys and girls
  • Boys convert testosterone to oestrogens in
    fatty tissues
477
Q

Growth and height velocity

A
  • Fastest growth rate in
    utero and infancy
  • Gradually decreasing rate
    to puberty
  • Pubertal growth spurt
  • Growth ends with fusion of
    epiphyses (Oestrogen
    effect)
  • Huge inter-individual
    variability
478
Q

Important determinants of growth

A
  • Parental phenotype and genotype
  • Quality and duration of pregnancy
  • Nutrition
  • Specific system and organ integrity
  • Psycho-social environment
  • Growth promoting hormones and factors
479
Q

Outline the growth plate

A
  • Growth = Chondrogenesis
  • All growth disorders originate from, or affect the growth plate
  • Building material needed every day – direct effect of nutrition and
    calcium/phosphate supply on growth rate and bone architecture
480
Q

Regulators of growth

A

Endocrine signals
Nutrition
Inflammatory cytokines
Extracellular fluid
All apart from endocrine signals are affected by oxygen deficiency, acidosis and toxins

481
Q

Hypothalamus impact on growth

A
  • GHRH cell bodies in arcuate nucleus, project to
    portal capillaries
  • Regulated by food, sleep, steroids
  • Negative feedback: SST, GH, IGF-1
  • Neurotransmitters: adrenergic, cholinergic, opioids
  • Other hypothalamic hormones: TRH, CRH
482
Q

Human growth hormone

A
  • Synthesized in somatotroph cells, these account
    for 40-50% of the anterior pituitary
  • most abundant hormone
  • Pulsatile secretion max at night
  • Growth Hormone Binding Protein GHBP
483
Q

Action of growth hormone

A
  • Stimulates Insulin like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)
  • Direct effect on growth plate and cortical bone
  • decrease glucose use; ­ increase lipolysis; ­Increase muscle mass
484
Q

What does GH stimulation influence?

A

Exercise
Stress
Hypoglycaemia
Fasting
High protein meals
Perinatal development
Puberty

485
Q

What does GH suppression influence?

A

Hypothyroidism
Hyperglycaemia
High carbohydrate meals
Glucocorticoid excess
Aging

486
Q

GH and IGF-1 signalling pathway

A

GH secretion
GH receptor
Post-receptor GH signalling
IGF-I gene expression

487
Q

What causes overgrowth with impaired final height

A
  • Precocious Puberty
  • Congenital adrenal
    hyperplasia
  • McAlbright syndrome
  • Hyperthyroidism
488
Q

What causes overgrowth with increased final height?

A
  • Androgen/ or oestrogen
    deficiency/ oestrogen
    resistance
  • GH excess
  • Klinefelter syndrome (XXY)
  • Marfan syndrome
  • (Homocystinuria)
489
Q

What is puberty and what are the signs?

A
  • Describes the physiological,
    morphological, and behavioural changes
    as the gonads switch from infantile to
    adult forms.
  • Definitive signs:
    –Girls - Menarche – first menstrual bleeding.
    – Boys - first ejaculation, often nocturnal.
    – These do not signify fertility
490
Q

Secondary sexual characteristics in puberty

A
  • Ovarian oestrogens regulate the growth of
    breast and female genitalia
  • Ovarian and adrenal androgens control pubic
    and axillary hair
491
Q

Outline secondary sexual characteristics in boys at puberty

A
  • Testicular androgens
    –External genitalia and pubic hair growth
    –enlargement of larynx and laryngeal muscles
    -> voice deepening
492
Q

Variability of secondary sexual characteristics

A
  • Timing of changes are unique to the
    individual
  • Sequence of events is related to specific
    staging criteria, for example:
    – Breast development
    – Pubic hair development
    – External genitalia development in boys
493
Q

What is precocious puberty?

A

Precocious puberty: onset of secondary sexual
characteristics before 8 yrs (girl), 9 yrs (boy)
* Menarche before 9 yrs may lead to short stature

494
Q

What is delayed puberty

A

Delayed puberty: absence of secondary sexual
characteristics by 14 yrs (girl), 16 yrs (boy)
* Delayed puberty leads to reduced peak bone mass
and osteoporosis

495
Q

What is the female HPG axis?

A

Hypothalamus,
Pituitary- produces LH (binds to theca interna) and FSH (binds to granulosa cells)
Gonads (ovaries)

496
Q

Male HPG Axis

A

Hypothalamus
Pituitary- LH (binds to leydig cells), FSH (binds to sertoli cells)
Gonads (testes)

497
Q

Hormonal changes at puberty

A
  • Physical changes controlled by gonadal and adrenal sex steroids regulated by the
    gonadotrophins, LH and FSH
  • Marked by circadian rhythm of FSH and LH secretion:
    – Sleep-augmented LH secretion – pulse-like
    – Later puberty LH daytime pulses also
498
Q

Hypothalamic maturation hypothesis
(GnRH pulse generator)

A

– Puberty only requires ­ hypothalamic GnRH
– Emphasises the direct link CNS and pituitary
and hypothalamic GnRH neurons
– Supporting evidence from the rhesus macaque

499
Q

Hypothalamic regulation at start of puberty

A

Increased stimulatory factors most prominently glutamate and kisspeptin

Decreased inhibitory tone mostly through GABAergic neurons secreting γ-aminobutyric
acid (GABA) and opioidergic neurons

500
Q

Role of nutrition in puberty

A
  • Critical body weight important for initiation of
    reproductive cycle
  • In domestic species (i.e. cattle) body weight
    rather than chronological age determines start
    of puberty
  • Similar in humans
501
Q

Factors influencing puberty

A
  • Genetics: 50-80% of variation in pubertal timing
  • Environmental factors e.g. nutritional status
  • Leptin → regulates appetite and metabolism through
    hypothalmus. Permissive role in regulation of timing
    of puberty
  • Adrenarche: gradual “maturation” of the adrenal
    gland, development of pubic and axillary hair, body
    odour and acne
502
Q

Incidence of precocious puberty

A
  • Incidence 1 in 5,000 to 10,000
  • 90% of patients female
  • Idiopathic CPP
    – Up to 80% female
    – Only 30% male
503
Q

Turner syndrome

A
  • At birth oedema of dorsa of hands, feet and
    loose skinfolds at the nape of the neck
  • Webbing of neck, low posterior hairline, small
    mandible, prominent ears, epicanthal folds
    high ached palate, broad cheast, cubitus
    valgus, hyperconvex fingernails
  • Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism,
    streak gonads
  • Cardiovascular malformations
  • Renal malformations (horseshoe kidney)
  • Recurrent otitis media
  • Short stature
504
Q

Cells of thyroid

A

Follicular- around colloid
C-cells

505
Q

What do thyroid hormones do?

A
  • Control of metabolism:
    energy generation and use
  • Regulation of growth
  • Multiple roles in development
506
Q

Thyroid hormone synthesis

A
  1. TSH binds to TSHR on the basolateral membrane of follicular cells
  2. I- uptake by NIS (Na/I symporter
  3. Iodination of Thyroglobulin tyrosyl residues by TPO (thyro- peroxidase)
  4. Coupling of iodotyrosyl residues by TPO on apical membrane
  5. Export of mature Tg (thyroglobulin) to colliid where it is stored
507
Q

Outline thyroid hormones

A
  • T3 is biologically active hormone
  • Produced by mono-deiodination of T4 which most abundant
  • Deiodinase (D1, D2, D3) enzymes in peripheral tissues
508
Q

Key facts about thyroid hormone synthesis

A

Produced by follicular thyroid cells
Synthesised from the thyroglobulin precursor
Iodine is absorbed from bloodstream and concentrated in follicles
Thyroperoxidase binds iodine to tyrosine residues in thyroglobulin molecules to form MIT + DIT
- MIT + DIT = T3
- DIT + DIT = T4

509
Q

What do each of the thyroid hormones bind to?

A

T4 and T3- TBG, transthyretin, albumin

510
Q

How does thyroid hormone compare to other hormones?

A

Different to other types of hormones
Like steroid hormones as act on DNA but have to have a transporter protein

511
Q

Outcome of thyroid function tests - hyperthyroidism

A

Decrease in Serum TSH
Increase in Serum free T4
Increase in Serum free T3

512
Q

Outcome of thyroid function test results- hypothyroidism

A

Increase in Serum TSH
Decrease in Serum free T4
Decrease in Serum free T3

513
Q

Outline the prevalence and aetiology of hyperthyroidism

A

Prevalence: ♀: 20/1000 ♂: 2/1000
Aetiology:
- Graves’ hyperthyroidism
- Toxic nodular goitre (single or multinodular)
- Thyroiditis (silent, subacute): inflammation
- Exogenous iodine
- Factitious (taking excess thyroid hormone)
- TSH secreting pituitary adenoma
- Neonatal hyperthyroidism

514
Q

Outline the signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism

A

Cardiovascular
- Tachycardia (rapid heart rate)
- AF (atrial fibrillation)
- Shortness of breath
- Ankle swelling

Neurological
- Tremor
- Myopathy (muscle weakness)
- Anxiety

Gastrointestinal
Weight loss
Diarrhoea
Increased appetite

Eyes/skin
Sore, gritty eyes
Double vision
Staring eyes
Pruritus (itching)

515
Q

Outline prevalence and aetiology of hypothyroidism

A

Prevalence 40/1000 females
5% of over 60’s
Aetiology:
- Autoimmune – Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (TPO and Tg antibodies - genetic predisposition)
- After treatment for hyperthyroidism
- Subacute/silent thyroiditis
- Iodine deficiency
- Congenital (thyroid agenesis/enzyme defects)

516
Q

Symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism

A

Cardiovascular
Bradycardia (slow heart rate)
Heart failure
Pericardial effusion

Gastrointestinal
Weight gain
Constipation

Skin Myxoedema Erythema ab igne Vitiligo

Neurological Depression Psychosis Carpal tunnel syndrome
517
Q

What do the parathyroid glands do?

A

Regulate calcium and phosphate levels

Secrete parathyroid hormone
(PTH) in response to: Low calcium or High phosphate

Actions of PTH:
Increases calcium reabsorption in renal distal tubule
Increases intestinal calcium absorption (via activation of vitamin D)
Increases calcium release from bone (stimulates osteoclast activity)

Decrease phosphate reabsorption

518
Q

Outline calcium

A

For:
1. Excitable Tissue
2. Muscle/Nerves
3. Cell Adhesion
Stored and released by bone

519
Q

Endocrine control of extracellular calcium homeostasis

A

Parathyroid hormone
Vitamin D
Calcitonin, FGF23

520
Q

Bone control of bone homeostasis

A

Mineral phase (Calcium/phosphate)
Protein phase (Collagen and non-collagenous proteins)
Bone cells
Bone ‘turnover’ and remodelling units

521
Q

Bone diseases

A

Hyperparathyroidism
Osteomalacia andosteoporosis

522
Q

Calcium homeostasis

A

GI tract - releases via vitamin D
Kidney - releases via PTH, vitD and FG23
Bone - releases via PTH Vit D

50% of serum calcium ‘free’ (ionised)
50% bound to albumin (so cannot diffuse into cells)

523
Q

Why can’t you reabsorb calcium and phosphate at the same time in the kidney?

A

It will lead to kidney stones

524
Q

Outline parathyroid hormone PTH

A

84 amino acid peptide but biological activity in first 34 amino acids (PTH 1-34), half-life 8 mins
Cleaved to smaller peptides
Assayed by two site assay (to avoid detecting fragments)
Still detects some inactive fragments e.g. in renal failure
Normal adult reference range = 1.6 - 6.9 pmol/L
Binds to G protein coupled receptors mainly in kidney and osteoblasts

525
Q

PTH action in the kidney

A

PTH increases distal tubular reabsorption of calcium
(+ inhibition of PO4 reabsorption)
PTH also stimulates production of the active form of vitamin D, 1,25(OH)2D

PTH enhances bone resorption by stimulating osteoclasts

526
Q

Negative feedback of PTH

A

PTH transcription (mRNA production) is inhibited by 1,25D3

PTH translation (mRNA to protein synthesis) is inhibited by increased serum calcium

527
Q

Primary (hyperparathyroidism) HPT

A

parathyroid tumour (usually benign adenoma)
Causes hypercalcaemia and low serum phosphate
Loss of negative feedback from hypercalcaemia
(Treatment is surgery)

528
Q

Secondary HPT

A

renal disease (increased phosphate, decreased activation of vitamin D)
(Treatment with phosphate binders or vitamin D analogues)

529
Q

Tertiary HPT

A

long-standing secondary HPT leads to irreversible parathyroid hyperplasia. Usually seen when renal disease corrected e.g. by transplantation
(Treatment is surgery)

530
Q

Outline calcitonin

A
  • Produced by thyroid c-cells (parafollicular)
  • Calcitonin released in hypercalcaemia, inhibits bone resorption (by direct effect on osteoclasts)
  • Not essential to life (post thyroidectomy no calcium problems)
  • Two calcitonin genes products from a single gene and primary RNA transcript
531
Q

Definition of menopause

A

Menopause: cessation of menstruation

532
Q

Definition of climacteric (perimenopause)

A

the period around the menopause and at least the first year after it.

533
Q

Post menopause

A

12 months of no period

534
Q

Age of onset of menopause

A

Average age: 51 in the UK.

Range: 48-52.

Premature: before 40 (1%).

535
Q

Cause of menopause

A

Age: Depletion of primordial follicles.
Premature menopause:
Idiopathic.
Iatrogenic.
Chromosomal (fragile X syndrome, FMR1)
Autoimmune.
Others.

536
Q
A

Only the follicles that reach the right size at the right stage to respond to FSH
The other cells undergo atresia

537
Q

Mechanism of menopause

A

Ovaries depleted of follicles.
Decline of oestrogen production.
Gradual decline with fluctuation over a few years.
Gradual rise of FSH and LH (lack of negative feedback mechanism).
Age of menopause decided by the size of the primordial pool.

538
Q

Complications of premature menopause

A

Increased risk of mortality.
Risk of cognitive dysfunction.
Heart disease.
Mood and sexual disorders.
Bone mineral density.
Autoimmune and thyroid disease.
UK Guidelines on management.

539
Q

How to diagnose menopause?

A

Above 45 years: symptoms are usually enough
40 y - 45 y : Symptoms +/- Tests (incl. antral follicle count, anti-mullerian hormone)
< 40 Years: careful !

540
Q

Symptoms and risks of menopause

A

80% for 4 years, 10% up to 12 years!
Short term - Symptoms:
-Vasomotor.
-Psychological.
-Urogenital.
-Skin.
Long term - Risks:
-Osteoporosis.
-Cardiovascular disease.

541
Q

Vasomotor symptoms of menopause

A

Hot flushes.
Sweats: mainly night.
Palpitations.
Headaches.

542
Q

Psychological symptoms of menopayse

A

Irritability.
Lethargy.
Emotional lability.
Forgetfulness.
Loss of libido.
Loss of concentration

543
Q

Urogenital and skin symptoms of menopause

A

Urogenital:
Vaginal dryness.
Dyspareunia: due to dryness.
Urethral syndrome: mainly later on in the absence of HRT.
Skin:
Dryness of skin and hair.
Brittle nails.

544
Q

Osteoporosis as an outcome of menopause

A

Decreased amount of bony tissue per unit volume of bone.
Wrist, femoral neck and vertebrae.
Bone remodelling is uncoupled.
Exact aetiology not known.
5% loss of trabecular bone per year.

545
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Race: European and Asian women.
Nulliparity.
Low body weight.
Poor diet in childhood.
Alcohol abuse.
Heavy smoking.
Steroids,
thyrotoxicosis, hyperparatyhroidsm, Cushing disease etc.

546
Q

Impact of menopause on cardiovascular disease

A

Protected before menopause but risk is equal to men by age 70
Cause unknown.
Family history is a determinant factor.
Other variables: obesity, diabetes etc

547
Q

Treatment of menopause

A

HRT (ERT)
Women’s Health Initiative (2002) and
Million Women Study (2003)
Sedatives and tranquilisers.
Clonidine.
Beta blockers.
Maintaining pre-menopausal sexual activities.
Calcium, vitamin D, calcitonin.
Symptomatic treatment

548
Q

Hormone replacement therapy

A

Oestrogen
Progestogen if uterus intact: to reduce risk of endometrial cancer.
Different formats.
Different doses.
Risks.
Contraindications.
Preparations- Oral, Skin patches, Vaginal cream, Skin cream, Nasal spray, Vaginal ring., Implants.

549
Q

Long term risk of HRT

A

Cardiovascular (E):
- Slight increase in CVS (oral vs transdermal)
- IHD no increased risk but no benefit
Breast cancer (E + P vs E):
Increased by 2 per 1000 if taken for >5 years.
6/1000 for 10 years use.
12/1000 for 15 years use.
VTE: 1-3 in 10,000 women in the first year.
Cancer:
Slight increase in ovarian cancer (seq. HRT).
Endometrial Cancer: if unopposed E2.

550
Q

Contraindications for HRT

A

Abnormal liver function.
Obstetric cholestasis.
Thromboemblic disease.
Congenital dist. of lipid metabolism.
Hormone dependent tumours.
Sickle cell anaemia