Step Up - Connective Tissue and Joint Diseases Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

SLE types:

A
  1. Spontaneous SLE
  2. Discoid lupus - skin lesions WITHOUT systemic disease.
  3. Drug-induced lupus.
  4. ANA(-) lupus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ANA(-) lupus - Associated findings:

A
  1. Arthritis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, subacute cutaneous lupus.
  2. Serology - Anti-SS-A(+), ANA(-).
  3. Risk of NEONATAL lupus in infants of affected women.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Neonatal lupus - Clinical findings:

A
  1. Skin lesions
  2. Cardiac abnormalities - AV block, transposition of the great vessels.
  3. Valvular and septal defects.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cutaneous clinical features - SLE:

A
  1. Butterfly rash (30%).
  2. Photosensitivity
  3. Discoid lesions.
  4. Oral/Nasopharyngeal ulcers
  5. Alopecia
  6. Raynaud’s (20%).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Musculoskeletal clinical features - SLE:

A
  1. Joint pain (90%).
  2. Arthritis (inflammatory and symmetric, NOT EROSIVE as in RA).
  3. Arthralgia/myalgia with or without myositis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cardiac clinical features of SLE:

A
  1. Pericarditis
  2. Endocarditis (Libman-Sacks is a serious complication).
  3. Myocarditis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pulmonary clinical features of SLE:

A
  1. Pleuritis (MC pulmonary finding).
  2. Pleural effusion.
  3. Pneumonitis (may lead to fibrosis).
  4. Pulmonary HTN (rare).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hematologic clinical features of SLE:

A
  1. Hemolytic anemia with anemia or reticulocytosis of chronic disease.
  2. Leukopenia
  3. Lymphopenia
  4. Thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Renal clinical features of SLE:

A
  1. Proteinuria >0.5g/day (may have nephrotic syndrome).
  2. Cellular casts.
  3. GN (may have hematuria).
  4. Azotemia
  5. Pyuria
  6. Uremia
  7. HTN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Immunologic clinical features of SLE:

A
  1. Impaired immune response due to many factors, including autoantibodies to lymphocytes.
  2. Abnormal T cell function.
  3. Immunosuppressive medications.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

GI clinical features of SLE:

A
  1. Nausea/vomiting
  2. Dyspepsia
  3. Dysphagia
  4. PUD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CNS features of SLE:

A
  1. Seizures
  2. Psychosis (may be subtle)
  3. Depression
  4. Headaches
  5. TIA
  6. CVA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Other findings in SLE:

A
  1. Conjunctivitis
  2. Incr. incidence of Raynaud’s and
  3. Sjögren
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC initial findings in SLE:

A
  1. Malar rash
  2. Joint pain
  3. Fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Conditions in which ANAs are elevated:

A
  1. SLE
  2. RA
  3. Scleroderma
  4. Sjögren
  5. Mixed connective tissue disease
  6. Polymyositis and dermatomyositis
  7. Drug-induced lupus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antibodies in SLE:

A
  1. Anti-ds DNA (40%).
  2. Anti-Sm (30%).
  3. Anti-ss DNA (70%).
  4. Anti-histone (70%) are present in 100% of cases of drug-induced lupus.
  5. Ro (SS-A) and La (SS-B) are found in 15-35%.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SS-A (Ro) and SS-B (La) are associated with:

A
  1. Sjögren
  2. Subacute cutaneous SLE
  3. Neonatal lupus (with congenital heart block).
  4. Complement def (C2, C4).
  5. ANA(-) lupus.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ANAs - Highly sensitive for:

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RF - Conditions:

A
  1. RA (70%).

2. Healthy population up to 3%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

c-ANCA?

A

Wegener - Sensitive + Specific, can vary with disease activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

p-ANCA?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa - 70-80% sensitive for microscopic PAN, NOT specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lupus anticoagulant?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If CRP is >15?

A

Bacterial infection is likely present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Positive LE preparation:

A

ANAs bind to nuclei of damages cells, producing LE bodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

False(+) for syphilis - usually in?

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Complement levels in SLE:

A

Usually decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Best long-term therapy for SLE:

A

Antimalarial agents such as hydroxychloroquine - for constitutional, cutaneous, and articular manifestations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cyclophosphamide for SLE:

A

For ACTIVE glomerulonephritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What should be monitored properly in SLE?

A
  1. Renal disease, which produces the most significant morbidity.
  2. HTN.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Best treatment for SLE patients with acute flare?

A

Steroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

SLE - HLA associations:

A
  1. HLA-DR2

2. HLA-DR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sjögren - HLA associations:

A

HLA-DR3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

RA - HLA associations:

A

HLA-DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HLA-B27 associations:

A
  1. Ankylosing spondylitis
  2. Reiter
  3. Psoriatic arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

SLE prognosis:

A
  1. Most patients do NOT achieve normal life expectancy.
  2. With proper treatment severe organ damage can be prevented and symptoms controlled in many cases.
  3. MCCs of death are opportunistic infections and renal failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Scleroderma - Pathophysiology:

A

Cytokines stimulate fibroblasts, causing an abnormal amount of collagen deposition.
It is the HIGH AMOUNT of collagen that causes the problems associated with this disease (composition of the collagen is normal).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Drug-induced lupus - which systems do not have problem?

A
  1. CNS

2. Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Commonly implicated drugs that cause lupus?

A
  1. Hydralazine
  2. Procainamide
  3. Isoniazid
  4. Chlorpromazine
  5. Methyldopa
  6. Quinidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Drug-induced lupus - Antibodies:

A
  1. Anti-histone Ab are always present.

2. ABSENT anti-ds DNA and anti-Sm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lupus GN - Types:

A
MC finding (usually present at diagnosis).
Type I (5%) - Minimal lesions - renal failure is very rare.
Type II (20%) - Mesangial lupus GN - renal failure is rare.
Type III (25%) - Focal proliferative GN - renal failure is uncommon.
Type IV (40%) - Diffuse proliferative GN - renal failure is common.
Type V (10%) - Membranous GN - renal failure is uncommon.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Scleroderma - Target group:

A

Women - 35-50.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Types of scleroderma?

A
  1. Diffuse (20%).

2. Limited (80%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MC symptoms in scleroderma?

A

Raynaud’s - usually appears before other findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Scleroderma - Cutaneous fibrosis:

A
  1. Tightening of skin of the face and extremities - sclerodactyly refers to a claw-like appearance of the hand.
  2. Can lead to contractures, disability, and disfigurement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Scleroderma - GI involvement:

A
  1. Occurs in most patients - both diffuse and limited.
  2. Dysphagia/reflux (90%).
  3. Delayed gastric emptying.
  4. Constipation/Diarrhea.
  5. Abdominal distention.
  6. Pseudo-obstruction.
  7. Prolonged reflux may lead to esophageal strictures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Scleroderma - main difference between diffuse/limited?

A

Only diffuse has renal, lung, and heart involvement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Scleroderma - MCC of death:

A

Pulmonary involvement - Interstitial fibrosis and/or pulm. HTN may be present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Scleroderma - Cardiac involvement:

A
  1. Pericardial effusions.

2. Myocardial involvement, that can lead to CHF, arrythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Scleroderma - Renal involvement:

A
  1. Renal crisis - rapid malignant HTN.

2. Occurs in patients with diffuse scleroderma - rare today.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Scleroderma - What predicts prognosis?

A

Degree of skin involvement. Diffuse scleroderma has a worse prognosis than limited scleroderma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

DDx of Raynaud’s:

A
  1. Primary - no other disorder exists.
  2. Scleroderma
  3. SLE
  4. Mixed connective tissue disease.
  5. Vasculitis (Buerger’s disease).
  6. Certain medications (beta-blockers, nicotine, bleomycin).
  7. Disorders that disrupt blood flow or vessels, such as thromboangiitis obliterans.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome:

A

Hypercoagulable state that can be idiopathic or associated with SLE or other collagen vascular diseases such as scleroderma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome - Typical findings:

A
  1. Recurrent venous thrombosis - PE is a risk.
  2. Recurrent arterial thrombosis.
  3. Recurrent fetal loss (abortions).
  4. Thrombocytopenia.
  5. Livedo reticularis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome - Lab:

A
  1. Lupus anticoagulant
  2. Anticardiolipin antibody
  3. Prolonged PTT or PT is NOT corrected by adding normal plasma.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome - Treatment:

A

Long-term anticoagulation (INR 2.5-3.5).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Diffuse vs Limited scleroderma - Onset?

A

Diffuse –> Rapid onset - skin + other complications occur rapidly after onset of Raynaud’s.
Limited –> Delayed onset - skin involvement occurs slowly after the onset of Raynaud’s. Therefore the patient has a long history of Raynaud’s before other symptoms begin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Diffuse vs Limited scleroderma - Antibodies:

A

Diffuse –> Associated with ANAs but ABSENCE of anticentromere antibodies.
Limited –> Anticentromere antibody is found in most patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Diffuse vs limited scleroderma - Prognosis:

A

Diffuse –> Poorer prognosis - 10yr is 40-65%.

Limited –> Better prognosis - Normal lifespan is expected in most cases, unless severe pulmonary HTN develops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

CREST syndrome:

A
Variant of limited scleroderma:
C --> Calcinosis of the digits.
R --> Raynaud's.
E --> Esophageal dysmotility.
S --> Sclerodactyly.
T --> Telangiectases - over the digits and under the nails.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Antibody for the diffuse scleroderma:

A

Antitopoisomerase I (antiscleroderma-70) Ab is very specific for the diffuse form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Treatment of scleroderma:

A
  1. No effective cure.
  2. Treat symptoms –> NSAIDs for musculoskeletal pains, H2 blockers or PPIs for reflux.
  3. Raynaud’s –> Avoid cold and smoking - If severe, use CCBs.
  4. Treat pulmonary and renal complications if present.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Is Sjögren a multiorgan disease?

A

YES:

  1. Skin
  2. Lung
  3. Thyroid
  4. Vessels
  5. Liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Percentage of scleroderma patients that also have Sjögren:

A

20%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In patients with Sjögren search for occult?

A

Occult lymphoma - look for lymphadenopathy and HSM.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Primary vs Secondary Sjögren:

A

Primary is Sjögren alone.

Secondary is Sjögren + RA/SS/SLE/Polymyositis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Sjögren - MCC of death:

A

Patients have incr. risk for NHL. Malignancy is the MCC of death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Sjögren - Extraglandular features:

A

More common in primary disease:

  1. Chronic arthritis
  2. Interstitial nephritis
  3. Vasculitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Diagnosis of Sjögren - Antibodies:

A
  1. ANAs (95%).
  2. RF (50-75%) - SECONDARY disease.
  3. Ro (SS-A) in 55%.
  4. La (SS-B) in 40%.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Diagnosis of Sjögren - Schirmer test:

A

Filter paper inserted in eye to measure lacrimal gland output - degree of wetting in a specified time period - HIGH sensitivity + specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Diagnosis of Sjögren - Salivary gland biopsy?

A

Lip or parotid - MOST accurate, BUT NOT needed for diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Treatment of Sjögren:

A
  1. Pilocarpine or Cevimeline - enhance oral and ocular secretions.
  2. Artificial tears for dry eyes.
  3. Good oral hygiene.
  4. NSAIDs, steroids for arthralgias , arthritis.
  5. Secondary Sjögren –> Therapy for the connective tissue disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Patients with antibodies to Ro (SS-A) are at incr. risk of having a child with…?

A

Neonatal SLE - Congenital heart block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease:

A

Overlap syndrome:

Features similar to those of SLE, RA, SS, Polymyositis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Mixed connective tissue disease - Features:

A
  1. Pulmonary involvement
  2. Esophageal dysfunction
  3. Polyarthritis
  4. Sclerodactyly
  5. Cutaneous manifestations
  6. Myopathy
  7. Raynaud’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Key lab in mixed connective tissue disease?

A

Anti-U1-RNP antibody.

High ANA + RF may be present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is RA?

A

Chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease INVOLVING THE SYNOVIUM OF JOINTS.
The inflamed synovium can cause damage to cartilage and bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

RA target group:

A

20-40 WOMEN 3:1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

RA etiology:

A

Uncertain –> By an infection or a series of infections (most likely viral), but genetic predisposition is essential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

RA is unlikely if:

A
  1. Joint distribution is NOT symmetric.
  2. DIP is involved.
  3. Constitutional symptoms (esp. morning stiffness) are absent.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Why is early treatment with DMARDs critical in RA?

A

Much of the joint damage that ultimately leads to disability occurs early in the course of the disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Clinical course of RA - 4 CLASSES:

A

10% –> Acute attack, which subsides, and never attacks again.
20% –> Undulating course - exacerbations and remissions.
65% –> Periods of exacerbations and “remissions” - “remissions” are really improvements - patients ALWAYS symptomatic to some extent.
5% –> Severe, progressive course.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

RA - Cutaneous manifestations:

A
  1. Skin becomes thin and atrophic - bruises easily.
  2. Vasculitic changes/ulcerations involving fingers, nail folds.
  3. Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules (elbows, sacrum, occiput) –> Pathognomonic for RA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

RA - Pulmonary symptoms:

A
  1. Pleural effusions - very common. Pleural fluid characteristically has very LOW GLUCOSE + LOW complement.
  2. Pulm. fibrosis.
  3. Pulm. infiltrates.
  4. Rheumatic nodules in lungs (similar to those on skin) - can cavitate or become infected.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

RA - Cardiac symptoms:

A
  1. Rheumatic nodules - can lead to conduction disturbances (heart block and BBB).
  2. Pericarditis - in 40% of patients with RA.
  3. Pericardial effusion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

RA - Eyes symptoms:

A
  1. Scleritis
  2. Scleromalacia - may perforate, leading to blindness.
  3. Dry eyes (and dry mucous membranes in general) –> May develop Sjögren.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

RA - Nervous system symptoms:

A
  1. Mononeuritic complex - infarction of nerve trunk.

2. Patient cannot move the arm or leg - implies systemic vasculitis, which is a bad sign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Felty’s syndrome - Features:

A
  1. Triad of RA + Neutropenia + Splenomegaly.
  2. Also anemia, thrombocytopenia, lymphadenopathy.
  3. High RF + Extra-articular disease.
  4. Incr. susceptibility to infection.
  5. Usually occurs fairly LATE in the disease process.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

RA - Blood:

A
  1. Anemia of chronic disease - mild, normocytic, normochromic.
  2. Thrombocytosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

RA - Vasculitis symptoms:

A
  1. Microvascular vasculitis - can progress to mesenteric vasculitis, PAN, or other vascular syndromes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

RA - Cervical spine involvement:

A

Is common –> C1-C2 subluxation and instability, but is less common in the lower cervical spine.
–> Potentially, life-threatening complication of RA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Percentage of RA patients with cervical spine involvement:

A

30-40%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What has dramatically reduced the need for cervical spine surgery in RA patients?

A

DMARDs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Poor prognostic indicators in RA:

A
  1. High RF
  2. Subcutaneous nodules
  3. Erosive arthritis
  4. Autoantibodies to RF.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules - where to find?

A
  1. Over extensor surfaces, may also occur in visceral structures, eg. lungs, pleura, pericardium.
  2. Pathognomonic for RA.
  3. Nearly ALWAYS in seropositive patients - RF(+).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Is RF useful for following the RA patients?

A

NO - Does not change with disease activity.

Helpful ONLY in determining PROGNOSIS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

ACPA in RA diagnosis?

A

Sensitivity is 50% to 75%, specificity over 90%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Diagnosis of RA - Criteria:

A
  1. Inflammatory arthritis of 3 or more joints - MCP, PIP, wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, MIP.
  2. Symptoms lasting at LEAST 6 WEEKS.
  3. UP CRP, ESR.
  4. RF(+) or ACPA(+).
  5. Radiographic changes consistent with RA - Erosions and periarticular decalcification.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Does synovial fluid analysis help in RA?

A

NON specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Juvenile RA:

A
  1. Begins before 18yrs of age.
  2. Extra-articular manifestations may predominate - Still’s disease.
  3. Or arthritis may predominate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

First line agents for RA:

A

Methotrexate - best initial DMARD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Methotrexate in RA - When do we see improvement?

A

In 4-6 weeks. Nearly 80% of treated patients will experience moderate-to-excellent symptomatic benefit from treatment - remission is RARE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Methotrexate - Side effects:

A
  1. GI upset.
  2. Oral ulcers (stomatitis)
  3. Mild alopecia
  4. Bone marrow suppression
  5. Hepatocellular injury.
  6. Idiosyncratic interstitial pneumonitis –> Pulm. fibrosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

In RA patients treated with methotrexate, what should be closely monitored?

A

Liver and renal function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What should supplement RA treatment with methotrexate?

A

Folate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Alternative to methotrexate treatment in RA?

A

Leflunomide - same efficacy as methotrexate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Alternative first line agent, but not so effective as methotrexate?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Hydroxychloroquine therapy in RA requires what control?

A

Eye examination every 6 months because of the risk of visual loss due to retinopathy - although quite rare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

When do we use anti-TNF agents (etanercept, infliximab)?

A

If methotrexate does not fully control the disease.

109
Q

What is gout?

A

Inflammatory monoarthritis caused by crystallization of monosodium urate in joints.

110
Q

Hallmark of gout:

A

Hyperuricemia

111
Q

Gout - Target group:

A

Men over 30 (90%). Women NOT affected until after menopause.

112
Q

Pathogenesis of gout:

A
  1. Incr. production of urate.

2. Decr. excretion of urate (90% of cases).

113
Q

Incr. production of urate - etiology:

A
  1. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase deficiency - Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
  2. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase overactivity.
  3. Incr. cell turnover.
114
Q

Decr. excretion of urate - etiology:

A
  1. Renal disease
  2. NSAIDs
  3. Diuretics
  4. Acidosis
115
Q

Inflammatory cells in gout?

A

PMNs play a key role –> IgGs coat monosodium urate crystals, which are phagocytized by PMNs –> release of inflammatory mediators + proteolytic enzymes from the PMNs –> Inflammation.

116
Q

Gout - Common sites of involvement:

A
  1. 1st MTP.
  2. Midfoot
  3. Ankle
  4. Knee
117
Q

4 stages of gout:

A
  1. Asymptomatic hyperuricemia
  2. Acute gouty arthritis
  3. Intercritical gout
  4. Chronic tophaceous gout
118
Q

Asymptomatic hyperuricemia - Features:

A
  1. Incr. serum urate in the absence of clinical findings of gout, may be present without symptoms for 10-20yrs.
  2. Should NOT be treated because OVER 95% remain asymptomatic.
119
Q

Acute gouty arthritis - Peak age?

A

Onset is 40-60 yrs of age for men.

120
Q

Acute gouty arthritis - initial attack?

A

Usually involves one joint of the lower extremity.

  1. Sudden onset of exquisite pain - the patient may be unable to tolerate a bed sheet on affected joint. Pain often WAKES PATIENT FROM SLEEP.
  2. Most often affects the big toe - the 1st metatarsophalangeal joint (podagra). Other common joints affected are the ankles and knees.
121
Q

What is the intercritical gout?

A

Asymptomatic period after the initial attack. The patient may not have another attack for years.

122
Q

Intercritical gout - Percentage of recurrence within 1 yr?

A

60%. Fewer than 10% NEVER have another attack of gout.

123
Q

Percentage of likelihood of a 2nd attack within the first 2 years?

A

75%.

124
Q

Chronic tophaceous gout - When?

A

In people who have had poorly controlled gout for more than 10-20yrs.

125
Q

Tophi:

A
  1. Aggregations of urate crystals surrounded by giant cells in an inflammatory reaction.
  2. Seen only after several attacks of acute gout.
  3. Noted after an average of 10yrs following the initial attack.
126
Q

Common locations of tophi:

A
  1. Extensor surface of forearms
  2. Elbows
  3. Knees
  4. Achilles tendon
  5. Pinna of the external ear
127
Q

Precipitants of an acute gouty attack:

A
  1. Decr. in temperature.
  2. Dehydration.
  3. Stress (emotional or physical).
  4. Excessive alcohol intake.
  5. Starvation
128
Q

If untreated, how long does an acute gouty attack last?

A

7 to 10 days and then resolves.

Severe episodes may last longer.

129
Q

Gout - Only way to make definitive diagnosis:

A

Joint aspiration and synovial fluid analysis (under a polarizing microscope) is the only way to make a definitive diagnosis.

130
Q

Gout crystals:

A

Needle-shaped and NEGATIVELY birefringent urate crystals appear in synovial fluid.

131
Q

Gout diagnosis - Is serum urate helpful?

A

Not helpful in diagnosis because it can be normal even during an acute gouty attack.

132
Q

Gout diagnosis - Radiographs:

A

Reveal punched-out erosions with an overhanging rim of cortical bone.

133
Q

Gout diagnosis - Why should a gram stain and a culture of the synovial fluid be done?

A

To rule out septic arthritis - which is the most worrisome diagnosis on the differential list.

134
Q

Complications of gout:

A
  1. Nephrolithiasis - risk is small (<15% of patients.
135
Q

Treatment of gout:

A

In ALL stages, avoid secondary causes of hyperuricemia.

136
Q

How to avoid secondary causes of hyperuricemia:

A
  1. Avoid medications that incr. urate levels (thiazides, loops).
  2. Obesity
  3. Reduce alcohol.
  4. Reduce dietary purine intake. Limit intake of seafood/red meat.
137
Q

Treatment of acute gout:

A
  1. Bed rest is important.
  2. NSAIDs.
  3. Colchicine.
  4. Corticosteroids.
138
Q

What should be avoided in acute gout?

A
  1. Aspirin - can aggravate the problem.

2. Acetaminophen - has no anti-inflammatory properties.

139
Q

Acute gout - Treatment of choice:

A

NSAIDs - Indomethacin is usually used, but other NSAIDs are effective.

140
Q

Problems with colchicine:

A

Effective but less favored because 80% of treated –> significant nausea/vomiting, abdominal cramps, and severe diarrhea.
Compliance tends to be low due to these side effects.

141
Q

Colchicine - where is it contraindicated?

A

In renal insufficiency and cytopenia.

142
Q

When do we give corticosteroids in acute gout?

A
Oral prednisone (7-10d course) if patient does NOT respond to or cannot tolerate NSAIDs and colchicine.
--> Intra-articular corticosteroid injections (if only one joint is involved) - dramatic relief of symptoms.
143
Q

Pseudogout:

A

Calcium PYROPHOSPHATE crystals deposit in joints –> inflammation.

144
Q

Pseudogout - Risk factors:

A
  1. Deposition increases with age + with OA of the joints –> Common in elderly.
  2. Other conditions that may increase crystal deposition –> Hemochromatosis/Hyperparathyroidism/Hypothyroidism/Bartter’s syndrome.
145
Q

Pseudogout - MC joints affected:

A
  1. Knees

2. Wrists

146
Q

Pseudogout - presentation:

A
  1. Classically monoarticular, but can also be polyarticular as well.
  2. Presentation similar to gout, but typically occurs in larger joints (knee).
147
Q

Pseudogout - Diagnosis:

A

Joint aspirate is required for definitive diagnosis - weakly positively birefringent, rod-shaped and rhomboidal crystals in synovial fluid (calcium pyrophosphate crystals).

148
Q

Pseudogout - Radiographs:

A

Chondrocalcinosis - cartilage calcification.

149
Q

Pseudogout - Treatment:

A
  1. Treat the underlying disorder (if identified).
  2. Symptomatic management like gout (NSAIDs, colchicine, intra-articular steroid injections).
  3. Total joint replacement is appropriate if symptoms are debilitating.
150
Q

Difference between polymyositis and dermatomyositis:

A

Polymyositis - term is used when the condition does not involve the skin (usually occurs in adults).
Dermatomyositis - Polymyositis associated with a characteristic skin rash.

151
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Classification:

A
  1. Polymyositis
  2. Dermatomyositis
  3. Childhood onset dermatomyositis - subcutaneous calcifications.
  4. Myositis associated with collagen vascular disease.
  5. Myositis associated with malignancy.
  6. Inclusion body myositis
152
Q

Inclusion body myositis - “Oddball” because?

A
  1. Affects male patients more than female.
  2. Absence of autoantibodies.
  3. Distal muscle involvement.
  4. Relatively low CK.
153
Q

Inclusion body myositis - Prognosis:

A

Poor.

154
Q

Diagnostic criteria in polymyositis:

A
  1. Symmetrical proximal muscle involvement.
  2. Elevation in serum CPK.
  3. EMG findings of a myopathy.
  4. Biopsy evidence of myositis.
  5. Characteristic rash of dermatomyositis.
155
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Etiology:

A

Hypothesis –> Genetically susceptible individual plus an environmental trigger leads to immune activation, which results in chronic inflammation.

156
Q

Pathologic changes in muscle - Polymyositis/Dermatomyositis:

A

Dermatomyositis –> Humoral immune mechanisms.

Polymyositis + inclusion body myositis –> Cell mediated process.

157
Q

Features common to both polymyositis and dermatomyositis:

A
  1. Symmetrical proximal muscle weakness that develops subacutely over weeks or several months.
  2. Myalgia in 33%.
  3. Dysphagia in up to 30% - esophageal muscles.
158
Q

Features unique to dermatomyositis:

A
  1. Heliotrope rash (butterfly).
  2. Gottron’s papules –> over the knuckles (MCP, PIP, DIP).
  3. V sign - rash on the face, neck, and anterior chest.
  4. Shawl sign - rash on shoulders, upper back, elbows, and knees.
  5. Periungual erythema and telangiectases.
  6. Subcutaneous calcifications in children - can be extremely painful.
159
Q

Associated findings in BOTH polymyositis and dermatomyositis:

A
  1. Arthralgias (common).
  2. CHF and conduction defects (rare).
  3. Interstitial lung disease (in minority of patients).
160
Q

Associated findings in dermatomyositis ONLY:

A
  1. Vasculitis of the GI, kidneys, lungs, eyes (more common in children).
  2. Incr. incidence of malignancy in older adults (lung, breast, ovary, GI, myeloproliferative disorders).
  3. Make an effort to uncover OCCULT MALIGNANCY. Dermatomyositis associated with malignancy often remits once the tumor is removed!!!
161
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Diagnosis - Lab CK:

A

Significantly elevated - corresponds to the degree of muscle necrosis, so one can monitor the disease severity.

162
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Other lab results:

A

Elevated:

LDH, aldolase, AST, ALT.

163
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - ANA:

A

In over 50%.

164
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Antibodies:

A

Antisynthetase antibodies (anti-Jo-1 antibodies) - abrupt onset of fever, cracked hands, Raynaud’s, interstitial lung disease, arthritis - does NOT respond well to therapy.

165
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Antisignal recognition particle:

A
  1. Cardiac manifestations (common).

2. Worst prognosis of ALL subsets.

166
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Anti-Mi-2 antibodies:

A

Better prognosis.

167
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - EMG:

A

Abnormal in 90% of patients.

168
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Muscle biopsy:

A
  1. Shows inflammation and muscle fiber fibrosis in ALL THREE.
  2. Dermatomyositis - Perivascular + Perimysial.
  3. Polymyositis + Inclusion body myositis - Endomysial.
169
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathies - Treatment:

A
  1. Corticosteroids - initial treatment.
  2. Immunosuppression - methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil.
  3. Physical therapy.
170
Q

Important point about corticosteroids in idiopathic inflammatory myopathies treatment:

A

Continue until symptoms improve, and then taper very slowly (up to 2 years may be necessary).

171
Q

Inclusion body myositis - more common in men or women?

A

Men (eldelry).

172
Q

Why is diagnosis of inclusion body myositis often delayed?

A

Insidious onset of slowly progressive proximal + distal weakness, often leads to delay in diagnosis.

173
Q

Inclusion body myositis - Early weakness + atrophy of?

A
  1. Quadriceps
  2. Forearm flexors
  3. Tibialis anterior muscles.
    ASYMMETRICAL INVOLVEMENT.
174
Q

Inclusion body myositis - Deep tendon reflexes:

A

Loss of deep tendon reflexes - Nerves are NOT involved in polymyositis and dermatomyositis.

175
Q

Lab in inclusion body myositis:

A

Slight elevation of CK (relatively low).

176
Q

Inclusion body myositis - response to therapy:

A

Poor response to therapy.

177
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica - Target:

A

Usually in elderly patients (rare before 50). Mean age of onset is 70.
More common in WOMEN.

178
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica - Etiology:

A

Unknown - autoimmune may be responsible - Possible link with HLA-DR4.

179
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica - Course:

A

Self-limited disease - duration of 1-2yrs.

180
Q

Relationship of polymyalgia rheumatica with temporal arteritis:

A

About 10% of PR develop temporal arteritis.

Whereas up to 40-50% of TA have co-existing polymyalgia rheumatica.

181
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica - Clinical features:

A
  1. Hip and shoulder muscle pain - BILATERAL.
  2. Constitutional symptoms.
  3. Joint swelling.
  4. Signs and symptoms of temporal arteritis.
182
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica - Diagnosis:

A
  1. A clinical diagnosis.
  2. ESR is usually elevated and aids in diagnosis. Almost always >50, frequently >100 –> Correlates with disease activity.
183
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica - treatment:

A

Corticosteroids

184
Q

PR - response to corticosteroids:

A

Usually within 1-7days. Not curative, but are effective in suppressing inflammation until the disease resolves itself.

185
Q

PR - Corticosteroids - when to begin to taper slowly?

A

After 4-6wks.

186
Q

Fibromyalgia - Target:

A

Adult women account for 80-90% of cases.

187
Q

Fibromyalgia - Course:

A

Chronic NON progressive course with waxing and waning in severity - many patients improve with time.

188
Q

Fibromyalgia - Key to diagnosis:

A

Multiple trigger points - points that are tender to palpation.
Symmetrical.
18 characteristic locations have been identified - occiput, neck, shoulder, ribs, elbows, buttocks, and knees.

189
Q

Fibromyalgia - Etiology:

A

Unknown - somatization is not a proven cause.

190
Q

Fibromyalgia - Clinical features:

A
  1. Stiffness, body aches (musculoskeletal), fatigue.
  2. Pain is constant, worse in the morning.
  3. Rest, warmth, and mild exercise improve the pain.
  4. Sleep patterns are disrupted, and sleep is unrefreshing.
  5. Anxiety and depression are common.
191
Q

Fibromyalgia - Diagnostic criteria:

A
  1. Widespread pain including axial pain for at least 3 months.
  2. Pain in at least 11/18 possible tender point sites.
192
Q

Fibromyalgia - Before confirming the diagnosis, what should be ruled out first?

A
  1. Myofascial syndromes.
  2. Rheumatoid disease.
  3. Polymyalgia rheumatica.
  4. Ankylosing spondylitis.
  5. Spondyloarthropathy.
  6. Chronic fatigue syndrome.
  7. Lyme.
  8. Hypothyroidism.
  9. Polymyositis.
  10. Depression.
  11. Somatization disorder.
  12. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy.
193
Q

Fibromyalgia - Treatment:

A
  1. Advise patient to stay active and productive.
  2. Medications are generally NOT effective.
  3. SSRIs and TCAs have shown some effect and may be beneficial. Avoid narcotics.
  4. Cognitive-behavioral therapy, exercise, consider psychiatric evaluation.
194
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - More common in men or women?

A

3x more common in MEN.

195
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis - Look for history of:

A
  1. Ank. Spondylitis
  2. IBD
  3. Psoriasis
196
Q

Ank. Spondylitis - Prerequisite for making the diagnosis:

A

Bilateral sacroiliitis.

197
Q

Ank. spondylitis - course:

A
  1. Highly variable - acute exacerbations are common.
  2. Life expectancy is usually normal.
  3. The first 10yrs of the disease can give an indication of long term severity.
198
Q

Low back pain and stiffness in ank. spondylitis:

A

Worse in the morning and better as the day progresses.

Improve with exercise and a hot shower and worsen with rest or inactivity.

199
Q

Enthesitis in ank. spondylitis:

A

Inflammation at tendinous insertions into bone (Achilles tendon and supraspinatus tendon).

200
Q

MC extra-articular involvement:

A

Eye involvement - acute anterior uveitis or iridocyclitis.

201
Q

Ank. spondylitis - Diagnosis:

A
  1. Imaging studies of lumbar spine and pelvis (plain film, CT, MRI) –> sacroiliitis - Sclerotic changes in the sacroiliac area.
  2. Eventually the vertebral columns fuse, producing “bamboo” spine.
202
Q

Ank. spondylitis - HLA-B27 is necessary for diagnosis?

A

No - Present in 8% of general population.

203
Q

Major complications of ank.spondylitis:

A
  1. Restrictive lung disease.
  2. Cauda equina syndrome.
  3. Spine fracture with spinal cord injury.
  4. Osteoporosis.
  5. Spondylodiscitis.
204
Q

Ank. spondylitis - Treatment:

A
  1. NSAIDs (indomethacin) for symptomatic relief.
  2. Anti-TNF (etanercept, infliximab).
  3. Physical therapy - maintaining good posture.
205
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies :

A
  1. AS
  2. Reactive arthritis (and Reiter’s).
  3. Psoriatic arthritis.
  4. Arthropathy of IBD.
  5. Undifferentiated spondyloarthropathies.
206
Q

Seronegative spondyloarthropathies have the following in common:

A
  1. RF (-).
  2. Strong association with HLA-B27.
  3. Oligoarthritis (asymmetrical).
  4. Enthesitis - infl. at sites of insertion of fascia, ligament, or tendon to bone.
  5. Infl. arthritis - axial and sacroiliac joints.
  6. Extra-auricular features - eyes, skin, GUT.
  7. Familial predisposition.
207
Q

Causes of joint pain - POLYarticular :

A
  1. RA
  2. SLE
  3. Viral arthritis
  4. Reiter’s
  5. Rheumatic fever
  6. Lyme
  7. Gonococcal arthritis
  8. Drug-induced
208
Q

Causes of joint pain - MONOarticular joint pain:

A
  1. Osteoarthritis
  2. Gout
  3. Pseudogout
  4. Trauma
  5. Septic arthritis
  6. Hemarthrosis
209
Q

Reactive arthritis - General presentation:

A
  1. Asymmetric infl. OLIGOarthritis of LOWER extremities (upper are less common).
  2. Preceded by an infectious process that is remote from the site of arthritis (1-4wks prior).
  3. Mostly in HLA-B27 individuals.
210
Q

Reiter’s:

A

An example of reactive arthritis, but most patients do NOT have the classical findings of Reiter’s, so the term reactive arthritis is now used.

211
Q

Organisms associated with reactive arthritis:

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. Shigella
  3. Campylobacter
  4. Chlamydia
  5. Yersinia
212
Q

Reactive arthritis is a clinical diagnosis?

A

YES - If any patient presents with acute asymmetric arthritis progressing sequentially from one joint to another, reactive arthritis should be in the DDX.

213
Q

Reiter’s syndrome - Classic triad:

A
  1. Arthritis
  2. Urethritis
  3. Ocular inflammation (conjunctivitis or anterior uveitis).
    Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree.
214
Q

When do we use the term “undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy”?

A

When a patient has features of reactive arthritis but there is no evidence of previous infection (in the GI or GUT) + THE CLASSIC FINDINGS OF REITER’S are ABSENT.

215
Q

Diagnosis of reactive arthritis:

A

Send synovial fluid for analysis - to rule out infection or crystals.

216
Q

Reactive arthritis - Treatment:

A
  1. NSAIDs are 1st line therapy.
  2. If no response, try sulfasalazine + immunosuppressive agents such as azathioprine.
  3. Antibiotic use is controversial - usually NOT given.
217
Q

Psoriatic arthritis - target:

A

<10% of patients with psoriasis.

218
Q

Psoriatic arthritis - Onset:

A

Typically gradual in onset - Patients usually have skin disease for months to yrs before arthritis develops.

219
Q

Psoriatic arthritis - Sites:

A

Usually asymmetric and POLYarticular.

UPPER EXTREMITIES most often involved, smaller joints more common than large joints.

220
Q

Psoriatic arthritis - Treatment:

A

Initial treatment is NSAIDs, but persistent arthritis may require drugs used to treat RA.

221
Q

Giant cell arteritis - General features:

A
  1. Unknown cause.

2. >50 woman.

222
Q

Giant cell arteritis - incr. risk for:

A
  1. Aortic aneurysm

2. Aortic dissection

223
Q

Giant cell arteritis - Clinical features:

A
  1. Constitutional symptoms.
  2. Headaches - may be severe.
  3. Visual impairment (25-50%).
  4. Jaw claudication.
  5. Absent temporal pulse + tenderness over temporal artery.
224
Q

40% of giant cell arteritis patients also have?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

225
Q

Giant cell arteritis - Diagnosis:

A
  1. ESR up.

2. Biopsy of the temporal artery has a sensitivity of 90%. A single negative biopsy does NOT exclude diagnosis.

226
Q

Keys to diagnosing temporal arteritis:

A
  1. Age >50.
  2. New headache.
  3. Tender/palpable temporal artery.
  4. High ESR.
  5. Jaw claudication.
227
Q

If temporal arteritis is suspected, what should be done?

A

Begin prednisone and order a temporal artery biopsy.

228
Q

Takayasu’s arteritis - General features:

A
  1. Young Asian women.
  2. Vasculitis of the aortic arch and its major branches - potentially leading to stenosis or narrowing of vessels.
  3. Diagnosed by arteriogram.
229
Q

Takayasu’s arteritis - clinical features:

A
  1. Constitutional symptoms.
  2. Pain and tenderness over involved vessels.
  3. Absent pulses in carotid, radial, or ulnar arteries.
  4. Signs and symptoms of ischemia.
230
Q

Severe complications in Takayasu:

A
  1. Limb ischemia
  2. Aortic aneurysms
  3. Aortic regurgitation
  4. Stroke
  5. Secondary HTN.
    Main PROGNOSTIC predictor is the presence or absence of these complications.
231
Q

Takayasu arteritis - Treatment:

A
  1. Steroids may relieve symptoms.
  2. Treat HTN.
  3. Surgery or angioplasty may be required to recannulate stenosed vessels. Sometimes bypass grafting.
232
Q

Suspect Takayasu in a young woman with:

A
  1. Decr./absent peripheral pulsies.
  2. Discrepancies of BP (arm vs leg).
  3. Arterial bruits.
233
Q

Churg-Strauss - General:

A

Vasculitis involving:

  1. Respiratory
  2. Heart
  3. GI
  4. Skin
  5. Renal
  6. Neurologic
234
Q

Churg-Strauss - Clinical features:

A
  1. Constitutional findings.
  2. Prominent respiratory tract findings - asthma, dyspnea.
  3. Skin lesions –> subcutaneous lesions, palpable purpura.
235
Q

Churg-Strauss - diagnosis:

A
  1. Made by biopsy of lung or skin tissue - prominence of EOSINOPHILS.
  2. p-ANCA
236
Q

Churg-Strauss - prognosis:

A

5-yr survival of 25%. With steroids –> 50%.

Death due to cardiac/respiratory complications.

237
Q

Wegener granulomatosis - Clinical features:

A
  1. Upper respiratory symptoms - sinusitis, purulent or bloody nasal discharge.
  2. Oral ulcers (may be painful).
  3. Pulmonary symptoms - couch, hemoptysis, dyspnea.
  4. Renal involvement - GN - may have rapidly progressing renal failure.
  5. Eye - conjunctivitis, scleritis.
238
Q

Wegener - Musculoskeletal:

A

Myalgias + arthralgias.

239
Q

Wegener - Trachea involvement:

A

Tracheal stenosis.

240
Q

Wegener - Patients die from?

A

Renal disease.

241
Q

Wegener - Diagnosis:

A
  1. Chest radiograph is ABnormal (nodules or infiltrates).
  2. Anemia, hematuria.
  3. c-ANCA (90% of patients).
242
Q

Wegener - What does confirm the diagnosis?

A

Open lung biopsy.

243
Q

Wegener prognosis:

A

Poor - most patients die within 1 yr after the diagnosis.

244
Q

Wegener treatment:

A

Cyclophosphamide + corticosteroids can induce remissions in many patients, but a relapse may occur at any time.

245
Q

Wegener with ESRD:

A

Consider renal transplantation.

246
Q

Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) - General:

A

Vasculitis of medium-sized vessels involving the nervous system and GIT. Spares the LUNG.

247
Q

PAN - Associations:

A
  1. Hep B
  2. HIV
  3. Drug reactions
248
Q

PAN - Pathophysiology:

A

PMN invasion of all layers and fibrinoid necrosis + resulting intimal proliferation lead to reduced luminal area, which results in ischemia, infarction, and aneurysms.

249
Q

PAN - Clinical features - Early symptoms:

A
  1. Fever
  2. Weakness
  3. Weight loss
  4. Myalgias/Arthralgias
  5. Abdominal pain - Bowel angina.
250
Q

PAN - Other findings:

A
  1. HTN
  2. Mononeuritic multiplex
  3. Livedo reticularis
251
Q

PAN - Diagnosis:

A
  1. Biopsy of involved tissue or mesenteric angiography.
  2. ESR up, p-ANCA may be present.
  3. Test for fecal occult blood.
252
Q

PAN - Prognosis:

A

Poor, but is improved to a limited extent with treatment.

253
Q

PAN - Treatment:

A

Corticosteroids. If severe, add cyclophosphamide.

254
Q

Behcet’s syndrome - what is it?

A

Autoimmune, multisystem, vasculitic disease - unknown cause.

255
Q

Behcet - Clinical features:

A
  1. Recurrent oral and genital ulcerations (usually painful).
  2. Arthritis - knees and ankles most common.
  3. Eye involvement - Uveitis, optic neuritis, iritis, conjunctivitis.
  4. CNS - Meningoencephalitis, intracranial HTN.
  5. Fever and weight loss.
256
Q

Behcet - Diagnosis:

A

It is made by biopsy of involved tissue (lab tests are NOT helpful).

257
Q

Behcet - Treatment:

A

Steroids - which are helpful.

258
Q

Buerger’s - Target:

A

Young men who smoke cigarettes.

259
Q

Buerger’s disease - Pathogenesis:

A

Acute inflammation of small- and medium-sized arteries and veins, affecting arms and legs.

260
Q

Buerger’s - complication:

A

Gangrene

261
Q

Buerger’s - Clinical features:

A
  1. Ischemic claudication.
  2. Cold, cyanotic, painful distal extremities.
  3. Paresthesias of distal extremities.
  4. Ulcerations of digits.
262
Q

Buerger’s - Mandatory to reduce progression?

A

Smoking cessation.

263
Q

Hypersensitivity vasculitis - What is it?

A

Small-vessel vasculitis that is a hypersensitivity reaction in response to a drug (penicillin, sulfa drugs), infection, or other stimulus.

264
Q

Hypersensitivity vasculitis - What is predominantly involved?

A

Skin - palpable purpura, macules, or vesicles (common on lower extremities) can occur. Lesions can be painful.

265
Q

Hypersen. vasculitis - Diagnosis:

A

By biopsy of tissue.

266
Q

Hypersen. vasculitis - prognosis:

A

Very good - spontaneous remissions are common.

267
Q

Hypersen. vasculitis - Treatment?

A

Withdrawal of the offending agent and steroids are the treatments of choice.

268
Q

In general, what does the pathophysiology of SLE involve?

A
  1. Autoantibody production.
  2. Deposition of immune complexes.
  3. Complement activation.
  4. Accompanying tissue destruction/vasculitis.