Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Private Pilot Ground > SU 4: Federal Aviation Regulations > Flashcards

SU 4: Federal Aviation Regulations Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?

A

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The definition of nighttime is?

A

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

A

Normal, Utility, acrobatic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An ATC clearance provides

A

authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed

A

Vfe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which V-speed represent maximum landing gear extended speed

A

VLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VNO is defined as the

A

Maximum structural cruising speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which V-speed represent maneuvering speed

A

Va

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?

A

Vx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vso is defined as the

A

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time

A

Vy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?

A

As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)?

A

They are mandatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?

A

Yes, if allowed by the AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?

A

14 CFR 43.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service

A

Private or Commercial pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When preventive maintenance is performed on an aircraft, what paperwork is required?

A

The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What documentation is required when a pilot has performed preventive maintenance on an aircraft?

A

The pilot is to make an entry in the aircraft’s maintenance records

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

A

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?

A

Replenish hydraulic fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is it illegal to fly on the dealer’s registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer?

A

No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

A

Any time when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

A

medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

A

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any

A

local law enforcement officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA’s Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office?

A

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, and which department should this be reported to?

A

Within 60 days to the Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A third-class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

A

August 31, 5 years later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A Third-class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privleges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on

A

May 31, 2 years later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medicl Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on

A

July 31, 2 years later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

A

August 31, 5 years later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on

A

October 31, 5 years later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In order to qualify for BasicMed, you must have received a comprehensive examination from

A

A state-licensed physician within the previous 48 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have

A

received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person’s logbook

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have

A

received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?

A

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

A

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

To act as PIC of a high-performance airplane, which training or experience would meet the additional requirements

A

Received and logged ground and flight training in a high-performance airplane and a received a logbook endorsement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

As pilot in command with a recreational certificate, you must have in your personal possession while exercising the privileges of that certificate

A

a current pilot and medical certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on October 30, this year, when is the next flight review required

A

October 31, 2 years later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have a flight review at least once

A

every 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required

A

August 31 2 years later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding

A

24 calendar months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

A

1929

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same

A

Category, class and type, if a type rating is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to at as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from

A

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

A

the same category and class of aircraft to be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane

A

must be to a full stop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

You have accomplished 25 takeoffs and landings in multi-engine land airplanes in the previous 45 days. For a flight you plan to conduct today, this meets the PIC recency of experience requirements to carry passengers in which airplanes?

A

Multi-engine land airplane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only

A

30 days after the date of the move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot’s logbook a minimum of

A

100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months

A

at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If you are operating under BasicMed, you may fly an aircraft with

A

a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expense involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees

59
Q

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees

60
Q

What expectation, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

A

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight

61
Q

If you are operating under BasicMed, what is the maximum speed at which you may fly?

A

250 KIAS

62
Q

You own an aircraft which is certificated to carry 8 occupants and has a total of 8 beats installed, including the pilot’s seat. You have recently elected to fly under BasicMed. May continue to fly the aircraft?

A

No

63
Q

A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his of her personal possessions while aboard the aircraft

A

A current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport

64
Q

How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board?

A

one

65
Q

When may recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night?

A

When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5 statue miles

66
Q

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger

67
Q

When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport?

A

After receiving ground and flight instruction on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement

68
Q

In regard to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may

A

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger

69
Q

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certified for a maximum of how many occupants

A

four

70
Q

(Refer to figure 22 on page 163.) (Refer to area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are

A

3 miles and clear of clouds

71
Q

A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of

A

180

72
Q

With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time recreational pilot may take off?

A

At sunrise

73
Q

What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?

A

There is no exception

74
Q

When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?

A

After receiving training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor

75
Q

When must a recreational pilot have a pilot-in- command flight check

A

If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days

76
Q

Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?

A

Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles

77
Q

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?

A

3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

78
Q

A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least

A

5 miles

79
Q

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is

A

3 miles

80
Q

If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?

A

2021

81
Q

May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?

A

No, it is not allowed

82
Q

Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to as prospective buyer?

A

None

83
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?

A

1200

84
Q

(Refer to Figure 26 on page 167.) (Refer to Area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown, after departing and climbing out of the Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are

A

3 miles and clear of clouds

85
Q

(Refer to Figure 26 on page 167.) (Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown below 700 feet AGL are

A

3 miles and clear of clouds

86
Q

When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?

A

It is not allowed

87
Q

When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?

A

When 2,000 feet AGL or below

88
Q

During daytime, what is the minimum flights or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

A

3 miles

89
Q

During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 miles

90
Q

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

A

Pilot in command

91
Q

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

A

Upon request

92
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A

The pilot in command

93
Q

You are PIC of a flight. During your preflight, you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible for this determination

A

The pilot-in-command

94
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

A

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof

95
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or special light-sport airworthiness certificate

A

Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate

96
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

A

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface

97
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

A

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood

98
Q

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

A

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

99
Q

You attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of mine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drunk. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is

A

below .04%

100
Q

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

A

8 hours

101
Q

While experiencing a hangover, a pilot

A

will have impaired motor and mental responses

102
Q

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

A

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned

103
Q

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically required the pilot in command to

A

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data

104
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight

105
Q

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport the PIC must

A

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use

106
Q

You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must

A

obtain weather reports, forecast, and fuel requirements for the flight.

107
Q

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

A

takeoffs and landings

108
Q

Which best describes the fight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened

A

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing

109
Q

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any , does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

A

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing

110
Q

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

A

taxi, takeoffs, and landings

111
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and we=hen?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs and landings only

112
Q

You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to us his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should

A

explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing

113
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft

114
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right of way?

A

The airship

115
Q

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft

A

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another

116
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A

Glider

117
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress

118
Q

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

A

Both pilots should give way to the right

119
Q

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A

The aircraft on the left shall give way

120
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed

A

Aircraft towering other aircraft

121
Q

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

A

The seaplane

122
Q

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots

123
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate and aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots

124
Q

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots

125
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

A

200 knots

126
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface

127
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft

128
Q

Expect when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer that what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure?

A

500 feet

129
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, expect over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

130
Q

According to 14 CFR part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing?

A

An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails

131
Q

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation

132
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

A

The elevation of the departure area.

133
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL

134
Q

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC

135
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

A

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

136
Q

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory

137
Q

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

A

an emergency

138
Q

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

A

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the manager of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested

139
Q

As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when

A

there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action

140
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

141
Q

What is the specific fuel requirements for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

142
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course for 175 DEG? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet

A

5,500 feet

143
Q

Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 DEG?

A

Odd thousand plus 500 feet

144
Q

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185

A

4,500 feet

Private Pilot Ground (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions