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Work > STI - FCOM and FCTM > Flashcards

STI - FCOM and FCTM Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum cabin altitude?

A

8000’

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2
Q

If the field elevation is higher than 8000’, how does the cabin altitude controller manage cabin altitude?

A

Descends the cabin to 8000’ during the climb

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3
Q

At touchdown, what do the outflow valves do?

A

Both open to depressurize the cabin

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4
Q

Above what cabin altitude will the outflow valves be commanded closed?

A

11000’

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5
Q

What do the air conditioning packs do?

A

Cool bleed air

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6
Q

Maximum runway slope?

A

+/- 2%

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7
Q

Maximum take off tailwind?

A

15 knots

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8
Q

Maximum landing tailwind?

A

15 knots

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9
Q

Max height for FLCH usage?

A

1000’ AFE

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10
Q

Maximum and minimum glideslope?

A

3.25 to 2.5 degrees

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11
Q

Autoland maximum winds?

A

Headwind: 25 knots
Crosswind: 25 knots
Tailwind: 15 knots

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12
Q

Maximum flaps extended altitude?

A

20,000’

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13
Q

Minimum autopilot engagement height?

A

200’

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14
Q

Minimum autopilot disengagement height without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated?

A

100’ RA

NEED TO CONFIRM, FCOM 3 says 200’ AGL

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15
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind take off and landing limits?

A

38 knots

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16
Q

Takeoff maximum crosswind on dry or wet runway before referencing tables?

A

20 knots

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17
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed?

A

270 knots below 25,000ft

280 knots or 0.82 Mach whichever is lower above 25,000ft

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18
Q

Maximum gear operating, and gear extended speeds?

A

Both 270 knots/0.82 Mach

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19
Q

Maximum altitude?

A

43,100’

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20
Q

Maximum altitude for take off and landing?

A

8,400’

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21
Q

Maximum take off weight?

A

351,534kg

351.5T

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22
Q

Maximum landing weight?

A

251,290kg

251.3T

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23
Q

Maximum ZFW?

A

237,682kg

237.7T

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24
Q

APU start limitations?

A

3 start attempts in a 60 minute period.

1 minute between starts

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25
Q

APU maximum operational height?

A

20,000’

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26
Q

Maximum pressure differential?

A

9.1 PSI

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27
Q

Engine anti-ice temperature limitations?

A

-40C OAT to 10C OAT (or TAT)

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28
Q

When is a pre-takeoff engine runup required?

A

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3 degrees or below

Run up to minimum 50% N1, confirm stable engine operation, ensure vibration less than 4 units before start of take off roll

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29
Q

When is a ground engine runup required?

A

NEED TO VERIFY ROLLS ROYCE ALTERNATIVE

GE: When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3 degrees or below. Run up to 50% N1 for approximately 1 second, at intervals no greater than 60 minutes.

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30
Q

Ground wind limits for all doors?

A

Do not operate doors in winds more than 40 knots. Close when wind gusts are more than 65 knots

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31
Q

FO limitations?

A

Crosswind: >15 knots (FO)
Landing in the event of a major mechanical failure
Manual landing: <300FT (FO) cloud base, or <1500M VIS
Landing at ALT airport not familiar to both pilots
Night visual approaches at CAT B airports

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32
Q

When is an autoland highly recommended?

A

Vis <1500MT or Cloud base <300FT (below FO limits)

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33
Q

Minimum cabin crew required?

A

Must be not less than the number of main aircraft exits

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34
Q

HF Radio limitations?

A

HF operations during refueling operations prohibited

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35
Q

Weather radar limitations?

A

Prohibited within a hangar or within 50 feet (15m) of fuelling operations

36
Q

Prior to take off, maximum allowable difference between CN and FO altitude display and field elevation?

A

75 feet (for RVSM ops)

37
Q

Where can the maximum crosswind tables be found?

A

FCOM 3

38
Q

Maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing?

A

0.11 PSI

39
Q

Maximum fuel temperature?

A

49C

40
Q

How much fuel is in the centre tank when FUEL LOW CENTER is displayed?

A

1.2 tonnes

41
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance between main tanks?

A

1,360kg above total main tank fuel 55,791kg
2,041kg above total main tank fuel 40,823kg

1.4T above 55T
2T above 40T

42
Q

Stabilised approach criteria?

A

By 1000’ AAL:

  • IAP - established laterally and vertically, correct FMA modes
  • VIS - established correct descent path and wings level by 300’
  • Fully configured for landing
  • Landing config and checklist complete
  • Speed and thrust stable for conditions
  • Vertical speed no more than 1000fpm unless required and briefed
43
Q

RTO autobrakes are operational after what speed?

A

85 knots

44
Q

Contaminated runway take off crosswind prior to referencing FCOM 3 tables?

A

10 knots

45
Q

Contaminated runway landing crosswind prior to referencing FCOM 3 tables?

A

15 knots

46
Q

Can an automatic go around be initiated after touchdown?

A

No

47
Q

What happens when TOGA switches are pushed on the ground?

A

Below 50 knots and flaps out of up:
Activates the autothrottle in THR REF mode at reference thrust limit selected on THR LIM page. If not pushed below 50 knots, autothrottle operation is inhibited until reaching 400ft altitude

At 80 knots, the autothrottle mode annunciation changes to HOLD. Pushing either switch above 80 knots disarms LNAV/VNAV and the flight directors are displayed

48
Q

What happens when TOGA switches are pushed inflight after take off?

A

Removes take off and climb de-rates, and assumed temp thrust reduction.
A/T in HOLD, activates A/T in THR REF mode
Disarms LNAV/VNAV if armed
Between 50ft and 400ft, selects TOGA roll mode
Above 400ft, selected TOGA roll and pitch modes

49
Q

What happens when TOGA switches pushed on approach with flaps out of up, or glideslope captured?

A
  • Activates A/T in THR mode with GA reference THR LIM displayed. Thrust adjusts to provide 2000 feet per minute climb
  • Selects TOGA roll and pitch modes
  • arms or activates LNAV if an LNAV path is available

Any second pushes activate A/T in THR REF using GA reference thrust in either LNAV roll mode (if active), or TOGA roll and pitch modes

50
Q

In flight, when is TOGA armed?

A

When flaps are out of up or glide slope is captured

51
Q

What pitch does TOGA set on take off?

A

Initially 8 degrees nose up
After lift off, the AFDS commands a pitch attitude to maintain:
* Target speed of V2 plus 15 knots or the airspeed at rotation plus 15 knots, whichever is greater
* the IAS window speed if the IAS window speed is changed to a speed greater than target speed

52
Q

What is classed as LVO?

A

Takeoff with RVR <400M (1/4 mile) or Landing with RVR <550M

NEED TO ENTER AUSTRALIAN DIFFERENCES

53
Q

PFD annunciations for CAT 2 approach?

A

LAND 2 on at least 1 PFD

54
Q

PFD annunciations for CAT 3A approach?

A

LAND 2 on both PFD’s

55
Q

PFD annunciations for CAT 3B approach?

A

LAND 3 required on both PFD’s

56
Q

At what height does AFDS change to LAND 3?

A

1500’ RA, can change up until alert height

57
Q

What must occur if NO AUTOLAND is annunciated?

A

CAT 1 minima must be used and autopilot disconnected below 200’ AGL.

(PFD Minima cannot be changed below 1000’, but revised minima can be continued to)

58
Q

Runway edge lighting spacing?

A

60m

59
Q

Touchdown zone lighting spacing?

A

30m

60
Q

Runway centreline lighting spacing?

A

Cat 3 - 15m

Cat 2 - 30m

61
Q

How does runway centreline and edge lighting change colour toward the end of the runway?

A

With 3,000ft remaining, the RCL white lights change to alternating white and red, and then all red during last 1000ft

With 2000ft remaining, REDL changes from white to yellow

62
Q

Are assumed temperature take offs permitted on contaminated runway?

A

No

63
Q

RTOW QNH considerations?

A

Assumed take off includes a 2hPa padding

When using max thrust take off, the actual QNH must be equal to or greater than the RTOW

64
Q

How is windshear defined?

A 
15 knots indicated airspeed
500fpm vertical speed
5 degrees pitch attitude
1 dot displacement from the glideslope
Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time
65
Q

What shall be called if ‘Flare’, ‘Idle’, and ‘Rollout’ are not annunciated following an autoland?

A

No Flare
Retard
No Rollout

66
Q

If windshear is encountered prior to V1?

A

Reject take off

67
Q

If windshear is encountered after V1?

A

Perform the windshear escape maneuver

If encountered near the normal rotation speed, and airspeed suddenly decreases there may not be enough runway left to regain normal rotation speed. Initiate rotation speed at least 2000’ before end of the runway, higher than normal attitudes may be required to lift off in the remaining runway. Ensure maximum thrust is set

68
Q

What is the windshear escape manoeuvre?

A 
Manual: 
Announce 'WINDSHEAR'
Disengage autopilot
Push either TOGA switch 
Aggressively apply maximum thrust 
Disconnect autothrottles 
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch attitude of 15 degrees
Retract speedbrakes
Follow flight director TOGA guidance 
Automatic flight: 
Announce 'WINDSHEAR'
Push either TOGA switch 
Verify TOGA mode annunciation 
Verify GA thrust 
Retract speedbrakes
Monitor system performance

In either situation, do not change configuration until windshear is no longer a factor
Monitor vertical speed and altitude
Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear no longer a factor

69
Q

Rejected take off below 80 knots?

A 
Master Caution 
System failures
Unusual noise or vibration 
Tire failure 
Abnormally slow acceleration 
Take off config warning 
Fire or fire warning
Engine failure
Predictive windshear
Aircraft unsafe or unable to fly
70
Q

Rejected take off between 80 knots and V1?

A

Fire or fire warning
Engine failure
Predictive windshear warning
Aircraft unsafe or unable to fly

71
Q

Rejected take off procedure?

A

Left Seat Pilot:
Simultaneously, call STOP and,
Close thrust levers and disconnect autothrottles and,
Apply maximum manual brakes or verify RTO autobrakes
Apply reverse thrust consistent with conditions
Verify speedbrakes extended

Once stopped:
Make PA announcement either initiating alert phase or a normal PA if no threat posed.
Action checklist

Right seat pilot:
Verify actions of left seat pilot
‘SPEEDBRAKES UP/NOT UP, REV GREEN/NO REVERSER ENGINE LEFT/NO REVERSERS’
Advise control tower using phrase ‘STOPPING’
‘60 knots’

Once stopped:
Action checklist
Advise ATC of intentions, including whether emergency services are required
Bring up GEAR status page

72
Q

Expedited arrival due to cargo fire?

A

Edit

73
Q

Engine failure in the cruise?

A 
Check for severe damage
If time permits, conduct memory items, otherwise standby
Select VNAV ENG OUT 
Check EO altitude, select appropriate altitude in MCP window 
Execute VNAV ENG OUT 
Push MCP selector 
Notify ATC
Initiate turn if required 
Checklist
74
Q

Engine failure after take off?

A

Call the failure - “check, standby” - 400ft, “confirm the failure”
“Check ENG FAIL L/R, check for severe damage”
(If severe damage, complete severe damage memory items)
Once flaps have been retracted, complete checklist. No need to reconfirm the failure, just call for appropriate checklist.
Once clear of obstacles, select and execute FMC ENG OUT

75
Q

OEI go around procedure?

A

“Go around, Flaps 5”
Call the modes
Positive rate, gear up
At acceleration height, select command speed to the maneuver speed (VREF 30+80 = roughly 230 knots)
Retract flaps on schedule
Once clean, select VNAV or FLCH and confirm CON thrust set

76
Q

Air conditioning packs normal ops

A

2 packs on the aircraft, each pack has 1 controller and 2 redundant channels (if one channel fails, the other automatically takes over)
Pack output automatically controlled for demands as necessary
Fuel consumption is same for single or dual pack operation
Flight deck air 100% from LEFT pack, maintained at a slightly higher pressure than cabin
When one or both RECIRC FANS off, packs operate at full flow, cabin air exchange rate increases, fuel consumption increases 0.7% for each fan off.
4 RECIRC fans - 1 upper FWD, 1 upper AFT, 2 lower
Approx 50% of the air in distribution system comes from recirculation fans

77
Q

Air conditioning packs non normal ops

A

Overheat or pack fault occurs, pack automatically shuts down. Can be reset using AIR CONDITIONING RESET switch
Standby cooling in effect if PACK MODE (L/R) displayed
If both packs in standby or 1 standby and 1 failed, packs will operate continuously regardless of conditions

78
Q

Temperature control normal ops

A

Zone temperatures range from 18C - 29C
Zone requiring coolest temps controls pack outlet temp
Cabin crew can individually control zone temp +/- 6C from set temp
Zones are warmed up by adding more trim air

79
Q

Temperature control non normal ops

A

If left or right trim system is off, CACTCS (cabin air conditioning temperature control system) maintains all zones at average target temp
If CACTCS, all engines and APU electrical power fails, air supply and cabin pressurisation controllers control the pack flow control valves (outlet temp of 5C - 43C)

80
Q

How is the FWD CARGO zone heated?

A

From warm air from the forward equipment ventilation system

81
Q

How is cargo temperature maintained?

A

Temperature control valve opens and closes to achieve target temperature.
LOW - 4C - 10C (TAT <7C temp control valve opens)
HIGH - 18C - 24C (TAT <21C temp control valve opens)

82
Q

Predictive windshear caution alert actions?

A

Monitor Radar display aural alert

Maneuver as required to avoid the windshear

83
Q

Predictive windshear warning during take off roll actions?

A

Prior to V1, reject take off

If encountered at V1, there may not be enough runway to stop. At VR rotate at a normal rate toward a 15 degree pitch attitude, once airborne perform the Windshear Escape Maneuver

If encountered near normal rotation speed and airspeed suddenly decreases, initiate a normal rotation at least 2000’ before the end of the runway even if airspeed is low. Higher than normal attitudes may be required. Ensure maximum thrust is set.

84
Q

Predictive windshear warning during approach actions?

A

Perform Windshear Escape Maneuver or at pilots discretion, perform a normal go around

85
Q

Predictive windshear warning in flight actions?

A

Perform the Windshear Escape Maneuver

86
Q

What are the indications the airplane is in windshear?

A
  • Windshear warning (two tone siren followed by ‘WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR’) or,
  • Unacceptable flight path deviations

Unacceptable flight path deviations are recognized by uncontrolled changes below 1000 ft AGL in excess of any of the following:

  • 15 knots indicated airspeed
  • 500 FPM vertical speed
  • 5 degrees pitch attitude
  • 1 dot displacement from glideslope
  • Unusual thrust lever position for significant period

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