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Private Pilot Ground > Gleim Su 9 Navigation: Charts and Publications > Flashcards

Gleim Su 9 Navigation: Charts and Publications Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

(Refer to figure 22 on page 329) (Refer to area 3) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Shoshone County Airport

A

47º33’N - 116º11’W

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2
Q

Which statement about latitude and longitude is true?

A

Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles

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3
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 289) (Refer to area 2) What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?

A

47º25’N - 98º06’W

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4
Q

(Refer to figure 21 on page 291) (Refer to area 2) Which airport is located at approximately 47º 41 minutes 00 seconds N latitude and 101º 36 minutes 00 seconds W longitude?

A

Fischer

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5
Q

(Refer to figure 21 on page 291) (Refer to area 2) Which airport is located at approximately 47º34’30”N latitude and 100º43’00”W longitude?

A

Makeeff

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6
Q

(Refer to figure 21 on page 291) (Refer to area 3) Which airport is located at approximately 47º21’N latitude and 101º01’W longitude?

A

Washburn

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7
Q

(Refer to figure 77 below and figure 76 on page 293) Refer to the area of Pierre Regional Airport (N44º22.96’ W100º17.16”). What frequency can be monitored for the Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service in this area?

A

118.7 MHz

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8
Q

(Refer to figure 79 below and figure 78 on page 295) At Sioux Gateway/Col Day (N42º20.67’ W96º19.42’), which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions when the control tower is closed?

A

118.7 MHz

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9
Q

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 3) Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck Country Airport

A

36º24’N - 76º01’W

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10
Q

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 1) The NALF Fentress (NFE) airport is in what type of airspace

A

Class E

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11
Q

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 4) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302A?

A

Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles

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12
Q

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 1) What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off at Norfolk International?

A

Mode C transponder and two-way radio

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13
Q

(Refer to Figure 20 on page 297)(Refer to area 2) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional airport is

A

19 feet

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14
Q

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

A

Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue

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15
Q

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1200 feet AGL to, but does not include,

A

18000 feet MSL

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16
Q

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 299) The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (area 1) and Audubon Lake (area 2) varies from

A

2000 feet to 2500 feet MSL

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17
Q

(Refer to Figure 21 on page 299)(Refer to area 3) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?

A

IFR training flights above 1500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots

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18
Q

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than

A

2000 feet AGL

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19
Q

What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?

A

Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted

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20
Q

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

A

received prior authorization from the controlling agency

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21
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 301)(Refer to area 1) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1200 feet AGL are

A

3 miles and 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 horizontally from each cloud

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22
Q

(Refer to Figure 22 on page 301)(Refer to area 3) The vertical limits of the portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway over Magee Airport are

A

1200 feet AGL to 17999 feet MSL

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23
Q

(Refer to Figure 24 below, and Legend 1 on page 303) (Refer to area 1) For information about the parachute jumping at Caddo Mills Airport, refer to

A

the Airport/Facility Directory section of the Chart Supplement

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24
Q

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

A

Chart Supplement

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25
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

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26
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

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27
Q

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 305) (Refer to area 1) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

A

1273 feet MSL

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28
Q

(Refer to Figure 24 on page 305) (Refer to area 2) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?

A

1403 feet MSL

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29
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) What is the base of Class B airspace at Lakeview (30F) Airport (area 2)?

A

3000

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30
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) (Refer to area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is

A

Class D airspace to 3200 feet MSL

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31
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) At which airports is fixed-wing Special VFR not authorized?

A

Dallas-Fort Worth International and Dallas Love Field

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32
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) (Refer to area 3) The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive Airport is

A

3000 feet MSL

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33
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 307) (Refer to area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to

A

2900 feet MSL

34
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 309) (Refer to area 8) What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area southwest of Dallas Executive?

A

3549 feet MSL

35
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 309) (Refer to area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

A

4000 feet MSL

36
Q

(Refer to Figure 25 on page 309) (Refer to area 5) The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft Worth International (DFW) is a

A

VOR/DME

37
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) The Devils Lake East MOA (area 1) is a

A

military operations area

38
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) (Refer to area 2) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?

A

Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

39
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) (Refer to area 2) Identify the airspace over Bryn Airport

A

Class G airspace–surface up to but not including 1200 feet AGL; Class E airspace–1200 feet AGL up to but not including 18000 feet MSL

40
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 311) (Refer to area 2) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1200 feet AGL and 10000 feet MSL

A

3 miles and 1000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2000 feet horizontally from clouds

41
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 313) (Refer to area 3) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport

A

Class G airspace–surface up to but not including 1200 feet AGL; Class E airspace–1200 feet AGL up to but not including 18000 feet MSL

42
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 313) (Refer to area 3) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than

A

2000 feet AGL

43
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 313) (Refer to area 5) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of the Barnes County Airport is

A

Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL

44
Q

(Refer to figure 59 on page 315) (Refer to area 2) What kind of airport is Deshler (6D7)?

A

A public airport with a runway that is not a hard surface

45
Q

(Refer to figure 59 on page 315) (Refer to area 3) What is the airspace classification around Findlay (FDY) airport?

A

E

46
Q

(Refer to figure 69 on page 317) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (area 5) begins at

A

700 feet AGL

47
Q

(Refer to figure 69 on page 317) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Bishop Airport (area 4) to McCampbell Airport (area 1) at an altitude of 2000 feet MSL?

A

Entering the Corpus Christi Class C airspace

48
Q

(Refer to figure 70 on page 319) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DVO) (area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (area 5) at an altitude of 3500 feet MSL? When entering

A

the Livermore Airport Class D airspace

49
Q

(Refer to figure 70 on page 319) An aircraft takes off from Gnoss Airport (area 4) and flies southeast 25.4 NM to Buchanan Airport. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the flight?

A

3200 feet MSL

50
Q

(Refer to figure 71 on page 321)(Refer to area 1) Dubey airport is

A

a privately owned airport restricted to use

51
Q

(Refer to figure 71 on page 321)(Refer to area 6) Sky Way Airport is

A

a nonpublic use airport

52
Q

(Refer to figure 74 on page 323)(Refer to area 6) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of

A

both 2100 feet and 3000 feet MSL

53
Q

(Refer to figure 74 on page 323)(Refer to area 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace?

A

2901 feet MSL

54
Q

(Refer to figure 75 on page 325) The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF AUX Airport (GXF) (area 6) is classified as Class

A

D

55
Q

(Refer to figure 75 on page 325) What is the dotted outlined area northeast of Gila Bend airport, near area 3?

A

Wilderness area

56
Q

(Refer to figure 78 on page 327) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?

A

1 statute mile, clear of clouds

57
Q

(Refer to Figure 23 below, and Legend 1 on page 329) (Refer to area 3) For information about glider operations at Ridgeland Airport, refer to

A

the Chart Supplement

58
Q

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331)(Refer to area 3) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

A

1548 feet MSL

59
Q

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331)(Refer to area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

A

1300 feet MSL

60
Q

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331)(Refer to area 3) The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 010º radial is

A

454 feet MSL

61
Q

(Refer to figure 23 on page 331) The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans Country Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are

A

visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace

62
Q

(Refer to figure 20 on page 333)(Refer to area 5) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?

A

unmarked balloon on cable to 3008 feet MSL

63
Q

(Refer to figure 20 on page 333)(Refer to area 2) The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a

A

visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control

64
Q

(Refer to figure 24 on page 335) Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?

A

Rockwall (area 1) and Sulphur Springs (area 5)

65
Q

(Refer to figure 21 on page 337) Which public use airport depicted is indicated as having fuel?

A

Minot Int’l (area 1)

66
Q

(Refer to figure 21 on page 337) On what frequency can a pilot receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) in the vicinity of area 1?

A

117.1 MHz

67
Q

(Refer to figure 21 on page 337)(Refer to area 2) The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is

A

122.9 MHz

68
Q

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

A

10 miles

69
Q

(Refer to figure 25 on page 339)(Refer to area 3) If Dallas Executive Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A

127.25 MHz

70
Q

(Refer to figure 25 on page 339)(Refer to area 2) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

A

126.0 MHz

71
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 341)(Refer to area 2) What is the recommended communication procedure when inbound to land at Cooperstown Airport?

A

Broadcast intentions when 10 miles out on the CTAF/MULTICOM frequency, 122.9 MHz

72
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 341)(Refer to area 4) The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is

A

123.0 MHz

73
Q

(Refer to figure 26 on page 341)(Refer to area 5) What is the CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Barnes County Airport?

A

122.8 MHz

74
Q

(Refer to figure 20 on page 343)(Refer to area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for departure at Currituck County Airport?

A

Broadcast intentions prior to taxi and announcing runway of departure

75
Q

(Refer to figure 20 on page 343)(Refer to area 3) What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?

A

Transmit intentions

76
Q

(Refer to figure 22 below and figure 31 on page 345) (Refer to area 2 in figure 22) At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

A

122.8 MHz

77
Q

(Refer to figure 22 below and figure 31 on page 347) (Refer to area 2 in figure 22) At Coeur D’Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A

122.8 MHz

78
Q

(Refer to figure 31 below and figure 22 on page 348) (Refer to area 2 in figure 22) What is the correct UNICOM frequency to be used at Coeur D’Alene to request fuel?

A

122.8 MHz

79
Q

(Refer to figure 22 on page 348) Weather information is available at the Coeur d’Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)

A

from AWOS 3 135.075

80
Q

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by

A

downloading them from the FAA website

81
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic and General Operating rules are issued under which subject number?

A

90

82
Q

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?

A

60

Private Pilot Ground (12 decks)

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