ILA Flashcards

1
Q

Key facts about DNA transcription

A

Transcription – 1st stage protein synthesis
First step of gene expression, where the DNA sequence is copied to make an RNA molecule.
Performed by RNA polymerases.
Occurs in the nucleus.

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2
Q

Describe the process of preparing the DNA for transcription

A

*DNA helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds in the DNA double helix, unwinding it
* RNA polymerase binds to the TATA promoter region of the gene

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3
Q

Describe the actual process of DNA transcription

A

Single stranded binding proteins stop DNA strands reannealing
The RNA polymerase then adds complementary mRNA nucleotides to this template strand, building an RNA chain. (C-G, but A-U (not T as in DNA)). Moves in a 3’to 5’ direction. This transcript now contains the same information as the non-template (coding) strand of DNA.

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4
Q

Describe the process of ending transcription

A

Sequences called terminators or stop codons signal the transcript to be released from the RNA polymerase. → mRNA strand produced with a poly-A tail (end – stops DNA degrading) & a 5’ cap (beginning)

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5
Q

Describe the modification of pre-mRNA

A

The molecule formed is called pre-mRNA, as it forms exons and introns. Introns are removed in a post-transcriptional modification phase = Splicing → carried out in nucleus by slicosomes & mRNA leaves nucleus via nuclear pore

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6
Q

Key facts about translation

A

Second step of gene expression, where proteins are synthesised.
Occurs in the cytoplasm – mRNA binds to ribosome

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7
Q

Key facts about tRNA and ribosomes

A
  • tRNAs connect mRNAs to the amino acids they code for
  • At the end of each tRNA there’s an anticodon, which can bind to specific mRNA codons.
  • Each ribosome has a small and a large part. These join together over the mRNA. The ribosome provides sites for the tRNA to bind. Ribosomes also act as enzymes and catalyse the reaction
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8
Q

Describe the process of translation

A

A ribosome binds to the start codon on the mRNA. mRNA moves in a 3’ to 5’ direction. tRNA molecules bind to the ribosome via codon-anticodon interactions. A peptide bond forms between the two amino acids attached to the tRNA.
* The ribosome moves along the mRNA one codon at a time, until it reaches a stop codon. This is the end of the process. Post-translational modification may then occur.

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9
Q

What is the role of mRNA?

A

synthesized in the nucleus using nucleotide triphosphates and RNA polymerase II - Attaches to ribosomes during translation to allow correct tRNA to bind to form polypeptide chain.

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10
Q

What is the role of tRNA?

A

Binds to specific amino acids at complementary mRNA codon to hold the amino acids in place to form the polypeptide chain.

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11
Q

What is a transcriptome?

A

The sum total of all the mRNA molecules

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12
Q

What is single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)?

A
  • DNA sequence variation when a single nucleotide (ATCG) differs/is substituted * Most common type of genetic change & occur normally → SNPs can occur once in every 1000 nucleotides → 4-5 million in persons genome
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13
Q

What are some of the consequences of SNP?

A

Can result in a different codon which generates a different protein and thus disease – but most don’t (often introns) E.g. sickle cell anaemia or cystic fibrosis
* If present in recognition sequence of restriction enzyme or affect recognition / promoter/termination sequences they can change the length of proteins or produce different length DNA fragments
* Can act as biological markers to locate genes associated with disease

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14
Q

What causes sickle cell anaemia?

A

Haemoglobin S (Hb S) = sickle cell haemoglobin. It’s caused by a SNP of adenine to thymine ((GAG codon changes to GTG) on 17th nucleotide.
In sickle cell anaemia, both genes that code for haemoglobin are abnormal (Hb SS). In sickle cell trait, only one chromosome carries the abnormal allele (Hb AS).
Mutation occurs in the HBB gene (codes for beta subunit) & in sickle cell disease only one of the beta-globin subunits is replaced by Hb S.

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15
Q

What changes are made to haemoglobin with sickle cell disease?

A

Haemoglobin has two subunits ( 2 alpha & 2 beta subunits) . The alpha subunit is normal in people with sickle cell disease. The beta subunit has the amino acid valine at position 6 instead of the normal glutamic acid = different primary structure

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16
Q

Why does the haemoglobin form differently in people with sickle cell disease?

A

The substitution of glutamate for valine is a nonconservative replacement → different biochemical properties, in this case glutamate is a negatively charged amino acid whereas valine is a hydrophobic branched chain aliphatic amino acid.
When hemoglobin is in its deoxygenated, the additional valine residues bind to a hydrophobic area on other S-hemoglobin molecules, forming a chain of hemoglobin that in turn pulls the red blood cell into its signature sickle shape, therefore it now has a different quaternary structure.

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17
Q

Why does the altered haemoglobin cause the RBC to be a sickle cell?

A

Abnormal haemoglobin molecules clump together into linear chains (polymerisation) which reduces the haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen
NB this is Temperature dependent

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18
Q

What are the functional changes to the RBC in sickle cell ?

A
  • Cells don’t live as long
  • Lower affinity for oxygen
  • Gets stuck in blood vessels
  • Overall, leads to reduced delivery of O2 to muscles
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19
Q

Describe the different levels of protein structure

A

Primary= chain if amino acids – covalent bonds
Secondary = alpha helix, beta pleated sheets – H+ bonds
Tertiary= 3D structure of a single chain of amino acids
- Van der Waals bonds
- H+ bonds
- Electrostatic
- Ionic
- Disulphide bridges
Quartenary = overall 3D structure of a polypeptide

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20
Q

Can sickled cells return to their original shape?

A

Deoxygenated Hb S molecules are insoluble and polymerise. The flexibility of cells is decreased, and cells become rigid and take up the characteristic sickle appearance.
This process is initially reversible, but with repeated sickling, cells will eventually lose their membrane flexibility. They then become irreversibly sickled

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21
Q

What are some of the complications of sickle cell disease?

A

Complications can include infections, delayed growth, and these episodes of pain which are sometimes called pain crises.
Pain crises typically occur in the bone.
Sickle cell patients are at increased risk of stroke but this is far less common than in the bone.

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22
Q

What is a positive of sickle cell disease?

A

Because people with one copy of the “faulty” gene are resistant to malaria, it is beneficial in areas with a high risk of malaria - Africa, the Mediterranean, the Middle East, India, South America or the Caribbean - so people who are from or have ancestors from these areas are more likely to carry the “faulty” gene. This means they are also more likely to have two copies of it, and so suffer from sickle cell disease

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23
Q

What are the symptoms of sickle cell anaemia?

A

In cold weather, our blood vessels narrow to retain heat (vasoconstriction). Sickle-shaped red blood cells can become stuck in small blood vessels due to their abnormal shape. This can lead to the blood vessel becoming blocked, and can also mean that oxygen may not reach certain tissues, and can lead to tissue death. This can cause a pain episode or crisis to start suddenly, usually in the lower back, arms, legs, chest and belly. When blood returns to the affected area, it can also cause inflammation and pain. If lots of these crises occur, it could cause long term damage to the tissues.

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24
Q

What are some of the treatments of sickle cell anaemia?

A
  • Hydroxyurea used as treatment because it stimulates the bone marrow to make foetal haemoglobin (foetal Hb) → foetal Hb has a better ability for carrying the oxygen around the blood
  • This is why newborn babies don’t present with sickle cell → HbF prevents sickle cell but stops being produced after a year
  • Embolising drugs
  • Can give a plasma exchange to reduce the number of sickle cells
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25
Q

Describe the distribution of water and sodium

A

2/3 body’s water (60%) in intracellular fluid compartment (all fluid in cells, enclosed by plasma membrane)
* 1/3 body’s water in extracellular fluid compartment → further divided into plasma (fluid part of blood) & interstitial (fluid surrounding cells)
* 70% body’s sodium is ‘exchangeable
* 30% in bone crystal
* ECF – 50% total body sodium
* ICF – 5% total body sodium
NB 60% of body weight = water

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26
Q

Define osmolality

A

Concentration of solution expressed as solute particles per kg

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27
Q

Define osmolarity

A

Concentration of solution expressed as solute particles per L

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28
Q

Define oncotic pressure/colloid osmotic pressure

A

Pressure exerted by plasma protein on capillary wall (e.g. albumin displacing water molecules in plasma)
- opposing effect = hydrostatic blood pressure & interstitial colloidal oncotic pressure & determine balance of total extracellular water

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29
Q

Define osmosis

A

Process by which molecules within a solvent pass through a semi permeable membrane (high conc. To low conc.)

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30
Q

Define hydrostatic pressure

A

force exerted by a fluid against a wall, causes movement of fluid between compartments

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31
Q

Describe the response to low blood volume

A

Blood volume drops (dehydration or blood loss) –> hydrostatic pressure becomes less than oncotic pressure → fluid from IF moves into blood to restore volume via osmosis –> gradient change between IF and ICF –> fluid from ICF moves into IF to restore the balance → cells shrink

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32
Q

What is albumin?

A

Protein made by your liver found in the blood
Low albumin (Hypoalbuminaemic)
Decreased oncotic pressure
Less water moves from interstitial space into plasma
Causes excess accumulation of fluid in interstitial space

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33
Q

What causes hypoalbuminaemia?

A
  • Liver failure- makes albumin so less made
  • Heart failure- they don’t know
  • Kidney damage- more into urine
  • Protein losing enteropathy- GI conditions
  • Malnutrition- Not eating enough protein
    Inflammation throughout the body- e.g by surgery, sepsis and mechanical ventilation
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34
Q

Key routes of water loss in the body

A
  • Urine
  • Faeces – lack of water = constipation, water loss = diarrhoea
  • Sweat
  • Breath – via evaporation from respiratory tract
  • Vomiting
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35
Q

What are the two types of water loss?

A

Two types of water loss – sensible (can be perceived and measured e.g. urine) and insensible (not perceived and can’t be measured e.g. sweat, lungs. Faeces, through breathing + evaporation during surgery → estimated 40-60 cc)

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36
Q

What do osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus do?

A
  • Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus detect when water potential in blood is low (detect changes in osmotic pressure)
  • Water diffusion into osmoreceptor cells changes when osmolarity of blood changes (cells expand when plasma is more dilute)
  • Loss of water (high plasma osmolarity) reduces their volume, triggering stimulation of nerve cells in hypothalamus
  • Triggers ADH to release from posterior pituitary
  • NB also signals biological sensation of thirst
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37
Q

Describe the role of the posterior pituitary and arginine vasopressin

A
  • Posterior pituitary stimulated by hypothalamus
  • Action potentials travel down & cause ADH release into bloodstream (acts to reduce plasma osmolarity back to normal)
  • This acts on kidneys causing insertion of aquaporin channels into membrane, increasing fluid retention
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38
Q

Describe the process of water conservation by reabsorption in the nephron

A
  • Urine is diluted as it moves through the loop of Henle
  • It is concentrated again in the distal tubules and collecting ducts
  • The descending loop is impermeable to sodium chloride and permeable to water * The ascending loop is permeable to sodium chloride and impermeable to water * Once dilute urine enters the distal tubules, water is reabsorbed without sodium chloride → concentrated urine
  • Water reabsorption driven by concentration gradient created as sodium is pumped into interstitial space, creating osmotic gradient
  • ADH acts upon collecting duct & DCT, increasing number of aquaporins
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39
Q

How does vasopressin work?

A

ADH binds to receptors on the collecting duct membrane, causing intracellular production of cAMP which activates protein kinase, which phosphorylates proteins that increase the rate of fusion of vesicles containing aquaporins with the membrane.

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40
Q

Describe the mechanism of thirst

A
  • Thirst is stimulated by an increase in plasma osmolarity & a decrease in extracellular fluid volume
  • Also induced via angiotensin II (RAAS system)
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41
Q

Describe sodium homeostasis- RAAS

A
  • When renal blood flow is reduced, juxtaglomerular cells convert prorenin to renin (in kidneys)
  • Plasma renin then converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
  • This is converted to angiotensin II by ACE
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42
Q

What does angiotensin II do?

A

Angiotensin II increases blood pressure via vasoconstriction and simulates secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex

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43
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Aldosterone causes renal tubules to increase the reabsorption of sodium and water into the blood (and excretion of potassium) + increased expression of ATPase pumps in nephron, increasing water resorption through sodium co transport
* This increases the volume of ECF and increases blood pressure

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44
Q

How does ADH work?

A

NB ADH increases water reabsorption by increasing the nephron’s permeability to water, while aldosterone works by increasing the reabsorption of both sodium and water

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45
Q

What is the link between Na+ balance and BP?

A
  • Na+ balance determines ECF volume, blood volume and blood pressure - Increase in Na+ in ECF → increase in ECF volume, increase in blood plasma volume → increased BP
  • Decrease in Na+ in ECF → ECF decrease → blood volume decrease –> blood pressure decreases
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46
Q

What is the mechanism of sodium loss in the body?

A

Extra sodium is lost from the body by reducing the activity of the renin angiotensin system that leads to increased sodium loss from the body → Sodium is lost through kidneys, sweat and faeces

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47
Q

Normal homeostatic fluid

A

Excess fluid causes a decrease in the ECF osmolality (lower concentration of particles in the fluid). This is detected by osmoreceptors and causes 3 things to occur:
* It causes water to move into the ICF
* It stops the stimulation of the thirst centre in the hypothalamus
* It inhibits ADH in the posterior pituitary. This will result in an increased urine volume.

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48
Q

What are the potential dangers of excess water consumption?

A

Too much water in the bloodstream can cause hyponatremia.
Hyponatremia Is where the large amount of water = low concentration of sodium in the blood plasma = cells in the body to swell up. I
f these cells are in the brain it can cause an increase in intracranial pressure which can interrupt the brain’s blood flow and cause seizures, unconsciousness or coma. Excess fluid accumulation in the brain = cerebral oedema (can affect the brain stem and CNS dysfunction.)

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49
Q

What are the symptoms of excess water consumption?

A

Symptoms can include: Headache, Nausea, Vomiting.
Severe cases can produce more serious symptoms, such as:
o Increased blood pressure.
o Confusion.
o Double vision.
o Drowsiness.
o Difficulty breathing.
o Muscle weakness and cramping.
o Inability to identify sensory information

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50
Q

Normal response to dehydration

A

During dehydration, a loss of water from ECF will increase the ECF osmolality.

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51
Q

Describe the 3 ways that the hypothalamus acts in response to increased ECF osmolality

A
  • Move water from the ICF to ECF
  • Stimulate thirst centre of hypothalamus to increase water intake
  • The hypothalamus of a dehydrated person sends signals via the sympathetic nervous system to the salivary glands in the mouth. The signals result in a decrease in watery output (and an increase in stickier, thicker mucus output). These changes in secretions result in a “dry mouth” and trigger thirst..
  • Release ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) from the posterior pituitary gland which causes
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52
Q

Water distribution in the body?

A

Total body water for a healthy 70kg man = 42L, made up of:
* Intracellular 28 L
* Interstitial 11 L
* intravascular 3 L

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53
Q

Equation for estimated osmolality

A

Estimated plasma osmolality = 2[Na] + 2[K] + urea + glucose mmol/L (this was in the lecture Water and sodium concentration)

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54
Q

What happens if plasma osmolality increases?

A

If plasma osmolality increases → sensed by hypothalamus → more ADH released → concentration of ADH increases → fluid retention intravascularly.

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55
Q

Where are all of the hormones involved in water regulation produced?

A
  • ADH made in hypothalamus, stored in the posterior pituitary, then acts on the kidneys
  • Aldosterone is produced and secreted from the adrenal cortex
  • Renin is produced and secreted in the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
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56
Q

Equation for cardiac output

A

Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

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57
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output = volume of blood heart pumps around the circulatory system in one minute

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58
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

Stroke volume is a measure of the blood that is pumped out of the ventricles with every contraction

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59
Q

What is the equation for stroke volume?

A

SV = EDV – EDS

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60
Q

What is the average CO?

A

Average CO is 5L/min

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61
Q

What are the factors affecting heart rate?

A

Autonomic innervation (autonomic control of HR via parasympathetic NS - involves the vagus nerve) , hormones, fitness levels & age

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62
Q

What are the factors affecting stroke volume?

A

contractility (force of heart contraction, performed by myocytes), preload (myocardial distension prior to shortening Preload is, in simplest terms, the stretching of ventricles), afterload (force against which ventricle must act in order to eject blood Afterload is a fancy word for the pressure required for the left ventricle to force blood out of the body to exert during systole), heart size, fitness, gender & contraction duration

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63
Q

Factors affecting blood pressure

A

(smaller ones) vasopressin, aldosterone, ANP, haemorrhage, sweating, stressors, hydration, weight, muscular activity, posture
- Blood viscosity
- Volume of circulating blood
- Elasticity of blood vessels
- Peripheral vascular resistance
- Cardiac output

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64
Q

How does blood viscosity affect blood pressure?

A

Thicker the blood = reduced fluidity = travels slower = increased force

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65
Q

How does the volume of circulating blood affect blood pressure?

A

Increased volume in the circulatory system = larger volume in a specific capacity = causes partial expansion (via elasticity of the vessels)

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66
Q

How does the elasticity of blood vessels impact blood pressure?

A

Capacity of the heart vessels to resume normal shape after stretching, stiffening of any vessels or the heart due to reduced elasticity, as heart has to pump blood all the way around the body, increased resistance (no assistance by elastic vessels) = increased blood pressure

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67
Q

What is the impact of peripheral vascular resistance on blood pressure?

A

Greater compliance leads to regulated ability to deal with more blood (surges via ventricular contraction) , stiffening of vessels leads to reduced compliance, hence more turbulence reduced blood flow = increased BP

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68
Q

What is the impact of cardiac output on blood pressure?

A

Any factor affecting SV or HR with have stimulating affect to blood pressure, increased SV/HR = increased BP

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69
Q

Why do patients with heart failure feel exhausted?

A

Heart overworking so exhaustion caused by further work of the heart or lack of function of the heart to supply enough blood to tissues of the body.

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70
Q

Why do patients with heart failure feel short of breath?

A

Cardiac failure increases BP and put increased strain on the heart, usually requiring more contraction in order to pump required volume of blood around the heart, requiring more aerobic and anaerobic respiration. More ventilation required to supply more oxygen to blood and remove more waste products from blood.

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71
Q

Why do patients with heart failure have swollen ankles?

A

Oedema caused by cardiac failure and increased blood pressure prevents the correct circulation of blood back to the heart = the blood plasma filtered out of the blood enters the tissue fluid and is unable to re-enter due to reduced blood flow = accumulation of tissue fluid (oedema in the legs/ ankles)

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72
Q

Describe the frank-starling law

A

Frank-starling law → greater the stretch on the myocardium before systole (pre-load), the stronger the ventricular contraction
- stroke volume of heart increases in response to increased volume of blood in ventricles before contractions (end diastolic volume)
Increased force because actin & myosin filaments are brought to more optimal degree of overlap for force generation

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73
Q

What is end diastolic volume?

A

End diastolic volume = normal ventricle filling leads to ventricle volume 110-120ml

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74
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of heart failure?

A
  • potentially affect Ca2+ uptake, so less Ca released during heartbeat so contraction is not as strong – reduced contraction effectiveness
  • shortness of breath + increased exhaustion: lack of oxygen to respiring tissues - ankle swelling: increased venous capillary pressure, decreased plasma oncotic pressure – build up of fluid in lower limbs
  • low mood: reduced quality of life, hospitalisation & mortality risk
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75
Q

Why does the heart contract harder when there is a higher volume of blood?

A

In skeletal muscle, the normal point for contraction is the optimal length, but in cardiac muscle, the optimal length is reached only when the fibres are stretched, so the heart will contract harder when the fibres are stretched by increased volume of blood.

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76
Q

What is diastolic heart failure?

A

In diastolic heart failure - ventricle has reduced compliance, so it can’t fill properly and there’s a lower end-diastolic volume.

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77
Q

What happens in diastolic heart failure?

A

This results in a reduced stroke volume by the Frank-Starling mechanism, so a lower blood pressure. This pressure is detected, leading to increased HR (increased sympathetic and reduced parasympathetic) and fluid retention (renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system). This increased fluid leads to the consequences of heart failure: larger volume means greater resistance, so the heart has to work harder in order to continue to pump the blood.

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78
Q

What is the first step in the cardiac cycle?

A

Cycle initiates when SAN node fires
—> causes the atria to depolarize.
This is represented by the P wave
on the ECG. (DIASTOLE)

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79
Q

What is the second step of the cardiac cycle?

A

Atrial contraction happens shortly
after the P wave starts —> causing
an increase in atrial pressure —>
this forces blood into the ventricles
causing an increase in ventricular
volume (Note: Ventricular volume
does not start at zero as there is
passive movement of blood from
the atria to the ventricles as the AV
valves are open due to the
pressure gradient) —> thus
increases ventricular pressure
(DIASTOLE)

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80
Q
A

Atrial pressure then drops –> forces the AV valves shut —> produces first heart sound S1 (SYSTOLE)

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81
Q
A

During the closing of the AV valves, ventricular depolarization is half way through, this is represented by the QRS complex on the ECG —> causes ventricles to contract — > causing a rapid increase in ventricular pressure (Note: the ventricular volume does not change for a while, this is due to the semilunar valves being shut, this is known as isovolumetric contraction) (SYSTOLE)

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82
Q
A

Ventricular ejection occurs when the ventricular pressure exceeds that of the aorta and pulmonary artery —> causes the semilunar valves to open —> blood is ejected out of the ventricles (known as the rapid ejection phase) (SYSTOLE)

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83
Q
A

When ventricular repolarization occurs, represented by the T wave on the ECG—> ventricular pressure starts to fall along with ventricular volume (SYSTOLE)

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84
Q
A

Once ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure —> the semilunar valves shut — > producing the second heart sound S2 (DIASTOLE)

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85
Q
A

Ventricles start to relax with all valves closed (known as isovolumetric relaxation) — >ventricular pressure decreases rapidly (Note: the ventricular volume is unchanged as the valves are closed) (DIASTOLE)

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86
Q
A

At the same time, atria are being filled again —> slowly increases the atrial pressure —> when atrial pressure becomes greater than ventricular pressure —> AV valves open —> allows passive filling of the ventricles which slowly increases ventricular volume (DIASTOLE)

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87
Q

What happens to the subendocardial vessels during ventricular systole?

A

During contraction of the ventricular myocardium (systole), the subendocardial coronary vessels (the vessels that enter the myocardium) are compressed due to the high ventricular pressures. This compression results in momentary retrograde blood flow (i.e., blood flows backward toward the aorta) which further inhibits perfusion of myocardium during systole.

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88
Q

Do the epicardial coronary vessels close during ventricular systole?

A

No, the epicardial coronary vessels (the vessels that run along the outer surface of the heart) remain open

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89
Q

When does most of the myocardial perfusion occur?

A

Most myocardial perfusion occurs during heart relaxation (diastole) when the subendocardial coronary vessels are open and under lower pressure.

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90
Q

Describe the coronary circulation of the heart

A

Coronary arteries supply oxygenated blood to the heart muscles
- Cardiac veins draining deoxygenated blood → drain into the coronary sinus → then drain into the right atrium.

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91
Q

Describe the left main coronary artery

A

supplies blood to the left side of the heart (left ventricles and atrium).
Left anterior descending artery branches off the left coronary artery and supplies blood to L. side of the heart. Left marginal descending (MAD).
Circumflex artery branches off left coronary artery and encircles heart muscle. Artery supplies blood to outer side and back of heart.

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92
Q

Describe the right coronary artery

A

Supplies blood to right ventricle, right atrium, SA and AV nodes regulating the heart rhythm.
Will branch out into right posterior descending artery and acute marginal artery. Also supplies blood to middle/septum of the heart.

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93
Q

Describe the left anterior descending artery (LAD)

A

Largest coronary artery, running in the anterior ventricular groove & giving rise to the septal branch & diagonal branch

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94
Q

Describe the septal branch of the LAD

A

Septal branch supplies the anterior two thirds of the septum, including interventricular septum, bundle branches & Purkinje fibres.

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95
Q

Describe the diagonal branch of the LAD

A

Diagonal branch runs over the anterior section of the left ventricle, terminating at the apex of the heart

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96
Q

Describe occlusion of the LAD

A

Most common occlusion = plaque from cholesterol (atherosclerosis)

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97
Q

Describe the territory of an LAD occlusion

A

Anterior 2/3 of interventricular septum, lateral wall of left ventricles and anterolateral papillary muscle

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98
Q

Describe the effects of an LAD occlusion

A

lock impulse conduction between atria and ventricles
* Left/right heart block

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99
Q

What are the symptoms of an LAD occlusion?

A

Infarction of conducting system, atheroma production, ST elevation (indicates blockage in coronary artery - ST elevation on ECG), heart block and arrhythmia (impulses can’t travel down left and right ventricle branches simultaneously) or heart failure, prolonged PR (type 1 heart block). Nausea, shortness of breath, pain in head, jaws, arms

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100
Q

Why is an LAD occlusion known as the widow maker?

A

Due to high mortality rate

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101
Q

Territory of an occlusion of the RCA

A

RCA supplies SAN and AVN (branches to form RMA & PDA)

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102
Q

Describe the effects of a RCA occlusion

A

Conduction of nodes affected, contractions become out of rhythm or slower → inefficient blood flow (ischaemia) and potential backflow

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103
Q

What are the symptoms of an RAC occlusion?

A

Chest pain, if complete block then heart muscle dies and MI results, pain radiating in arms, shoulders, jaw, neck or back, shortness of breath, weakness and fatigue

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104
Q

How to reduce risk of future heart problems?

A
  • Cut down alcohol intake
  • Stop smoking
  • More active
  • Vaccinations (won’t help directly but are at risk for other diseases so helps with that)
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105
Q

What does sympathetic innervation do to the peripheral blood vessels?

A

Sympathetic stimulation of peripheral blood vessels causes vasoconstriction → increases blood pressure. Peripheral blood vessels aren’t innervated by parasympathetic.

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106
Q

What is EDV and how does it give us ESV?

A

Total amount of blood in ventricle just before systole. This is given as 120 in the question.
In contraction, blood leaves (stroke volume). Average stroke volume is around 70. So 50ml left, this gives us the ESV.

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107
Q

Describe the impact of mitral valve stenosis

A

Mitral valve stenosis → stiffer and requires more pressure to overcome this → left atrium therefore has to contract with more force to generate more pressure to overcome the valve stenosis → atrium contracts with more force so we see an increase in left atrium pressure.

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108
Q

What us the ductus arteriosus?

A

Ductus arteriosus → ligamentum arteriosum (between pulmonary artery to the aorta)

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109
Q

What is included in the upper airways?

A

Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx

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110
Q

What is included in the lower airways?

A

Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

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111
Q

Where in the respiratory system is there greatest resistance?

A

resistance increases as airway diameter is reduced BUT greatest resistance is in trachea and larger bronchi → branching of airways means there are many more of the smaller bronchioles airways in parallel, reducing the resistance

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112
Q

Differences between the main bronchi

A

Right main bronchus has a larger diameter and is aligned more vertically then the left.

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113
Q

Describe the lobar bronchi

A

two on left and 3 on right, supply each of the main lobes of the lungs.

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114
Q

Describe the segmental bronchi

A

Supply individual bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs.

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115
Q

What is the pathway of air from the conducting bronchioles to the alveolar sacs?

A

Conducting bronchioles → Terminal bronchioles → Respiratory bronchioles → Alveolar ducts → Alveolar sacs

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116
Q

Spaces conducting dead space

A

Anatomical = 150ml
Alveolar = 25ml
SO physiological = 175ml

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117
Q

Describe flow resistance in the lungs

A

Greatest flow resistance =
segmental bronchi (These are
medium sized )
* If diameter is doubled,
resistance decreases by 1/16
* If diameter is halved,
resistance increases 16-fold

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118
Q

What is the equation for Poiseuille’s law?

A

R = 8µl / πr*4

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119
Q

How is ventilation?

A

Nerves fire to the pontine respiratory group
* Apneustic centre has a positive firing - respiratory intensity
* Pneumotaxic centre has a negative firing - time dependent inhibition * Signal to dorsal respiratory group, then stimulate the external intercostals and diaphragm
* The dorsal respiratory group signals to the ventral respiratory group, stimulates internal intercostals and accessory respiratory muscles
* Homeostatic control – inputs to nucleus accumbens, nucleus tractus solitaius * Inputs from CN IX and X

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120
Q

What are central chemoreceptors?

A

Located on the ventral lateral surface of medulla oblongata & detect changes in pH of spinal fluid. They can be desensitized over time from chronic hypoxia. They detect H+ from CO2 diffusing across the blood-brain barrier.

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121
Q

What are peripheral chemoreceptors?

A

Include aortic body (detects changes in blood oxygen & CO2 but NOT pH) and carotid body (detects all three). They don’t desensitize & have less impact on ventilation compared to central chemoreceptors.

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122
Q

What is the main drive to breathe?

A

CO2 is main driver to breathe as chemoreceptors respond to small changes in CO2 levels but only large O2 changes

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123
Q

Describe how CO2 levels cause us to breathe

A
  • Increase in CO2 levels → decrease in blood pH due to production of H+ ions from carbonic acid when CO2 combines with H2O.
  • In response, the respiratory centre (in medulla) sends nervous impulses to the external intercostal muscles & diaphragm to increase breathing rate & lung volume during inhalation.
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124
Q

What is the impact of O2 conc. levels on breathing?

A
  • Monitored by peripheral chemoreceptors → low arterial O2 level stimulates chemoreceptors, increasing number of action potentials sent to centre in medulla * Leads to an increase in ventilation, meaning more oxygen reaches the alveoli, minimising decrease in alveolar and arterial O2 levels
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125
Q

Which chemoreceptors detect CO2 change?

A

CO2 change is detected in both types of chemoreceptors, with the stimulus being t increased H+ concentration in extracellular fluid & arterial blood →increased stimulation of centre in the medulla oblongata & increase in ventilation.

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126
Q

What are the two stimulation centres in the medulla and what do they stimulate?

A
  • Ventral respiratory group (VRG) → stimulates both inspiratory and expiratory movements
  • Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) → primarily stimulates inspiration
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127
Q

Describe the pleura of the lungs

A

2 membranes – visceral and parietal pleura
Space in between is the intrapleural cavity

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128
Q

Describe inspiration

A
  • The respiratory muscles expand the cavity which creates a negative pressure in the pleural cavity
  • Pulls the visceral pleura which pulls on the lungs and decreases the pressure * Air rushes in to the lungs to equalise the pressure = inspiration (increase in transpulmonary pressure greater than elastic recoil of lungs – lungs expand, alveolar pressure reduced below zero)
  • diaphragm contracts - dome moves downward into abdomen, enlarging the thorax.
  • external intercostal muscles simultaneously contract, leading to an upward and outward movement of the ribs
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129
Q

Why does airflow cease at the end of inspiration?

A

End of inspiration - pressure in alveoli = atmospheric pressure again because of the additional air within them, so air flow ceases.

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130
Q

Describe expiration

A
  • diaphragm and external intercostal muscles relax. The diaphragm and chest wall are no longer actively pulled out by their muscles, so begin to recoil inwards, due to their elastic properties.
  • intrathoracic pressure increases (decreasing transpulmonary pressure, less than elastic recoil of lungs, so they passively recoil) and this forces the air out * As they become smaller, the alveoli are temporarily compressed, so their volume decreases and their pressure becomes greater than atmospheric pressure, causing flow of air out of the lungs.
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131
Q

What is the definition of and equation for flow?

A

Flow = (Palv – Patm)/R, where Palv is alveolar pressure, Patm is atmospheric pressure and R is a constant. When Palv is less than Patm, the driving force for air flow is negative, indicating that air flow is inward: inspiration. During expiration, the opposite is true.

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132
Q

What is the definition of and equation for Boyle’s law?

A

Boyle’s law: P1V1 = P2V2: at a constant temperature, an increase in the volume of a gas will cause a decrease in pressure

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133
Q

What is the definition of and equation for transpulmonary pressure?

A

The difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the lungs. Ptp = Palv - Pip. Because the lungs must always have some air in them, this is always positive relative to atmospheric pressure.

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134
Q

What is the definition of Pip

A

Pressure of the intrapleural fluid surrounding the lungs. This is negative, because the elasticity of the lungs and the chest wall mean they tend towards collapsing and enlarging respectively, so they more apart from each other. This reduces the pressure of the intrapleural fluid.

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135
Q

What is active expiration?

A

This can occur under certain circumstances, e.g. exercise. The internal intercostal muscles contract, depressing ribs 1-11, causing a decrease in thoracic volume. Additionally, contraction of the rectus abdominis increases intra-abdominal pressure, forcing the relaxed diaphragm up into the thorax

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136
Q

Describe respiratory failure

A

A syndrome in which the respiratory system fails in one or both of its gas exchange functions: oxygenation and carbon dioxide elimination

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137
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

A drop in the oxygen carried in blood

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138
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

A rise in arterial carbon dioxide levels

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139
Q

What are the thresholds for hypercapnia and hypoxemia?

A

Hypercapnia (PaCO2 >6.0kPa) and Hypoxemia (PaO2 <8kPa)

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140
Q

What is type 1 respiratory failure?

A

Gas exchange failure (e.g. v/q mismatch, hypoxaemia, high altitude, pneumonia)

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141
Q

What is type 2 respiratory failure?

A

pump failure (COPD, ventilation failure due to hypercapnia/hypoxaemia)

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142
Q

Define type 1 respiratory failure

A

low level of oxygen in the blood (hypoxemia) with either a normal or low level of carbon dioxide (PaCO2).

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143
Q

Causes of type 1 respiratory failure

A

This type of respiratory failure is caused by conditions that affect oxygenation such as: * Low ambient oxygen (e.g. at high altitude)
* Ventilation-perfusion mismatch (parts of the lung receive oxygen but not enough blood to absorb it, e.g. pulmonary embolism)
* Alveolar hypoventilation (decreased minute volume due to reduced respiratory muscle activity, e.g. in acute neuromuscular disease); this form can also cause type 2 respiratory failure if severe
* Diffusion problem (oxygen cannot enter the capillaries due to parenchymal disease, e.g. in pneumonia or ARDS)
* Shunt (oxygenated blood mixes with non-oxygenated blood from the venous system, e.g. right to left shunt)

144
Q

Define type 2 respiratory failure

A

Because of inadequate alveolar ventilation; both oxygen and carbon dioxide are affected. Defined as the buildup of carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2) that has been generated by the body but cannot be eliminated and low oxygen levels.

145
Q

What are the causes of type 2 respiratory failure?

A
  • Increased airways resistance (COPD, asthma, suffocation)
  • Reduced breathing effort (drug effects, brain stem lesion, extreme obesity) * A decrease in the area of the lung available for gas exchange (such as in chronic bronchitis)
  • Neuromuscular problems (Guillain–Barré syndrome, motor neuron disease) * Deformed (kyphoscoliosis), rigid (ankylosing spondylitis), or flail chest
146
Q

What are the three types of pulmonary stretch receptors?

A

Slow adapting
Rapidly adapting
Juxtapulmonary receptors

147
Q

What do slowly adapting stretch receptors do?

A

Inhibit inspiration; smooth muscle response to stretch

148
Q

What do rapidly adapting stretch receptors do?

A

Epithelial cells; response to volume change and irritates. Leads to bronchoconstriction

149
Q

What do juxtapulmonary receptors do?

A

Respond to irritants/noxious agents/interstitial fluid volume. Leads to bronchoconstriction

150
Q

What are the roles of the parts of the upper GI tract?

A
  • Early digestion – mouth
  • Taste – tongue
  • Saliva – enzymes, antibacterial, pH control, taste, lubrication
  • Palate – press against to aid digestion
  • Tonsils – immunity, lymph
  • Teeth – digestion
  • Oesophagus = passage
151
Q

Describe the pathway of food from the mouth to the duodenum

A

Mouth → pharynx → oesophagus → stomach → duodenum

152
Q

What does the pharynx do?

A

Pathway for food movement

153
Q

What does the oesophagus do?

A

Continuation of the pharynx at C6, emerges through the diaphragm at T10, passes to the cardiac orifice of the stomach. Food movement & peristalsis Arterial supply includes: oesophageal branches from the left gastric artery and oesophageal branches from the left inferior phrenic artery

154
Q

Outline the stomach

A

Most dilated part of the GI tract, lies in the umbilical, epigastric and left hypochondrium regions of the abdomen

155
Q

What are the 4 regions of the stomach?

A

Cardia, fundus, body and pylorus

156
Q

What is the function of the stomach?

A

Temporary food storage, mixing and breakdown of food & digestion (gastric juices + digestive enzymes from mucosa)

157
Q

Outline the duodenum

A

First part of the small intestine, around 20 – 25cm long, retroperitoneal - means behind peritoneum - organ (except for beginning which is connected to the liver by the hepatoduodenal ligament)

158
Q

What is the function of the duodenum?

A

Receives partially digested food (known as chyme) from stomach & secretions from the pancreas, liver and gallbladder mix with chyme in duodenum to facilitate chemical digestion.

159
Q

How is the oesophagus innervated?

A

Upper 1/3 is skeletal muscle supplied by the superior laryngeal and recurrent laryngeal nerve. The lower 2/3 is smooth muscle and supplied by the enteric nervous system

160
Q

Outline upper gastro-oesophageal motility

A
  • Peristaltic waves (coordinated waves of contraction) move food after swallowing * Cardiac sphincter = entrance into stomach
  • Enters into the cardia
  • Poor oesophageal motility is a common cause of GORD
  • Oesophageal (cardiac) sphincter weakened, takes less pressure for fluid to move back up
  • Can be dependent on body position
161
Q

What controls peristalsis in the gastro-oesophageal pathway?

A

Peristalsis controlled by medulla oblongata + aided by gravity

162
Q

Describe the peristaltic waves

A

Circular muscles contracts, reducing diameter and increasing pressure, forcing food down oesophagus
Longitudinal muscles contract & pull oesophagus over the food

163
Q

What is a primary peristaltic wave?

A

Occurs when food enter oesophagus during swallowing & forces food down to stomach

164
Q

What is a secondary peristaltic wave?

A

If bolus gets stuck, stretch receptors in oesophageal lining are stimulated & a second wave happens

165
Q

What is GORD?

A

Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD) = acid reflux → stomach acid rises up into oesophagus

166
Q

What causes GORD?

A

caused by failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter
- In healthy patients, the angle of His (angle at which oesophagus enters stomach) creates a valve that prevents bile, enzyme & stomach acid travelling back into oesophagus - in those with GORD, the valve is weakened or doesn’t close properly - this exposes the mucosa of the oesophagus to stomach acid, bile & pepsin & causes damage to the lining

167
Q

Describe the physiology of acid production in the stomach

A
  • HCl made by parietal cells.
  • H2O and CO2 combine with the parietal cell cytoplasm to produce carbonic acid (H2CO3) - catalysed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase
  • Carbonic acid dissociates into a hydrogen ion (H+) and a bicarbonate ion (HCO3-). * Hydrogen ion enters the lumen of the stomach via an H+ - K+ ATPase on the apical membrane. This channel uses ATP to exchange K+ ions in the stomach with H+ ions in the parietal cell.
  • Bicarbonate ion is transported out of the cell into the blood in exchange for a chloride ion (Cl-), using an anion exchanger located on the basolateral membrane. * Chloride ion transported into the stomach lumen through a chloride channel
  • Both H+ ions and Cl- ions in the lumen of the stomach – they have opposite charges, so associate with each other to form hydrochloric acid (HCl)
168
Q

Describe control of acid production

A

If an increased amount of acid is needed, stimulation can be increase the insertion of more H+ K+ ATPases into the membrane, causing an increased movement of hydrogen ions into the stomach

169
Q

What is the first way of increasing acid production?

A

ACh (released from the vagus nerve). Released firstly during the cephalic phase of digestion, activates upon seeing/digesting food, this directly stimulates the parietal cells. It is also produced during the gastric phase of digestion when intrinsic nerves detect distention of the stomach stimulating Ach production.

170
Q

What is the second way of increasing acid production?

A

Main regulation pathway involves gastrin, secreted from G cells in stomach. G cells activated by the vagus nerve & then released into the blood until it reaches the parietal cells. Gastrin binds to CCK receptors on the parietal cells which also elevates calcium levels causing increased vesicular fusion, results in increased insertion.

171
Q

What is the third way of increasing acid production?

A

Enterochromaffin like cells in the stomach secrete histamine which binds to H2 receptors on the parietal cells. These cells release histamine in response to the presence of gastrin and ACh. This leads to increased fusion however it is via the secondary messenger cAMP as opposed to calcium in the other methods.

172
Q

What is the first way of decreasing acid production?

A

Accumulation of acid in the empty stomach between meals leads to a lower pH within the stomach, which inhibits the secretion of gastrin, via the production of somatostatin from D cells.

173
Q

What is the second way of decreasing acid production?

A

When food has been broken down into chyme, it passes into the duodenum, triggering the enterogastric reflex → Inhibitory signals sent to the stomach via the enteric nervous system, + signals to medulla – reducing vagal stimulation of the stomach.

174
Q

What is the third way of decreasing acid production?

A

Presence of chyme within duodenum stimulates entero-endocrine cells to release cholecystokinin and secretin – both play roles in completing digestion + inhibit gastric acid secretion.

175
Q

How is stomach acid controlled by pharmaceuticals?

A
  • Can inhibit H+ production with proton pump inhibitor (PPI)
  • Or can use antacid to buffer the acid
  • Or ranitidine
176
Q

Describe the defences of the gastric and duodenal mucosa against acid damage

A
  • Produce HCO3- (alkaline – neutralising stomach acid on top of epithelial surface) and mucous which act as a protective lining and buffer against the HCl * Thick lining means stomach wall isn’t in direct contact with acid
  • Irritation causes surface mucous cells to produce more mucous
  • A loss of this lining means acid can damage the wall and cause ulcers * Exacerbated by H. bacter pylori
    Brunner’s glands in wall of first few cm of duodenum secretes alkaline mucus
177
Q

What is dyspepsia?

A

Group of symptoms that alert doctors to consider disease of the upper GI tract, and states that dyspepsia itself is not a diagnosis.
Symptoms: typically are present for 4 weeks or more, include (but are not limited to) upper abdominal pain or discomfort, heartburn, gastric reflux, nausea or vomiting

178
Q

Symptoms of reflux disease

A

Can include bloating, blood in vomit or faeces, dysphagia, hiccups, burping, nausea and unexplained weight loss. Patients may also report a burning pain or discomfort that can move up from the stomach to the middle of the abdomen and chest.

179
Q

Risk factors for GORD

A

Family history of heartburn or GORD, older age, hiatus hernia or obesity.

180
Q

Key diagnostic factors for GORD

A

Presence risk factors along with heartburn and acid regurgitation (can include dysphagia, bloating and laryngitis)

181
Q

Risk factors for reflux

A

Overweight (extra pressure on stomach/diaphragm), smoking (loosen sphincter), alcohol (damage stomach lining/glands) & large meals (stomach stretches,
increasing pressure on lower oesophageal sphincter so food not forced into stomach) may aggravate reflux

182
Q

Why does food get stuck in the oesophagus when someone has GORD?

A

Damage to the lower oesophagus from stomach acid can lead to formation of scar tissue. This narrows the oesophagus, leading to problems swallowing.

183
Q

How does GORD cause bloating?

A

Bloating is a symptom of GORD (though I couldn’t find anything explaining why), with bloating particularly bad after eating, especially raw salad, due to the roughage. The two are linked the other way though: burping in order to release air can lead to acid entering the oesophagus

184
Q

How does GORD cause abdominal pain?

A

Reflux is leading to acid irritating the lower oesophagus.

185
Q

How does GORD cause sore throat and cough?

A

If the acid reflux gets past the upper oesophageal sphincter, it can enter the pharynx, causing a sore throat.

186
Q

Why does acid reflux get worse in pregnancy?

A
  • More pressure on the oesophageal sphincter due to baby.
  • Generalised smooth muscle relaxation due to progesterone → more relaxation in gut → stomach stays full for longer, gastric motility decreases.
  • Prone to constipation → more water absorbed is in small bowel due to slower movement
  • Normal changes, not pathological
187
Q

Describe the lobes of the liver

A

Liver divided into anatomical right and a left lobe by the falciform ligament. (functional left and right divided by drawing a line vertically halfway through the IVC and gallbladder). There are 2 “accessory lobes that arise from the right lobe on the visceral (posterior inferior) side of the liver

188
Q

Where are the two accessory lobes?

A
  • Caudate lobe: lies superiorly.
  • Quadrate lobe: lies inferiorly, roughly square shaped.
189
Q

How are the accessory lobes of the liver separated?

A

These lobes separated by a deep transverse fissure - the porta hepatis, the bundle of blood vessels, nerves and ducts entering or leaving the liver (excluding the hepatic vein which drains into IVC).

190
Q

What is the functional structure of the liver?

A

Hepatocytes arranged in lobules - hexagonal
shaped units with a portal triad at each corner,
surrounding a central vein.

191
Q

What is the portal triad?

A

Venule of a portal vein, an arteriole
hepatic artery and a bile duct, along with
lymphatic vessels and vagus nerve
(parasympathetic) fibres.

192
Q

Describe how hepatocytes are arranged

A

Hepatocytes arranged in cords (converge on central vein) with sinusoids between them

193
Q

What are sinusoids?

A

Low pressure vascular channels that receive blood from the terminal branches of the hepatic artery & portal vein at the periphery of the lobule. They deliver blood to the central vein.

194
Q

Describe the mechanism of gas exchange in the liver

A

Hepatocytes are in contact with a sinusoidal & canalicular membrane. Sinusoidal membrane → allows materials to be exchanged with blood & the space between the sinusoid endothelium & hepatocytes = space of Disse & this contains blood plasma

195
Q

What allows better nutrient exchange in the liver?

A

Fenestrated endothelium of the sinusoids means the hepatocytes are bathed in plasma for nutrient exchange.

196
Q

What happens when the liver is damaged?

A

Hepatic stellate cells (ito cells) are found in the space of Disse. When the liver is damaged, hepatocytes & immune cells release factors that stimulate the stellate cells to secrete proteins such as collagen - useful until liver injury becomes chronic & continued collagen secretion causes the liver to become fibrosed

197
Q

What does the canalicular membrane do?

A

Canalicular membrane lies between hepatocyte & bile canaliculi and permits bile excretion

198
Q

What do kupffer cells do?

A

Kupffer cells present in the walls of the sinusoids – they phagocytose blood borne pathogens (portal blood has more blood borne pathogens than systemic blood) & have a role in bilirubin production (taken up & excreted by hepatocytes)

199
Q

Outline hepatic ducts

A

Drain bile from the canaliculi among the cells of the liver lobules right and left hepatic ducts: merge at the porta hepatis to form the common hepatic duct.

200
Q

Describe the process of moving from the hepatic ducts to the main pancreatic duct

A

Descends between the layers of the lesser omentum → merges with the cystic duct to form the bile duct → descends behind the first part of the duodenum, deep to or through the head of the pancreas → joins with the main pancreatic duct.

201
Q

What happens in the liver when RBCs come to the end of their lives?

A

RBC is ingested –> macrophage (phagocyte, Kupffer cell, etc), Hb –> heme and globin (initiates heme catabolism)

202
Q

What is the globin from haemoglobin broken down into?

A

Amino acids, used in bone marrow to form new RBC

203
Q

What is the haem from haemoglobin broken down into?

A

Biliverdin, catalysed by heme oxygenase, also liberating Fe2+and CO2

204
Q

What happens to the iron in haemoglobin when it is released?

A

Fe2+ is shuttled –> bone marrow using plasma transferrin to be again incorporated → new RBC

205
Q

What is biliverdin and what it is it converted into?

A

unconjugated bilirubin, catalysed by biliverdin reductase, undergoes biotransformation (glucuronidation) to form bilirubin (occurs in the liver, detoxification)

206
Q

What is the pathway of bilirubin out of the body?

A

Bilirubin can then dissolve in bile (more water soluble), and thus during digestive processes will end up in the small intestine, where the glucuronic acid is removed by bacteria to form urobilinogen

207
Q

What happens to urobilinogen?

A

Urobilinogen is either recycled via the ETC or oxidised by a different type of intestinal bacteria to form stercobilin

208
Q

Why is faeces brown?

A

Stercobilin is excreted in faeces and is what gives the characteristic brown colour

209
Q

Describe haemopoesis

A
  • Haemopoieses of erythrocytes begins in
    haemopoietic bone marrow
  • Reticulocytes are released into blood, they mature
    and circulate for 120 days
  • Old/damaged erythrocytes are phagocytosed by
    macrophages in the bone marrow, liver and spleen
  • The globin (protein) portion of Hb is metabolised
    into amino acids and reused for protein synthesis .
    The cell components (organelles) are recycled
  • The haem portion is broken down into biliverdin for
    transport in blood. The iron ions bind to the blood
    protein transferrin for transport.
  • Unused haem groups can be used for
    haemopoiesis or converted into bilirubin and used to
    make bile in the liver. Iron ions can be transferred
    into ferritin for storage in the liver
210
Q

Describe the subcostal plane

A
  • corresponds to a line drawn joining the lower most bony point of the rib cage,
    usually 10th costal cartilage
  • body of the L3 vertebra; the origin of the inferior mesenteric artery and 3rd
    part of the duodenum lie on this plane
211
Q

Describe the transtubercular plane

A
  • corresponds to a line uniting the two tubercles of the iliac crests
  • upper border of the L5 vertebra and the confluence of the common iliac
    veins(i.e. IVC origin) lie on this plane
212
Q

What is haemolytic/ pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

increased unconjugated bilirubin due to excess erythrocyte breakdown, exceeding
the capacity of the liver to transport it.
This is the jaundice present in newborns, as foetal haemoglobin is being broken down. NB physiological jaundice of the newborn.
Different causes, e.g. if the baby is not feeding well, can’t get the glucuronic acid to
conjugate bilirubin. + gut flora not well-established. Can be treated w/ UV light.

213
Q

What are the causes of haemolytic/pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

Infection, trauma to erythrocytes, sickle cell anaemia, drugs and toxins and
antibodies.

214
Q

What are some distinguishing features of haemolytic/pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

Absence of bile pigments in urine and normal stool colour, because unconjugated bilirubin is insoluble so not filtered by the kidneys and bile can circulate to
enter the intestine as normal

215
Q

What is hepatocellular/hepatic jaundice?

A

Hepatocytes are damaged so unable to transport bilirubin into the biliary system, so it enters the bloodstream instead. The bilirubin may be conjugated.

216
Q

What are the causes of hepatocellular/hepatic jaundice?

A

Hepatitis, cirrhosis and congestive liver disease

217
Q

What are the distinguishing features of hepatocellular/hepatic jaundice?

A

Dark amber urine, as much of the bilirubin has been :conjugated so is water soluble and so can be filtered by the kidneys. Stools are usually normal because some bile pigment manages to be excreted into the biliary tract and intestine.

218
Q

What is cholestatic/obstructive/post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Inability of hepatocytes to transport bilirubin either through the capillary membrane due to damage in the area, or through the biliary tract due to anatomical obstructions, e.g. gallstones, cancers e.g. carcinomas of the pancreas or ampulla of Vater.

219
Q

What are the causes of Cholestatic/obstructive/post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Many types of hepatitis, especially those caused by drugs, diseases which damage small bile passages (intrahepatic cholestasis), as well as obstructive disorders of the biliary tract (extrahepatic cholestasis).

220
Q

What are some of the key features of Cholestatic/obstructive/post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Amber coloured urine, as the bilirubin has been conjugated so can be filtered by the kidneys. Pale stools, as bile can’t enter the intestine. Itching of the skin(pruritis), due to build-up of bile salts below the skin, which triggers the inflammatory response.

221
Q

What happens with cholestasis?

A

With cholestasis → bile flow impaired at some point between the liver cells (which produce bile) and the duodenum (the first segment of the small intestine).

222
Q

What happens when bile flow is stopped?

A

When bile flow is stopped, the pigment bilirubin (a waste product formed when old or damaged red blood cells are broken down) escapes into the bloodstream and accumulates. Urine may become dark because of high levels of bilirubin being excreted from the kidneys. Stools may become light-colored because the passage of bilirubin into the intestine is blocked, preventing it from being eliminated from the body in stool. Stools may contain too much fat (steatorrhoea) because bile cannot enter the intestine to help digest fat in foods.

223
Q

How is bilirubin usually excreted?

A

Normally, bilirubin joins with bile in the liver, moves through the bile ducts into the digestive tract, and is eliminated from the body. Most bilirubin is eliminated in stool, but a small amount is eliminated in urine.

224
Q

Why might urine become dark and stools become light?

A

Urine may become dark because of high levels of bilirubin being excreted from the kidneys. Stools may become light-colored because the passage of bilirubin into the intestine is blocked, preventing it from being eliminated from the body in stool. Stools may contain too much fat (steatorrhoea) because bile cannot enter the intestine to help digest fat in foods.

225
Q

Describe the major anatomy of the brain

A
  • Brain is separated → 2 hemispheres by the deep
    longitudinal fissure, the corpus callosum is the large
    bundle of white matter connecting the two
  • Brain surface is formed of gyri (ridges) and the grooves
    between the gyri and sulci
226
Q

What does the frontal lobe contain and what does it do?

A
  • motor cortices and association areas (primary
    motor cortex (pre-central gyrus),
    supplementary motor area; association area
    for organising behaviour and working memory)
  • controls movement in contralateral part of body
  • regions controlling behaviour, decision making and personality (prefrontal association area)
  • Broca’s area is found in the left frontal lobe, responsible for fluent speech, writing (expressive aphasia without – no motor control of speech) → if R handed, L hemisphere is dominant
227
Q

What can damage to the frontal lobe result in?

A

Damage can result in a worse ability to assess risk and hence to react to danger, as well as reduced facial expressions and changes in personality.

228
Q

What separates the frontal and parietal lobes?

A

Central sulcus separates the frontal and parietal lobes.

229
Q

What do the parietal lobes contain and do?

A

PARIETAL LOBES contain the primary somatosensory cortex (post-central gyrus). Function is to receive and interpret sensations (e.g. pain, touch, pressure, etc.). Damage can result in attention deficits.

230
Q

What do the temporal lobes contain and do?

A
  • auditory cortices (primary = Herschel’s gyrus, association cortex and belt/ parabelt areas; assoc. for sensory stimuli recognition and storage of semantic memory)
  • separated by lateral sulcus
  • medial temporal lobe for long term memory and emotion (hippocampus, amygdala, entorhinal and perirhinal cortex. LIMBIC SYSTEM)
  • Wernicke’s area for understanding speech and written language (damage = Wernicke’s receptive / fluent aphasia)
231
Q

What happens if there is damage to Wernicke’s area but not Broca’s?

A

The person is able to produce grammatically correct and normal sounding speech, but the content will be non-sensual

232
Q

What do the occipital lobes contain and do?

A
  • located posteriorly – contain the primary visual cortex.
  • Damage can result in complete or partial blindness or visual agnosia (unable to comprehend visual stimuli, despite still being able to view them).
233
Q

What is the anatomy of the cerebellum?

A

(‘mini-brain’ – 2 hemispheres. 10% weight total brain weight – around ½ brains total neurons)
* 3 cerebellar peduncles that connect it the other parts of CNS (superior to cerebral cortex, middle to pons and inferior to spinal cord, tegmentum and vestibular nuclei)
* Made up of folded cortex, white matter + deep nuclei
* responsible for converting voluntary motor actions to automatic, which are stored in the deep nuclei (dentate, interposed, emboliform, globose and
fastigial).

234
Q

Describe the brainstem

A

(midbrain, pons, medulla - location of cranial nerves)
* Midbrain consists of tectum, tegmentum (red nuclei, periaqueductal grey, substantia nigra)
* Pons – nuclei for breathing, sleeping, swallowing, bladder control; middle cerebellar peduncle
* Medulla oblongata – autonomic regulation, corticospinal pyramids, inferior cerebell. Peduncle, somato, tubercles

235
Q

Which part of the brain is often badly damaged by a stroke and why?

A

Medulla can be badly damaged by a stroke - proximity of the vertebral artery and posterior inferior cerebral artery.

236
Q

Which cranial nerves originate from the cerebrum?

A

Olfactory and optic (I and II) cranial nerves originate from the cerebrum, whereas the remaining ten originate from the brainstem

237
Q

Describe tracts

A

Pathways by which motor signals are sent from the brain to lower motor neurons in efferent neurons. The lower motor neurons then directly innervate muscles to produce movement
Divided into 2 major groups - Pyramidal tracts and extrapyramidal tracts

238
Q

Describe the pyramidal tracts

A

(name derived from medullary pyramids of the medulla oblongata,which they pass through)
* originate in cerebral cortex + carry motor fibres to spinal cord and brainstem
responsible for the voluntary control of body & face musculature
* Divided into: Corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts

239
Q

Outline corticospinal tracts

A

(supply musculature of body)
* Begins in the cerebral cortex and receives input from
* Primary motor cortex
* Premotor cortex
* Supplementary motor cortex
* Somatosensory cortex

240
Q

Outline corticobulbar tracts

A

(Facial and neck muscles)
▪ Begins in lateral aspect of primary motor cortex
▪ Cortex → descends through internal capsule →
crus cerebri → brainstem (pons+medulla)→
terminate on motor nuclei of cranial nerve

241
Q

Outline extrapyramidal tracts

A

originates in brain stem + carries motor fibres to spinal cord
o Involuntary and autonomic control of musculature
Types- Vestibulospinal, reticulospinal, rubrospinal, tectospinal

242
Q

What do vestibulospinal extrapyramidal tracts do?

A

Ipsilateral information (balance and
posture). Medial and lateral.

243
Q

What do reticulospinal extrapyramidal tracts do?

A

Facilitates (medial) and inhibits (lateral)
voluntary movements increase (medial) and decrease (lateral)
muscle tone

244
Q

What do rubrospinal extrapyramidal tracts do?

A

Fine control of hand movement

245
Q

What do tectospinal extrapyramidal tracts do?

A

Coordinates movement of head in relation to
visual stimuli

246
Q

Outline upper motor neurones

A

Brain and brainstem to
the ventral horn of the spinal
cord. Typically, those in
descending tract will be these.

247
Q

Outline the lower motor neurones

A

Ventral horn of the spinal cord to the peripheral muscles.

248
Q

Outline the cortical homunculus

A

Contains the motor and sensory homunculus. Region of the brain dedicated to processing motor and sensory functions for different parts of the body. Nerve fibres will conduct somatosensory information from all over the brain.

249
Q

What does the motor homunculus do?

A

Motor processing for different bodily anatomical positions. Handles signals coming from premotor area of frontal lobes

250
Q

What does the sensory homunculus do?

A

Sensory processing for different anatomical positions. Handles signals coming from the thalamus

251
Q

What is the corona radiata?

A
  • White matter sheet that continues ventrally as the internal capsule and dorsally as the centrum semi ovale.
  • Group of nerves key for sending messages between regions of the brain (supply vital proteins to cells).
  • Sheets of both ascending and descending axons will carry most of the neural traffic to (afferent) and from (efferent) the cerebral cortex.
  • Fibres will include auditory radiation, optic radiation, thalamic radiations.
252
Q

Outline the internal capsule

A
  • White matter structure situated in the inferomedial part of the cerebral hemisphere of the brain carrying information past the basal ganglia.
  • Contains both ascending and descending axons going to and from the cerebral cortex.
  • Fibres will connect the thalamus with the cerebral cortex.
253
Q

Where does the anterior cerebral artery supply?

A

Supplies the corpus callosum and the medial region of brain, including lower limb area of M1

254
Q

Where does the middle cerebral artery supply?

A

Lateral parts of each hemisphere and anterior deep structures

255
Q

Where does the posterior cerebral artery supply?

A

Posterior region and the posterior inferior structures (caudate nucleus, occipital lobe, etc.)

256
Q

What would an occlusion of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) show up as?

A

is largest of the terminal
branches of the Internal Carotid Arteries
* Broca’s area (frontal lobe) supplied by the (left)
middle cerebral artery. Inability to form speech
(expressive aphasia) could be due to stroke in
the middle cerebral artery / the anterior circulation. (Note:
in right handed people, Broca’s area is almost always on the left side of the brain. In left-handed people,
Broca’s area is on the right side in about 60% of
people.)
* Wernicke’s area (parietal lobe) supplied by the middle
cerebral. Stroke here can cause difficulty understanding
written or spoken language (receptive dysphasia).

257
Q

Would be the symptoms of an occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery?

A

Occlusion of posterior cerebral artery could lead
to a hemianopia (blindness over half the field of
vision) → this type of stroke affects the visual pathways from the optic chiasm
onwards towards the occipital lobe.

258
Q

What type of stroke causes motor weakness?

A

From any area affecting the motor cortex. The primary motor cortex is supplied by the anterior and middle cerebral arteries → anterior circulation stroke will produce motor weakness.

259
Q

Why might a PCA stroke cause muscle weakness?

A

This is because the corticospinal tracts have to travel through the brainstem and spinal cord. So a stroke affecting the brainstem (e.g. posterior circulation stroke affecting basilar arteries) could also result in motor weakness.)

260
Q

What is the Upper motor neurone’s role and how does it do it?

A

Not responsible for muscle stimulation of the muscle as they don’t carry information down to the final common pathway.
- work through the neurotransmitter
glutamate which transmits the nerve
impulses from UMN to LMN where it is
detected by glutamatergic receptors.

261
Q
A
262
Q

How to tell if it is an upper or lower motor neurone disorder?

A

Upper motor disorders usually cause
spasticity; lower motor disorders usually
cause flaccidity.

263
Q

What is the lower motor neurone’s role and how does it do it?

A

receive
impulses from the upper motor neurons and
connect the spinal cord and brainstem to the
muscle fibers.
- They are the cranial and spinal nerves +
work using glutamate released from UMN,
triggering depolarization in the lower motor
neurons signalling the muscle to contract.

264
Q

UMN weakness symptoms

A

Slight/absent
muscle wasting, muscle weakness in the
extensors (in the flexors for the legs),
hyperlexia and muscle spasticity
· Weakness is majority found on the
contralateral side of the lesion due to 85% of
the fibres crossing over (decussation)
NB UMN lesion causes weakness sparing
the forehead.

265
Q

Outline LMN lesions

A

Caused by severing of the LMN
(e.g a car crash), certain viruses that target the
ventral horn and autoimmune conditions such
as MS which target the nerves
Symptoms: Severe atrophy, hypotonia,
hypoflexia, flaccid muscle weakness
NB LMN weakness affects the whole side of
the body, including the forehead.

266
Q

Describe the effect of Myasthenia Gravis

A

autoimmune destruction of nicotinic ACh receptors
- Ach release is normal but there’s decreased number of receptors
- treatment: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors can compensate for lack of Ach by increasing amount of time Ach is available for OR immunosuppressants OR removal of antibodiesby plasmapheresis OR thymus removed
NB MG is a collection of neuromuscular disorders characterised by fatigue + weakness, worsening as muscle is used

267
Q

Outline muscular dystrophy

A

X-linked genetic disorders resulting in malformed
dystrophin – loss of cell membrane cytoskeletal connections, unregulated influxes of calcium to sarcolemma
- progressive degeneration of skeletal + cardiac muscle fibres → death from
respiratory/cardiac failure

268
Q

What causes Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

caused by a non-functional or absent form of the gene for the protein dystrophin, which is on the X chromosome (so Duchenne’s is sex-linked). Dystrophin
links cytoskeletal proteins to membrane glycoproteins, maintaining the structure of the
plasma membrane or elements within it, such as ion channels. Therefore, without it, fibres which are subjected to repeated structural deformation during muscle contraction are
susceptible to membrane rupture and cell death.

269
Q

Describe dysphasia

A

delayed swallowing (form of dysphagia). Dysphagia affects the vast majority of acute stroke patients. This is because normal control of swallowing requires appropriate function of the brain stem, the basal ganglia, the thalamus, the limbic system, the cerebellum, and the motor and sensory cortices. The latter two of these structures would have definitely been impacted by a stroke somewhere in the middle cerebral artery,

270
Q

Outline carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is pressure on a nerve in your wrist. It causes tingling, numbness and pain in your hand and fingers. You can often treat it yourself, but it can take months to get better.
Check if you have carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)
The symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome include:
* an ache or pain in your fingers, hand or arm
* numb hands
* tingling or pins and needles
* a weak thumb or difficulty gripping
These symptoms often start slowly and come and go. They’re usually worse at night

271
Q

What is included in the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord
- can be divided into Lower Centres (including spinal cord and brainstem) and Higher Centres communicating with brain via effectors.
- info sent to CNS via afferent sensory neurons

272
Q

What is included in the PNS?

A

the rest of the nervous system ( i.e. everything excluding the brain and spinal cord). Contains sensory receptors which help process changes in the internal and external environment.
- PNS is subdivided into somatic and autonomic nervous systems.

273
Q

Outline the somatic nervous system

A

Part of peripheral nervous system → always stimulatory
o Voluntary movement (conscious movement of skeletal muscle)
o Reflex arc (involving muscles)

274
Q

Outline the autonomic nervous system

A

o Heart rate, digestion, salivation, urination and digestion
o Parasympathetic - rest and digest responses. Acetylcholine is
neurotransmitter.
o Sympathetic - fight or flight. Neurotransmitter = noradrenaline.
o But they both use nicotinic receptor at the first synapse.

275
Q

What is resting portential?

A

Resting potential is when there is a higher concentration of sodium ions on the outside → - 70mV (maintained by N+/K2+ active transport – 3 Na out, 2 K in)

276
Q

Describe the physiology of an action potential

A
  • Action potential begins with a depolarising stimulus e.g. neurotransmitter binding to ion channel → cell then depolarises (becomes less negative), stimulating voltage gated Na+ channels to open so more depolarisation
  • The threshold is -55mV for an action potential to be fired
  • The increase in sodium ions continues until the cell membrane potential reaches +30mV (via positive feedback loop)
  • At this point, membrane potential reaches its peak value & sodium channels are blocked by inactivation gates. Potassium voltage-gated channels open (K+ moves out) and K ion leave rapidly, repolarising the cell + membrane potential becomes negative + voltage gated sodium channels close
  • The membrane potential begins to move back to its resting state
  • Potassium channels experience a delay in closing resulting in hyperpolarisation → where the potential is lower than -70mV (where K+ permeability is raised above resting levels
  • Once voltage gated potassium channels close, resting potential is restored
277
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

No stimulus can produce a second action potential - sodium channels are already open or have been inactivated by inactivation gates. The inactivation gate must be removed before channels can open + this only occurs by repolarising the membrane.

278
Q

What is the relative refractory period?

A

2nd action potential can happen, but needs stronger stimulus. - some of the voltage-gated sodium channels have returned to their resting state + some potassium channels are still open.

279
Q

Why can an action potential only travel down a neuron if each point is depolarised to the threshold potential?

A

Because areas that haven’t been depolarised are -ve relative to the areas which have been, +ve ions
will flow from the depolarised region, causing slight depolarisation of the adjacent region. This causes voltage-gated sodium channels to open, causing depolarisation.

280
Q

What effect does K+ levels have on the axon?

A

Raised K+ increases membrane potential - closer to
threshold value
High K+ levels can impact the threshold value
Less K+ influx and less stimulation is required for
depolarization - membrane can be more readily
depolarized.

281
Q

What are the factors affecting conduction speed?

A

Diameter
Myelin

282
Q

How does diameter affect conduction speed?

A

Larger fibre will have a faster action potential
→ more ions can flow in a given time

283
Q

How does myelin affect conduction speed?

A

Prevents leakage of charge from inside to
outside the cell, so the local current can spread further.
It also means sodium channels are only found in the
nodes of Ranvier, so action potentials jump from one
node to the next (saltatory conduction), which is faster.
(+ more energy efficient → only get depolarisation in
small areas.)

284
Q

What are the four aspects of a stimulus?

A

Modality, intensity, location and duration.

285
Q

Outline sensory receptors

A

Are specialised to respond to stimuli
E.g. chemical - chemoreception, mechanical - mechanoreception, thermal - thermoreception or nociceptive – noiciception stimuli, proprioception

286
Q

Outline sub-modalities

A

Are different variations within a stimulus – specific receptors sensitive to specific modalities
E.g. pitch, volume and timbre in audible stimuli

287
Q

What happens to sensory receptors when they are triggered by a stimulus?

A

Sensory receptor activity is triggered by a stimulus, resulting in ion channels opening (if the stimulus is large enough) → receptors either endings of afferent neurons or separate cells that signal neuron by releasing neurotransmitter
- results in graded potential, this must be sufficient to flow to an area with voltage gated channels to trigger action potential

288
Q

What are the 2 processes of the afferent neurons?

A
  • Once to site of reception
  • Once to spinal cord to synapse with interneurons
289
Q

What role do interneurons play in the sensory pathway?

A

Interneurons synapse with ascending neurons in the corresponding pathway to stimulus - decussation occurs at interneuron or at brainstem (usually medulla) e.g. DCML + ventral spinothalamic pathways

290
Q

What happens after decussation in the interneuron/ brainstem?

A

Information gets passed to brainstem and thalamus before reaching the somatosensory cortex (posterior to central sulcus) for processing

291
Q

What are the 2 types of sensory receptors?

A

o Tonic → slow adapting receptors
o Phasic → rapid adapting receptors

292
Q

Outline the knee jerk reflex

A

patellar reflex
- tests the nervous tissue between & including L2 - L4 segments of the spinal cord
1.Patella tendon (just below the patella) is tapped, thus pushing the tendon back and the
muscle spindle in the quadriceps muscle is stretched – activating the stretch receptors
2.Stimulates a burst of AP in the afferent nerve fibres from the stretch receptors of the
muscle spindle which travels to the spinal cord at the level of L3/4.
These fibres then synapse with 1
interneuron & alpha-motor neurone
3. The extensor muscle contracts
whilst the flexor muscle relaxes, causing the knee to jerk

293
Q

Outline the inhibitory path of the sensory neuron

A

Sensory neuron
synapses with an interneuron.
Interneuron then synapses with alpha
motor neuron in the spinal cord. AP
then travels via this neuron to the
flexor muscle (hamstring) → poly
synaptic pathway

294
Q

What is the excitatory path of the sensory neuron?

A

Sensory neuron
synapse in spinal cord with alpha
motor neuron & AP goes to the
extensor (quadricep), conducting
efferent impulse back to muscle→
monosynaptic pathway

295
Q

What is Westphal’s sign?

A

Absence/ decrease of the reflex

296
Q

What is Brown sequard syndrome?

A

lesion in one half of the spinal cord due to hemisection.
Usually cervical. Rarely seen clinically.
- characterised by weakness on one side (hemi paraplegia) + loss of sensation on opposite side (hemianesthesia)
CONSTRAS to DCML lesions, where sensory loss is ipsilateral (spinal thalamic tracts decussate in spinal cord)

297
Q

Possible causes of Brown sequard syndrome

A
  • Traumatic injury e.g. bullet / stab wound / kick / car accident
  • Non-traumatic e.g. tumour / disc hernia / multiple sclerosis
298
Q

Clinical presentation of Brown sequard syndrome (ipsilateral)

A

Loss of touch, vibration, proprioception, (all caused by injury to DCML system, ascending tracts) and loss motor function (caused by injury to descending tracts)

299
Q

Clinical presentation of Brown sequard syndrome (Contralateral)

A

loss of pain and temperature sensation (caused by injury to anterolateral system)

300
Q

How does where the lesion occurs in relation to the point of decussation affect the presentation?

A
  • If the lesion is below / after the point of decussation, the ipsilateral (same side) is affected
  • If the lesion is above / before the point of decussation, the contralateral (opposite side) is affected
301
Q

What are the kidneys?

A
  • Paired retroperitoneal organs that filter the plasma and produce urine
302
Q

Where are the kidneys?

A

They are located bilaterally high in the posterior abdominal wall just anterior to the muscles of the posterior wall

Typically extend for T12 to L3— right kidney usually slightly lower due to presence of liver

303
Q

Describe the layers of the kidney

A

Each kidney is enclosed within a capsule and internally, has a distinct cortex (outer layer) and medulla (inner layer)

304
Q

Describe the renal pyramids

A

Renal medulla is characterised by the presence of 8-15 pyramids (collection of tubules), which taper down at their apex to form the papilla, where the urine drips into a minor calyx.

305
Q

Outline the pathway from the minor calyx to the proximal ureter

A

Several minor calyx form a major calyx, and several major calyx empty into a single renal pelvis and the proximal ureter

306
Q

Outline the ureter

A
  • Pair of tubes that carry urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.
  • They are about 10-12 inches long and run parallel to the vertebral column. Situated bilaterally.
  • Uretic walls comprised of smooth muscle which is needed for peristaltic waves
307
Q

Where does the ureter narrow?

A
  • Where pelvis of kidney becomes ureter
  • At the pelvic brim
  • Where the ureter passes through the bladder
308
Q

What is the urinary bladder?

A

A sac-like hollow organ used for the storage or urine at the inferior end of the pelvis.

309
Q

What stops urine passing back up from the bladder to ureter?

A
  • Ureter enters bladder at oblique angle
  • As pressure in bladder rises, it presses on part of ureter which is in the bladder wall so stops urine from passing back up to the kidney
310
Q

Outline the urethra

A
  • tube though which urine passes from the bladder to the exterior.
  • female urethra: about 2 inches long and ends inferior to the clitoris and superior to the vaginal opening.
  • Males: 8-10 inches long and ends at the tip of the penis
311
Q

Outline the nephron

A

function unit of the kidney
- Between 0.8-1.5 million nephrons in each kidney

312
Q

What are the two types of nephron?

A

Cortical nephrons: tubules extend only a short distance into medulla then back into cortex
Juxtamedullary nephrons: tubules extend deep within the medulla—have vasa recta around them

313
Q

What are the nephron sections?

A

Renal corpuscle
Glomerulus
Bowman’s capsule

Renal tubules:
PCT
Loop of Henle
DCT
Collecting duct

314
Q

Outline the renal corpuscle

A

Part of nephron in which blood plasma is filtered

315
Q

Outline the glomerulus

A

Capillary tuft formed by the afferent and efferent arterioles and encased in Bowman’s capsule

316
Q

Outline the bowman’s capsule

A

First step in filtration of blood to produce urine

317
Q

Outline the PCT

A

Bulk of reabsorption happens here → receives plasma ultrafiltrate and brings it down to the loop of Henle in the cortex. Lined with cuboidal epithelium

318
Q

Outline the loop of henle

A

Tubule lined with thin squamous epithelial
Descending loop = H20 permeable
Ascending loop = H20 Impermeable ; solute reabsorption occurs here

319
Q

Outline the DCT

A

Fine regulation of Ca2+, Na+, K+ and HCO3 reabsorption is Cl dependent

320
Q

Outline collecting duct

A

Terminal end of nephron; final concentration of urine is “fine-tuned” before it goes to minor calices

321
Q

Outline glomerular filtration and urine production

A
  • occurs due to pressure gradient in glomerulus
  • occurs when blood hydrostatic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure of glomerular capsule & blood colloid pressure
  • passive process
322
Q

Outline the 3 layers of the filtration barrier

A

From glomerulus into nephron → small molecules and ions up to 10 kDa get through but larger and negatively charged molecules can’t
- Podocytes with negatively charged foot processes which are negatively charged prevent albumin getting through
→ Form glomerular filtrate

323
Q

What is the filtration of the glomerulus determined by?

A

1) Size of molecule
2) Pressure
3) Size of molecule
4) Charge of molecule
5) Rate of blood flow
6) Renal blood flow is approximately
20% of the CO at rest

324
Q

Key facts about the glomerular filtration

A
  • The volume of fluid filtered by the renal
    glomeruli per unit of time is the GFR
  • On average, 180L of fluid is filtered per
    day (125ml/min)…since plasma accounts
    for about 3L of our total blood volume, our
    kidneys therefore filter the blood plasma
    about 60 times/day
325
Q

Outline renal clearance

A
  • The virtual plasma volume per minute, from which a substance is completely eliminated. If a substance is chosen, which is not secreted or reabsorbed in the renal tubules, the measured clearance corresponds to the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
  • Substances with exclusive glomerular filtration (without tubular secretion or reabsorption) like creatinine have serum concentrations in direct dependence with GRF
326
Q

Outline tubular reabsorption and urine production

A
  • 99% of the glomerular filtrate volume, filtrated Na+ and Cl- are reabsorbed in the renal tubules of the nephron.
  • The reabsorption is an energy consuming process.
  • The most common drive for reabsorption is the basolateral located sodium potassium pump which transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ into the cells, energy from the hydrolysis of 1 ATP molecule.
327
Q

What happens in the PCT and the descending part of the loop of Henle

A
  • 2/3 of primary urine volume are reabsorbed
  • PCT has villi to increase SA
  • Reabsorption of Na, Cl, glucose, amino acids, HCO3
  • Drive of Na transport via the basolateral Na-K pump
  • HCO3− reabsorption is dependent on sodium reabsorption and proton secretion
328
Q

What happens in the ascending part of the Henle loop?

A
  • Impermeable to water, transports electrolytes to interstitium
  • Produces high osmotic pressure
  • 30% of the filtered Na is reabsorbed using a lumen Na-K-2Cl co-transport mechanism
329
Q

What happens in the DCT?

A
  • Active Na transport via thiazide-sensitive Na-Cl co-transporter
  • 10% of filtered sodium is reabsorbed here
  • Thiazides inhibit the sodium reabsorption is the distal tubule
330
Q

What happens in the collecting duct?

A
  • The permeability of the CTs for water lead to a concentration of the urine into the fivefold osmolarity of the plasma
  • High osmotic pressure of the renal medulla is responsible for the force for the urine concentration
331
Q

How is reabsorption of water regulated by the collecting duct?

A
  • Permeability regulated by ADH (causes incorporation of additional aqua-porins into the luminal membrane
  • A deficiency of ADH secretion leads to diabetes insipidus, a disorder with massive diuresis and excessive thirst
332
Q

Outline renin

A

Rate determining step of RAAS system
Released from granular cells of renal juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

333
Q

What is renin released in response to?

A
  • reduced NaCl delivery to distal tubule detected by macular densa cells
  • reduced perfusion pressure in kidney detected by baroreceptors in afferent arteriole
  • sympathetic stimulation of JGA JGA cells innervated by beta 1 adrenergic sympathetic nerve fibres Angiotensin II
334
Q

Outline the RAAS system

A
  • Angiotensinogen is a precursor protein produced in liver, cleaved by renin to form angiotensin 1
  • Then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE – found in renal endothelium, lungs & capillary endothelium)
  • Bonds to various receptors
    Stimulates the release of vasopressin
    (ADH) from the posterior pituitary
335
Q

Outline aldosterone

A

principal mineralocorticoid
- Acts on principal cells of collecting ducts
* Increases Na+ reabsorption in exchange for K+
* It affects BP by regulating the amount of Na+ that is reabsorbed in the Distal convoluted tubule through altering expression of ENac channels

336
Q

Oultine ADH/vasopressin

A
  • affects BP by causing release of aquaporin (Aq2) channels into the membrane of principle cells (in collecting duct)
  • Causes increased water retention
337
Q

Common causes of chronic renal failure

A
  • high blood pressure (strain on small blood vessels)
  • diabetes (too much glucose can damage small filters)
  • high cholesterol (build up fatty deposits in vessels of kidneys)
  • infection
  • glomerulonephritis (kidney inflammation)
  • polycystic kidney disease (growths in kidneys)
  • blockages in urine flow (e.g. kidney stones, enlarged prostate)
338
Q

Major complications of chronic renal failure (CRF)

A
  • Fluid retention
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • Cardiovascular disease
  • Weak bones and increased risk of bone fractures
339
Q

Outline fluid retention as a complication of CRF

A

Can lead to swelling in arms and legs, high blood pressure, or fluid in your lungs (= pulmonary oedema)
This is because kidneys remove excess fluid from the body, so with chronic renal failure there can be too much fluid in the blood which can then build up in the tissues!

340
Q

Outline hyperkalaemia as a response to complications of CRF

A

Extra, unused potassium is usually removed from the blood by the kidneys. * Chronic renal failure can lead to too little or too much potassium in the blood. Too little potassium can make you weak, experience palpitations. Too much potassium can also make you feel weak, give you problems breathing, pain in your chest, nausea, heart problems

341
Q

Outline cardiovascular disease as a complication of CRF

A
  • kidney helps regulate blood pressure with the renin-angiotensin system
  • With chronic renal failure there is high blood pressure which can lead to heart attacks or strokes.
342
Q

Outline weak bones and increased risk of bone fractures as a complication of CRF

A
  • kidneys maintain bone health by regulating the amounts of calcium and phosphorous. If you have chronic renal failure, you may have too much phosphorous in your blood (hyperphosphatemia) which would pull calcium from your bones making them weak.
  • kidneys activate vitamin D so that it can be used in the bone. BUT with chronic renal failure less/no vitamin D will be activated.
343
Q

Outline the indifferent stage

A

first stage of gonadal development
- gonads begin as genital ridges (pair of longitudinal ridges derived from intermediate mesoderm & overlying epithelium)

344
Q

Genital development in the 4th week

A

Germ cells migrate from endoderm lining of yolk sac via dorsal mesentery of hindgut

345
Q

Genitalia development in 6th week

A

Germ cells reach genital ridges
Simultaneously, epithelium of genital ridges proliferate & penetrates intermediate mesoderm to form primitive sex cords → combination of germ cells & primitive sex cords form indifferent gonad

346
Q

Development of ovaries

A
  • no Y chromosome is present so no SRY gene to influence development & without it, primitive sex cords degenerate and don’t form testis cords
  • epithelium of gonad continues to proliferate, producing cortical cords
    3rd month → these break up into clusters, surrounding each oogonium (germ cell) with layer of epithelial follicular cells – forms primordial follicle
347
Q

Embryological genital ducts -> internal genitalia

A
  • all embryos have 2 pairs of ducts, ending at cloaca → mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts & Paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts
    No Leydig cells to produce testosterone & in its absence, mesonephric ducts degenerate - absence of anti mullerian hormone allows for paranephric duct development (has 3 parts)
    The 2 Mullerian ducts fuse to form the broad ligament
  • This divides the pelvic cavity into the utero-rectal pouch and the utero-vesicle pouch
348
Q

What do the 3 parts of the paramesonephric duct become?

A

cranial: becomes fallopian tubes
horizontal: becomes fallopian tubes
caudal: fuses to form uterus, cervix & upper 1/3 of vagina

349
Q

What forms the lower 2/3 of the vagina?

A

Sinovaginal bulbs

350
Q

Internal genitalia development by the 5th month

A

By 5th month the vaginal outgrowth is entirely canalised
The lumen on the vagina remains separated from the urogenital sinus by a thin tissue plate → hymen

351
Q

Outline development of external genitalia

A

Oestrogens responsible for this
- genital tubercle elongates slightly to form clitoris
- urethral folds form labia minora
- genital swellings form labia majora
- urogenital groove remains open, forming vestibule into which vagina & urethra open to

352
Q

Adult female internal reproductive organs

A

Vagina, uterus, fallopian tubes,
cervix, and ovary.

353
Q

Adult female external structures of the reproductive tract

A

Mons pubis, pudendal cleft, labia majora and minora, vulva, Bartholin’s gland, and the clitoris

354
Q

Main parts of the reproductive system

A
  • uterus: hosts the developing fetus, produces vaginal and uterine secretions, and passes
    the anatomically male sperm through to the fallopian tubes
  • ovaries: produce the anatomically female egg cells.
355
Q

Corpus luteum

A

A corpus luteum is a mass of cells that forms in an
ovary and is responsible for the production of the
hormone progesterone during early pregnancy. The role of the corpus luteum depends on whether or not
fertilization occurs.

356
Q
A