Emergency Medicine: Pretest

Question 1

What is the best method of diagnosing corneal abrasions?

Answer 1

Slit-lamp examination by observing fluorescein uptake in the area of the defect

Patients wearing contact lenses should be treated with topical antibiotics with antipseudomonal coverage.

Question 2

Any patient presenting to the emergency department in the second or third trimester of pregnancy with bleeding should have ultrasound performed before pelvic examination to rule out what?

Answer 2

Placenta previa

Placenta previa is a contraindication to digital examination of the cervix, as placental trauma from the examination itself can lead to prfuse vaginal bleeding.

Question 3

What is the best method of diagnosing benign positional vertigo?

Answer 3

Dix-Hallpike maneuver

The maneuver involves having the patient go from sitting to a supine position with eyes open and head rotated to the affected side. The test is positive if the maneuver reproduces vertigo and the patient exhibits latent rotary nystagmus.

Question 4

What intracompartmental pressure measured with a Stryker device is considered diagnostic of compartment syndrome?

Answer 4

> 30mmHg

The presence of a pulse does not rule out compartment syndrome. The only way to diagnose compartment syndrome is to measure intracompartmental pressure with a Stryker device.

Question 5

Altered mental status, hyperthermia, and muscle rigidity make up the classic triad for what condition?

Answer 5

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)

This is a rare, but fatal reaction commonly associated with the use of antipsychotics. The cornerstone of treatment is supportive care with rapid cooling, fluid and electrolyte repletion, and monitoring. Dantrolene, a nonspecific skeletal muscle relaxant, generally used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia, is also effective for NMS.

Question 6

Which street drug can cause significant hyponatremia?

Answer 6

3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA)

It is a potent stimulus for serotonin release which results in the excessive release of vasopressin (ADH). This combined with large free-water intake (increased thirst), and increased sodium loss from physical exertion (dancing) result in hyponatremia.

Question 7

All patients with chest pain and shortness of breath should recieve what test?

Answer 7

Electrocardiogram (ECG)

It is a quick, noninvasive test that often provides substantive information.

Question 8

What is the appropriate management of a patient who presents after exposing an eye to superglue?

Answer 8

Application of large amounts of erythromycin gel in the eye

This lubricates the eye and prevents the abrasive effect.

Question 9

What is the first-line therapy for patients with stable supraventricular tachycardia?

Answer 9

Adenosine

It is safe and effective and has a short half-life. It blocks conduction at the atrioventricular node leading to a brief period of asystole, which can be very disconcerting to those recieving or administering the medication.

Question 10

Which medication is notorious for causeing seizures that are refractory to standard therapy?

Answer 10

Isoniazid

Pyridoxine (vitamin B₆) is the treatment of choice.

Question 11

What has proven effective for both prophylaxis and treatment of acute mountain sickness?

Answer 11

Acetazolamide

Supplemental oxygen and a descent of 1500 to 3000 feet will reverse high-altitude sickness in most cases. Nausea and vomiting can also be treated symptomatically. Hyperbaric oxygen is indicated in severe cases.

Question 12

What must happen for “flail chest” to occur?

Answer 12

Fracture of 3 or more adjacent ribs at two points

Question 13

What is the most common cause of arrest in children?

Answer 13

Respiratory

Question 14

What is the most useful diagnostic test in a patient suspected to have a spinal epidural abscess?

Answer 14

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Question 15

Respiratory depression with apnea, interrupted by periods of agitation and combativeness (especially following attempts at intubation) are a distinctive feature of intoxication with which substance?

Answer 15

Gamma-hdroxybutyrate (GHB)

GHB is a natural neurotransmitter that induces sleep. It has been sold as a muscle builder (sleep increases release of growth hormone), a diet aid, and a sleep aid. Patients with GHB overdose generally have a decreased level of consciousness. In contrast to other sedative/hynotic overdoses, the level of consciousness tends to fluctuate quickly between agitation and depression.

Question 16

Which organ is most commonly injured as a result of blunt abdominal trauma?

Answer 16

Spleen

In approximately 66% of cases, it is the only damaged intraperitoneal organ. The liver is the second most commonly injured organ.

Question 17

Brown-Sequard syndrome (hemisection of the spinal cord) results in what symptoms?

Answer 17

1. Ipsilateral motor paralysis
2. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature

Question 18

What is the treatment for post-lumbar puncture headache?

Answer 18

A blood patch

This is done by injecting an aliquot of the patient’s blood in a sterile fashion just external to the dura mater at the same interspace where the LP occurred.

Question 19

Which toxic alcohol does not cause metabolic acidosis?

Answer 19

Isopropyl alcohol

This is because it is metabolized to acetone, a ketone, not an acid. Isopropyl alcohol intoxication is often remembered by “ketosis without acidosis.” Another unique finding is the presence of “pseudo renal failure” or isolated false elevation of creatinine with a normal BUN. This results from interference of acetone and acetoacetate by the colorimetric method used to measure the creatinine level.

Question 20

What are the two main therapeutic agents in treating hepatic encephalopathy?

Answer 20

Lactulose and neomycin

Serum ammonia level is usually elevated in hepatic encephalopaty. Lactulose is a poorly absorbed sugar metabolized by colonic bacteria that traps ammonia and helps excrete it in the stool. Neomycin is a poorly absorbed aminoglycoside that is believed to act by reducing colonic bacteria responsible for producing ammonia.

Question 21

Which medication is the most effective and most rapid means of reducing preload in a patient with congestive heart failure?

Answer 21

Nitroglycerin

Nitrates decrease myocardial preload and, to a lesser extent, afterload. Nitrates increase venous capacitance, including venous pooling, which decreases preload and myocardial oxygen demand. It is most beneficial when the patient who presents with congestive heart failure is also hypertensive. It is administered sublingually, intravenously, or transdermally. By contrast, Sodium Nitroprusside is is a mixed venous and arteriolar dilator; it reduces both pre- and afterload. It can be used in patients with acute pulmonary edema, but is typically reserved for individuals with a systolic blood pressure greater than 100 mmHg who fail to respond to adequate doses of standard preload reducers.

Question 22

What causes miliaria rubra (heat rash)?

Answer 22

Sweat gland blockage and staphylococcal infection

Question 23

What cause of chest pain occurs at rest and follows a circadian pattern, with most episodes occurring in the early hours of the morning?

Answer 23

Prinzmetal (Variant) angina

This is caused by focal coronary artery vasospasm.

Question 24

1-2 weeks of fever, localized pain in the back, and progressive weakness is suggestive of what diagnosis?

Answer 24

Spinal epidural abscess

An elevated white blood cell count is also commonly seen. Magnetic resonance imaging is the most useful diagnostic test.

Question 25

What is the most common cause of painful rectal bleeding in the first year of life and in adults?

Answer 25

Anal fissures

Question 26

The following signs/symptoms are characteristic of which diagnosis? 1. Eye pain 2. Fever 3. impaired eye motility 4. Decreased visual acuity 5. Proptosis

Answer 26

Orbital cellulitis ## Footnote *Staphylococcus aureus and Haemophilus influenzae are common etiologies. Mucormycosis must be considered in diabetics and immunocompromised patients.*

Question 27

What is the first test that should be used to diagnose ovarian torsion?

Answer 27

Doppler ultrasound ## Footnote *CT scan may be necessary if the doppler study is equivocal.*

Question 28

What is the preferred treatment for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction?

Answer 28

Primary percutaneous intervention (I.E. angioplasty or stent) ## Footnote *It has been shown to improve long-term mortality over thrombolytic therapy.*

Question 29

How does Central cord syndrome present?

Answer 29

Greater neurological deficits in the upper extremities compared to the lower extremities ## Footnote *In addition, patients with central cord syndrome usually have decreased rectal sphincter tone and patchy, unpredictable sensory deficits.*

Question 30

What kind of crystals are found in pseudogout?

Answer 30

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals ## Footnote *The synovial fluid will reveal rhomboid-shaped crystals that are weakly positively birefringent under polarized light.*

Question 31

What is the best method of managing intussusception?

Answer 31

Air enema ## Footnote *This is both diagnostic and therapeutic.*

Question 32

The following signs/symptoms are characteristic of which diagnosis? 1. Eye pain 2. Blepharospasm (any abnormal contraction or twitch of the eyelid) 3. Tearing 4. Photophobia 5. Foreign body sensation in eye 6. Injected eye 7. Punctuate lesions on corneal examination 8. Decreased visual acuity

Answer 32

Ultraviolet keratitis (snow blindness) ## Footnote *This is essentially a radiation burn when an individual comes in close contact with an ultraviolet-ray-containing light source (Sun lamp, tanning bed, high altitude). Patients usually present 6-10 hours after exposure.*

Question 33

What is the mainstay of diabetic ketoacidosis management?

Answer 33

Aggressive fluid resuscitation and insulin therapy

Question 34

Which kind of fracture occurs when the head is thrown into extreme hyperextension because of abrupt deceleration?

Answer 34

Hangman's fracture (traumatic spondylolysis of C2) ## Footnote *This is characterized by bilateral fractures of the pedicles. Today the most common cause of a hangman's fracture is the result of head-on automobile collisions.*

Question 35

What disease presents as a prodrome of 1-2 days of mild headache and myalgias, followed by high fever, chills, multiple rigors, and the following associated symptoms? 1. Pulmonary: Cough, dyspnea, chest pain, hemoptysis 2. Gastrointestinal: Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia 3. Neurological: Headache, altered mental status

Answer 35

Legionnaires disease ## Footnote *This is caused by Legoinella pneumophila, an intracellular organsim that lives in aquatic environments.*

Question 36

What is the best method of diagnosing multiple sclerosis (MS)?

Answer 36

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) ## Footnote *Demyelinating MS lesions are often well demonstrated on MRI but cannot be visualized on computed tomography (CT).*

Question 37

What is the most common pathogen responsible for causing necrotizing otitis externa?

Answer 37

Pseudomonas aeruginosa ## Footnote *This is an uncommon complication of otitis externa that occurs primarily in adult diabetics and other immunocompromised individuals. It is associated with a high mortality rate.*

Question 38

Myxedema coma is a life-threatening complication of which condition?

Answer 38

Hypothyroidism ## Footnote *Mortality in myxedema coma approaches 20-50% even with appropriate management.*

Question 39

Which 5 drugs can be effectively administered via endotracheal tube?

Answer 39

1. Naloxone 2. Atropine 3. Versed 4. Epinephrine 5. Lidocaine ## Footnote *This is remembered by the mnemonic NAVEL.*

Question 40

Supraventricular tachycardia that is refractory to vagal maneuvers should be treated with what?

Answer 40

Adenosine ## Footnote *This is a very short-acting AV nodal blocking medication.*

Question 41

A 90% chance of passage of a renal stone occurs when the stone is what size?

Answer 41

\<4cm ## Footnote *4-6mm stones pass 50% of the time. \>6mm stones pas 10% of the time.*

Question 42

A transvaginal ultrasound can typically identify a gestational sac when the beta-hCG level is greater than what level?

Answer 42

1000mIU/mL ## Footnote *It can identify the yolk sac when the beta-hCG level is greater than 2500 mIU/mL.*

Question 43

Fracture of the neck of the 5th metacarpal is known as what?

Answer 43

Boxer's fracture ## Footnote *It is one of the most common fractures of the hand and usually occurs from a direct impact to the hand (I.E. a punch with a closed fist).*

Question 44

What is the treatment of choice for miliaria rubra (heat rash)?

Answer 44

The antibiotic Chlorhexidine ## Footnote *This should be used in the acute phase. Salicylic acid may also be used to assist in desquamation but should not be used on large areas because of possible salicylate intoxication.*

Question 45

What should be given to contact lens-wearing patients with corneal abrasions?

Answer 45

Antipseudomonal medication (I.E. Tobramycin or fluoroquinolone drops) ## Footnote *It is important to distinguish corneal abrasions from corneal ulcers. Ulcers are deeper infections of the cornea that develop from corneal epithelial defects (I.E. abrasions). Contact lens wearers are also at high risk for corneal ulcers. The hallmark of a corneal ulcer is a shaggy, white infiltrate within the corneal epithelial defect.*

Question 46

In addition to peaked T-waves, hyperkalemia can cause what two electrocardiogram (ECG) changes?

Answer 46

1. Loss of P waves 2. Widening of the QRS complex ## Footnote *Eventually the tracing assumes a sine-wave pattern, followed by ventricular fibrillation or asystole.*

Question 47

What is the hallmark of beta-blocker toxicity?

Answer 47

1. Bradycardia 2. Hypotension 3. Cold extremities 4. Low blood sugar ## Footnote *Onset of toxicity is usually within 4 hours of ingestion. Management consists of fluid resuscitation and atropine. Patients with significant toxicity should recieve glucagon.*

Question 48

What is the initial treatment for acute pancreatitis?

Answer 48

Supportive: bowel rest, fluid resuscitation, and analgesia ## Footnote *90% of patients recover without complications. Surgery is reserved for complications of alcoholic pancreatitis, such as pseudocysts, phlegmons, and abscesses.*

Question 49

A fundoscopic examination that reveals a macular cherry-red spot with a pale retina and less pronounced arteries is diagnostic of what condition?

Answer 49

Central retinal artery occlusion ## Footnote *This is commonly caused by emboli, thrombi, vasculitis, or trauma. Treatment aims to dislodge the clot from the main artery to one of its branches and includes digital massage, vasodilation, and lowering intraocular pressure.*

Question 50

What causes Horner syndrome?

Answer 50

Interrupted sympathetic nerve supply to the eye ## Footnote *Unilateral findings of ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis are seen.*

Question 51

When should blood products be administered in a trauma patient?

Answer 51

When vital signs only transiently improve or remain unstable despite resuscitation with 2-3 L of crystalloid fluid ## Footnote *If there is obvious major blood loss and the patient is unstable, blood transfusion should be started concomitantly with crystalloid administration.*

Question 52

The following findings are consistent with which diagnosis? 1. Muscle weakness 2. Hyporeflexia 3. Intestinal ileus 4. Respiratory paralysis 5. Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes: Flattened T waves, presence of U waves, and prolonged QT and PR intervals

Answer 52

Hypokalemia ## Footnote *Potassium deficiency results in hyperpolarization of the cell membrane.*

Question 53

How does the Prehn sign help differentiate between testicular torsion and epididymitis?

Answer 53

The pain from epididymitis is relieved by physically lifting the testicle, but the pain from testicular torsion is not

Question 54

Transverse fracture of the distal radial metaphysis, which is dorsally displaced and angulated is called what?

Answer 54

Colles fracture ## Footnote *This is the most common wrist fracture seen in adults.*

Question 55

What is the most common site of intracranial cerebral artery thrombosis?

Answer 55

Middle cerebral artery ## Footnote *Clinical findings can include contralateral hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, and homonymous hemianopsia. The upper extremity deficit is usually more severe than the lower-extremity deficit. Aphasia occurs if the dominant hemisphere is involved.*

Question 56

What agent is most commonly used for rate control in the emergency department for a patient with stable atrial fibrillation?

Answer 56

Diltiazem ## Footnote *This is a calcium channel blocker with excellent AV nodal blocking effects. Amiodarone is also used for rate control in atrial fibrillation; however, it is not a first-line agent and is recommended to be used selectively in patients with low left ventricular ejection fraction.*

Question 57

Different degrees of paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation in the setting of intack position, touch, and vibratory sensation are characteristic of what?

Answer 57

Anterior cord syndrome ## Footnote *The hallmark is the preservation of the posterior columns, maintaining position, touch, and vibratory sensation.*

Question 58

What is the treatment for benign positional vertigo?

Answer 58

Antiemetics, antihistamines, and Epley maneuver (a series of head and body turns that reposition the canalith)

Question 59

What has priority over all other aspects of resuscitation in the critically ill or injured patient?

Answer 59

Airway assessment and management

Question 60

Exposure to rust removing agents containing hydroflouric acid (HF) should be managed how?

Answer 60

Calcium gluconate gel and electrocardiogram monitoring ## Footnote *Fluorid avidly binds to available cations such as calcium and magnesium, thereby causing cell death. Profound hypocalcemia has been demonstrated in HF exposure.*

Question 61

What symptoms are characteristic of the anticholinergic toxidrome?

Answer 61

Delirium, mumbling speech, tachycardia, elevated temperature, flushed face, dry mucous membranes and skin, dilated pupils, and hypoactive bowel sounds. ## Footnote *This can be remembered by the phrase "Blind as a bat (mydriasis), red as a beet (flushed skin), hot as a hare (hyperthermia due to lack of sweating), dry as a bone (dry mucous membranes), and mad as a hatter (mental status change)".*

Question 62

What condition is described as a potentially life-threatening cellulitis of the connective tissue of the floor of the mouth and neck that begins in the submandibular space and is commonly caused by an infected or recently extracted tooth?

Answer 62

Ludwig angina ## Footnote *The most common physical findings are bilateral submandibular swelling and tongue protrusion or elevation.*

Question 63

What is the fastest method of lowering intracranial pressure?

Answer 63

Hyperventilation ## Footnote *The onset of action is within 30 seconds.*

Question 64

What medication is considered first-line in treating hemodynamically stable ventricular dysrhythmias?

Answer 64

Amiodarone ## Footnote *Other commonly used medications include procainamide and lidocaine. Unstable arrhythmias require cardioversion.*

Question 65

Which medication was shown with the strongest evidence in the ISIS-2 trial to independently reduce mortality in patients with and acute myocardial infarction?

Answer 65

Aspirin ## Footnote *This should be administered early to all patients suspected of have an acute coronary syndrome, unless there is a contraindication.*

Question 66

What are some of the early and late symptoms of acute mountain sickness?

Answer 66

1. Early: Nausea, vomiting, headache, and anorexia (symptoms of an acute viral syndrome) 2. Late: Peripheral edema, oliguria, retinal hemorrhages, and finally high-altitude pulmonary or cerebral edema.

Question 67

What is the first-line treatment for a stable patient with supraventricular tacchycardia?

Answer 67

Vagal maneuvers to slow conduction and prolong the refractory period in the AV node ## Footnote *This can be accomplished by asking the patient to bear down as if they are having a bowel movement and hold the strain for at least 10 seconds. If vagal maneuvers fail, the next step is giving adenosine.*

Question 68

Cardiac contusion most commonly occurs in what part of the heart?

Answer 68

Right ventricle ## Footnote *It is the most anterior aspect of the heart and closest to the sternum.*

Question 69

What medication class other than antipsychotics can cause dystonic reactions?

Answer 69

Antiemetics ## Footnote *Dystonic reactions may occur with the use of dopamine-blocking agents. They respond almost immediately to administration of diphenhydramine (Benadryl).*

Question 70

What 3 criteria qualify an effusion as exudative?

Answer 70

1. LDH greater than 200 units 2. Fluid-to-blood LDH ratio greater than 0.6 3. Fluid-to-blood protein ratio greater than 0.5

Question 71

What drug can be given to decrease runs of torsades des pointes?

Answer 71

Magnesium sulfate

Question 72

An isolated fracture of the shaft of the ulna is called what?

Answer 72

Nightstick fracture ## Footnote *This can occur after a direct blow to the ulna and usually occurs when an individual raises his or her forearm up to protect their face from a blow.*

Question 73

What differentiates bacterial from fungal meningitis on examination of cerebrospinal fluid?

Answer 73

1. Bacterial meningitis \> 1000 white blood cells (WBCs), majority polymorphonucleur leukocytes, gram stain positive 2. Fungal meningitis \< 500 WBCs, majority monocytes, gram stain negative

Question 74

The diaphram is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which originates from the spinal cord at what level?

Answer 74

C3-C4 ## Footnote *The intercostal muscles of the rib cage are supplied by nerves that originate in the thoracic spine. Therefore, abdominal breathing in the absence of thoracic breathing indicates an injury below C4.*

Question 75

What 3 medications should be given to a patient with an anaphylactice reaction to an allergen?

Answer 75

1. Epinephrine 2. Antihistamine (I.E. diphenhydramine, ranitidine) 3. Corticosteroid (I.E. methylprednisolone) ## Footnote *Antihistamines block the action of the circulating histamines at target tissue receptors. Corticosteroids have an onset of action of 4-6 hours after administration, and therefore are of limited value in the acute setting, but should be given since giving them early may blunt to biphasic reaction of anaphylaxis.*

Question 76

Which organism causes Q fever?

Answer 76

Coxiella burnetii ## Footnote *Patients look ill, are diaphoretic, and febrile.*

Question 77

What should be used as the first-line agent for nearly all cocaine toxicities?

Answer 77

Benzodiazepines ## Footnote *Benzodiazepines restore the central nervous system inhibitory tone on the peripheral nervous system.*

Question 78

What medication class is contraindicated in a patient with cocaine-induced acute coronary syndrome?

Answer 78

B-adrenergic antagonists *If beta-adrenergic receptors are antagonized, alpha-adrenergic receptors are left unopposed and available for increased stimulation by cocaine. This may worsen into cornary and peripheral vasoconstriction, hypertension, and possible ischemia. Therefore, benzodiazepines, which decrease central sympathetic outflow, are the cornerstone in treatment to relieve cocaine-related chest pain.*

Question 79

What is the drug of choice for patients with long-QT syndrome?

Answer 79

Beta-blockers ## Footnote *The protective effect of beta-blockers is related to their adrenergic blockade diminishing the risk of cardiac arrhythmia. Implantation of cardioverter-defibrillators appears to be the most effective therapy for high-risk patients.*

Question 80

The following findings are consistent with what diagnosis? 1. Lethargy or coma 2. Hypothermia 3. Bradycardia 4. Periorbital and nonpitting edema 5. Delayed relaxation phase of deep tendon reflexes (areflexia in more severe cases)

Answer 80

Myxedema coma ## Footnote *This is a complication of hypothyroidism and can be triggered by sepsis, trauma, surgery, congestive heart failure, prolonged cold exposure, or use of sedatives or narcotics.*

Question 81

Pleural effusions are most easily detected on xray when the patient is in what position?

Answer 81

Lateral decubitus with affected side down ## Footnote *Accumulations of 5 to 50mL of fluid can be detected with this view. Small effusions can be missed entirely on supine views and are not generally apparent on PA and lateral views until 200mL or more of fluid are present.*

Question 82

What is the mainstay of treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

Answer 82

Plasmapheresis ## Footnote *Plasmapheresis decreases TTP mortality from 90% to 10%.*

Question 83

Which vessel supplies the AV node and inferior wall of the left ventricle in 90% of patients?

Answer 83

Right coronary artery

Question 84

What position should a seizing patient be placed in?

Answer 84

Lateral decubitus ## Footnote *This is to prevent aspiration of gastric contents. Other initial measures are oxygen administration, pulse oxymetry, glucose level determination, and an placement of an intravenous line.*

Question 85

In an emergency what blood type should be administered to a man and a woman of childbearing age?

Answer 85

1. Men: Type O, Rh-Positive 2. Childbearing age women: Type O, Rh-Negative

Question 86

What are the "motor response" criteria of the Glasgow coma scale?

Answer 86

* Obeys: 6 * Localizes: 5 * Withdraws (pain): 4 * Flexion (pain): 3 * Extension (pain): 2 * None: 1

Question 87

What is the mainstay of treatment for pericarditis?

Answer 87

Anti-inflammatory medications (I.E. NSAIDs) ## Footnote *An echocardiogram should be performed to rule out a pericardial effusion and tamponade.*

Question 88

What is the study of choice if urethral injury is suspected?

Answer 88

Retrograde urethrogram

Question 89

What is the preferred site for insertion of a chest tube?

Answer 89

4th or 5th intercostal space at the anterior or midaxillary line ## Footnote *The tube should be positioned posteriorly and toward the apex so that it can effectively remove both air and fluid.*

Question 90

What is the treatment of stable ventricular tachycardia?

Answer 90

Amiodarone

Question 91

What is the gold standard diagnostic approach to mesenteric ischemia?

Answer 91

Angiography ## Footnote *Unlike any other diagnostic tool, it is capable of both diagnosing and treating the problem.*

Question 92

Angioedema is a rare, but serious side effect of what commonly used drug class?

Answer 92

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors ## Footnote *This type of angioedema is usually limited to the lips, tongue, and face.*

Question 93

What true emergency in an uncircumsized male is described as fixed retraction of the foreskin beyond the glans?

Answer 93

Paraphimosis ## Footnote *Manual reduction is the first-line treatment.*

Question 94

What are patients with hypertensive encephalopathy managed with?

Answer 94

Short-acting titratable intravenous antihypertensive medications such as nitroprusside or labetalol ## Footnote *Typically, the mean arterial pressure (MAP) should be lowered by 20-25% in the first hour of treatment.*

Question 95

What is the antidote for beta-blocker toxicity?

Answer 95

Glucagon ## Footnote *Intravenous fluids and symptomatic treatment with norepinephrine or atropine may be required.*

Question 96

What is the treatment of salicylate toxicity?

Answer 96

1. Activated charcoal 2. Intravenous hydration 3. Sodium bicarbonate ## Footnote *Sodium bicarbonate alkalizes both the serum and the urine. Because salicylic acid is a weak acid, it is ionized in an alkaline environment and gets "trapped," limiting tha amount that crosses the blood-brain barrier and increasing urinary excretion.*

Question 97

Which part of the scaphoid bone is the most prone to avascular necrosis?

Answer 97

The proximal portion ## Footnote *There is no direct blood supply to the proximal portion of the bone. The more proximal the fracture is in scaphoid injuries, the greater the likelihood of developing avascular necrosis.*

Question 98

The following findings on electrocardiogram (ECG) are suggestive of what diagnosis? 1. Short PR interval ( 2. Widened QRS interval (\>100 milliseconds) 3. Delta wave

Answer 98

Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome

Question 99

What is the treatment for Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

Answer 99

Supportive management with NSAIDs for pain control ## Footnote *Steroids are used for patients with severe abdominal pain.*

Question 100

Compression of cranial nerve III leading to aniscoria (unequal pupils), ptosis, impaired extraocular movements, and a sluggish pupillary light reflex is indicative of what?

Answer 100

Ipsilateral uncal herniation ## Footnote *As herniation progresses, compression of the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve eventually causes ipsilateral pupillary dilation and nonreactivity.*

Question 101

What is the diagnostic test of choice for an aortic dissection?

Answer 101

Transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) ## Footnote *This is highly sensitive, quick, and does not require radiation or contrast. Computed tomography (CT) is the test of choice if TEE is not readily available.*

Question 102

Hypertension, bradycardia, and respiratory depression make up what triad?

Answer 102

Cushing reflex ## Footnote *This is observed in 1/3 of patients with a potentially lethal increase in intracranial pressure.*

Question 103

What is the initial treatment of choice for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?

Answer 103

Daily plasmapheresis until platelet count normalizes ## Footnote *Red blood cells may be transfused in patients with symptomatic anemia.*

Question 104

What is the treatment for diverticulitis?

Answer 104

Intravenous hydration, bowel rest, and broad-spectrum antibiotics to cover both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria (Metronidazole + fluoroquinolone)

Question 105

What is the emergent treatment of cardiac tamponade?

Answer 105

Operative thoracotomy ## Footnote *Pericardiocentesis is not optimal for traumatic tamponade, as the pericardium can fill with clots.*

Question 106

Postpartum eclampsia needs to be managed with what?

Answer 106

Magnesium sulfate

Question 107

Inferior wall myocardial infarction (MI) is characterized by ST elevation in which leads?

Answer 107

At least two of the inferior leads (II, III, aVF) ## Footnote *Reciprocal ST changes (I.E. ST depression) in the anterior precordial leads (V1-V4) in the setting of an inferior wall MI predict larger infarct distribution.*

Question 108

Superficial punctate keratitis visualized on slit-lamp exam with fluorescein confirms what diagnosis?

Answer 108

Ultraviolet keratitis ## Footnote *Treatment consists of analgesia, cycloplegics to reduce ciliary spasm and pain, erythromycin ointment, and ophthalmology follow-up in 1-2 days. Fortunately, most patients with ultraviolet keratitis make a full recovery with supportive care alone.*

Question 109

An electrocardiogram showing a narrow complex tachycardia at 300 beats per minute with no variability and absent P waves is diagnostic of what?

Answer 109

Supraventricular tachycardia ## Footnote *This is the most common pathologic arrhythmia of childhood.*

Question 110

What is the treatment for decompression sickness?

Answer 110

Hyperbaric oxygen *Intravenous flluids and supplemental oxygen may also be warranted.* *This condition is characterized by the dissolution of nitrogen from the blood. Arterial gas embolism can occur in patients with an underlying patent foramen ovale. Symptoms are usually sudden and dramatic - divers who have been thought to drown, actually passed out during ascent because of an underlying gas embolism.*

Question 111

Profound hyperglycemia without ketonuria is suggestive of what diagnosis?

Answer 111

Nonketotic hyperosmolar crisis (NKHC) ## Footnote *This syndrome is more common in type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients are profoundly dehydrated because of osmotic diuresis. The mainstay of NKHC therapy consists of replacing fluid losses.*

Question 112

What is the cause of the majority of all acute episodes of diarrhea?

Answer 112

Viruses (Rotavirus and Norwalk virus) ## Footnote *In addition, enteric adenovirus is a common cause of gastroenteritis.*

Question 113

What are the 4 Kanavel criteria for flexor tenosynovitis?

Answer 113

1. Symmetric swelling of the finger 2. Tenderness over the flexor tendon sheath 3. Pain with passive extension 4. Posture of the digit is flexed

Question 114

What is the initial treatment of choice for patients in second-degree, Mobitz I AV heart block?

Answer 114

Atropine ## Footnote *The majority of patients respond to atropine without further treatment. Observation alone is appropriate for stable patients.*

Question 115

What are the potential causes of anion gap metabolic acidosis?

Answer 115

1. Methanol, metformin 2. Uremia 3. Diabetic ketoacidosis 4. Paraldehyde 5. Iron, isoniazid 6. Lactate 7. Ethylene glycol, ethanol 8. Salicylate ## Footnote *This can be remembered by the pneumonic MUDPILES.*

Question 116

A spearing injury, resulting from hitting another player with the crown of the head/helmet, results in what kind of fracture?

Answer 116

Jefferson fracture ## Footnote *Spearing generates an axial loading force that is transmitted through the occipital condyles to the superior articular surfaces of the lateral masses of the first cervical vertebra (C1). This is considered an unstable fracture and is associated with C2 fractures 40% of the time.*

Question 117

Orbital floor fractures usually present with what symptom?

Answer 117

Pain that is greatest with upward eye movement ## Footnote *It may also present with impaired ocular motility or diplopia if the inferior rectus muscle becomes entrapped, and it may present with infraorbital hypoesthesia because of compression of the infraorbital nerve.*

Question 118

What is the antidote to hypoglycemia secondary to sulfonylureas?

Answer 118

Octreotide

Question 119

What is the treatment for isoniazid-induced seizures?

Answer 119

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B₆)

Question 120

Loss of consciousness results from injury to which functional area of the brain?

Answer 120

Reticular activating system

Question 121

Symmetric proximal muscle weakness and a heliotrope rash are characteristic of which diagnosis?

Answer 121

Dermatomyositis ## Footnote *This is an idiopathic inflammatory myopathy with associated dermatitis. The characteristic of the disease is progressive symmetric proximal muscle weakness with possible dysphagia, symmetric heliotrope rash in the periorbital region or neck, elevated creatinine kinase, and abnormal electromyogram and muscle biopsy. There is also an associated risk of malignancy.*

Question 122

What is the treatment for organophosphate toxicity?

Answer 122

Pralidoxime and Atropine ## Footnote *Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholine esterase and cause cholinergic crisis. Cholinergic crisis is commonly remembered by the pneumonic SLUDGE (salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal upset, emesis) or DUMBBELS (defecation, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bronchorrhea, emesis, lacrimation, salivation). Pralidoxime works by causing acetylcholinesterase to start working again.*

Question 123

Transverse fracture of the distal radial metaphysis with associated volar displacement and angulation is called what?

Answer 123

Smith fracture ## Footnote *Displacement and angulation is opposite to that of Colles fracture.*

Question 124

Abdominal breathing in the absence of thoracic breathing indicates an injury below what level?

Answer 124

C4 ## Footnote *The intercostal muscles of the rib cage are supplied by nerves that originate in the thoracic spine, while the diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve which originates from C3-C4.*

Question 125

Which drug is most commonly associated with the acute treatment of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

Answer 125

Procainamide

Question 126

What condition presents initially wtih flu-like symptoms, but within 24-48 hours may abruptly deteriorate into septic shock, respiratory failure, and mediastinitis, with a chest xray often revealing a widened mediastinum, and death usually within 3 days?

Answer 126

Inhalation anthrax ## Footnote *Anthrax is normally a disease of sheep, cattle, and horses. Disease in humans occurs when spores are inhaled. Working with untreated animal hides increases the risk for anthrax exposure.*

Question 127

It is important to recognize transient ischemic attacks (TIA) and to evaluate patients for what?

Answer 127

Cardiac or carotid arterial sources of emboli ## Footnote *TIAs often precede ischemic stroke, with up to 50% of patients with a TIA having a stroke in the next 5 years. The highest incidence is in the first month.*

Question 128

Which 2 medications should be given to patients with cardiogenic pulmonary edema as in congestive heart failure?

Answer 128

Nitroglycerin and loop diuretic ## Footnote *Together, these medications act to improve the overall functional capacity of the heart.*

Question 129

What are the "verbal responsiveness" criteria of the Glasgow coma scale?

Answer 129

* Oriented: 5 * Confused: 4 * Inappropriate words: 3 * Incomprehensible sounds: 2 * None: 1

Question 130

What is the single most common drug that leads to death in overdose?

Answer 130

Acetaminophen

Question 131

What is considered the hallmark finding of ethylene glycol ingestion?

Answer 131

Crystalluria ## Footnote *Its absence, however, does not rule out the diagnosis.*

Question 132

What is the most common fracture associated with anterior shoulder dislocation?

Answer 132

Compression fracture of the humeral head (Hill-Sachs deformity) ## Footnote *This may occur in 50% of anterior dislocations. Fracture of the anterior glenoid rim (Bankart fracture) is present in approximately 5% of cases.*

Question 133

Light-induced pupillary dilation is characteristic of what diagnosis?

Answer 133

Afferent pupillary defect (Marcus Gunn pupil) ## Footnote *This is a result of a lesion in the anterior visual pathway of the retina, optic nerve, or optic chiasm preventing reception of the light in the affected eye.*

Question 134

What finding on ultrasound is diagnostic of deep vein thrombosis?

Answer 134

Failure of the deep vein under interrogation to collapse fully when pressure is applied to the skin with the ultrasound probe ## Footnote *Normal deep veins collapse under moderate pressure applied by the sonographer.*

Question 135

Headaches described as worse in the morning, associated with nausea and vomiting, and worse with position are usually caused by what?

Answer 135

A mass lesion ## Footnote *Patients do not usually present with focal neurological symptoms.*

Question 136

What condition is characterized by prolonged conduction of atrial impulses without the loss of any impulse?

Answer 136

First-degree heart block ## Footnote *On an ECG, this translates to a PR interval greater than 200 milliseconds with a narrow QRS complex (\< 120 milliseconds). This does not require treatment.*

Question 137

Which extraintestinal manifestation of crohn's disease is not associated with Ulcerative colitis?

Answer 137

Nephrolithiasis ## Footnote *This is seen as a result of hyperoxaluria because of increased oxalate absorption in patients with ileal disease. Because ulcerative colitis affects only the large bowel, this extraintestinal manifestation is seen only in patients with Crohn disease.*

Question 138

A 10% chance of passage of a renal stone occurs when the stone is what size?

Answer 138

\>6mm

Question 139

What condition is described as a polymicrobial necrotizing fasciitis of the perineal subcutaneous tissue that originates from the skin, urethra, or rectum?

Answer 139

Fournier syndrome

Question 140

What is the treatment for thyroid storn?

Answer 140

1. Propranolol 2. Propylthiouracil (PTU) 3. Iodine ## Footnote *Propranolol is the most important factor in reducing mortality, by blocking peripheral adrenergic hyperactivity. PTU is used to inhibit new hormone synthesis in the thyroid and has a small effect on inhibiting peripheral conversion of T₄ to T₃. Iodine is administered to block hormone release from the thyroid but should be given 1 hour after PTU to prevent organification of the iodine.*

Question 141

What is the treatment for orbital cellulitis?

Answer 141

Admission to the hospital and intravenous antibiotic treatment (Cefuroxime, a combination of penicillin and nafcillin, or vancomycin)

Question 142

What are the 3 zones of the neck?

Answer 142

1. Zone I: Extends superiorly from the sternal notch and clavicles to the cricoid cartilage 2. Zone II: Area between the cricoid cartilage and the angle of the mandible 3. Zone III: Extends from the angle of the mandible to the base of the skull ## Footnote *Zone II injuries are taken directly to the operating room for surgical exploration.*

Question 143

What is the earliest change seen on electrocardiogram in an acute myocardial infarction?

Answer 143

Hyperacute T waves ## Footnote *They may appear minutes after the interruption of blood flow. The hyperacute T wave, which is short-lived, evolves to progressive elevation of ST segments.*

Question 144

What will the cerebrospinal fluid analysis of a patient with bacterial meningitis reveal?

Answer 144

1. Elevated white blood cell count 2. Predominant polymorphonuclear leukocytes 3. Elevated protein 4. Low glucose

Question 145

A 50% chance of passage of a renal stone occurs when the stone is what size?

Answer 145

4-6mm ## Footnote *6mm stones pas 10% of the time.*

Question 146

Where do more than 50% of angiodysplasias of the gastrointestinal tract occur?

Answer 146

Right side of the colon ## Footnote *Angiodysplasias are responsible for 3-20% of acute lower Gastrointestinal bleeds.*

Question 147

Fever, anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal insufficiency, and neurologic changes make up the classical pentad of what condition?

Answer 147

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) ## Footnote *In TTP, platelet-fibrin thrombi deposit in vessel and cause injury to red blood cells and platelets, resulting in microangiopathy hemolytic anemia, and thrombocytopenia. Risk factors include pregnancy, autoimmune disorders (I.E. systemic lupus erythematosus), infection, allogenic bone marrow transplantation, malignancy, and medications (I.E. quinine, clopidogrel, and ticlopidine).*

Question 148

Anticoagulation is required prior to cardioversion of a patient who has been in atrial fibrillation for how long?

Answer 148

_\>_48 hours ## Footnote *Warfarin, along with heparin, are agents used for anticoagulation. In stable atrial fibrillation, the patient would undergo an echocardiogram prior to defibrillation and if no clot is visualized, heparin is administered and cardioversion can take place immediately.*

Question 149

What medication class is the cornerstone of cocaine-induced acute coronary syndrome treatment?

Answer 149

Benzodiazepines ## Footnote *These are excellent medications to use in cocaine-related chest pain as it reduces the sympathetic drive leading to a reduction in blood pressure and heart rate.*

Question 150

What is the treatment of adrenal crisis in the setting of septic shock?

Answer 150

Hydrocortisone

Question 151

What is the definitive diagnostic study of choice for a patient with suspected malrotation with midgut volvulus?

Answer 151

Upper gastrointestinal series *This is a radiologic examination of the upper gastrointestinal tract. It consists of a series of X-ray images of the esophagus, stomach and duodenum*. *Contrast in the gut will fail to demonstrate the classic "C-Loop" of the four parts of the duodenum and instead will show a "corkscrew" appearance clssic of this condition.*

Question 152

What is the most appropriate antibiotic for treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

Answer 152

An antibiotic with both gram(-) and gram(+) coverage (I.E. a third generation cephalosporin)

Question 153

What is the diagnostic test of choice in a patient with a suspected pituitary adenoma?

Answer 153

High-resolution magnetic resonance imaging ## Footnote *Non-contrast and contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) are not particularly sensitive for these lesions that sit in the sella turcica.*

Question 154

What is the appropriate approach to managing a patient with a bite from an animal with an unknown rabies status?

Answer 154

Administration of immunoglobulin in addition to the cell vaccine ## Footnote *It is also important to note the powerful effects of water and soap irrigation in these cases, as it has been proven as the most effective means of lowering the virulence of the organism and should be administered quickly. If the patient has had a severe allergic reaction to the vaccine in the past, immunoglobulin should be administered alone.*

Question 155

The central nervous system effects of cocaine are best managed with what?

Answer 155

Benzodiazepines ## Footnote *Benzodiazepines decrease sympathetic tone and prevent hyperthermia and seizures.*

Question 156

What is the usual cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)?

Answer 156

Anovulation ## Footnote *This condition is defined as any abnormality in the regular bleeding pattern of the menstrual cycle. When the ovaries fail to secrete an ovum, Luteinization does not occur, and without the progesterone of leutinization, the endometrium proliferates. This can lead to endometrial hyperplasia, which increases the risk for carcinoma.*

Question 157

What are the Ranson criteria and what are they used for?

Answer 157

The Ranson criteria are used for predicting mortality rates in patients with pancreatitis. The presence of more than 3 criteria equals 1% mortality, while the presence of 6 or more criteria approaches 100%. **Ranson criteria at admission:** 1. Age \> 55 2. WBC \> 16,000 3. Glucose \> 200 4. LDH \> 350 5. AST greater than 250 **Ranson criteria within 48 hours of admission:** 1. Hematocrit fall \> 10% 2. BUN rise \> 5 3. Serum calcium less than 8 4. Arterial PO2 \< 60 5. Base deficit \> 4 6. Fluid sequestration \> 6L

Question 158

What are the typical findings on examination of the cerebrospinal fluid of a patient with viral meningitis?

Answer 158

1. Mildly elevated protein 2. Mildly elevated white blood cells 3. Normal glucose 4. Normal polymorphonuclear neutrophil and eosinophil counts

Question 159

Rupture of the extensor tendon that inserts into the base of the distal phalanx is know as what?

Answer 159

Mallet finger ## Footnote *The most important aspect of management is to keep the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint in continuous extension until healing occurs.*

Question 160

Dysuria in young men is almost always because of what?

Answer 160

Urethritis ## Footnote *This is commonly sexually transmitted.*

Question 161

Which organism is most frequently associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

Answer 161

Campylobacter jejuni

Question 162

What predominates as the causitive agent in myocarditis in the United States?

Answer 162

The enteroviruses (especially coxsackievirus B)

Question 163

Large R waves and inverted T waves in leads V1-V3 are indicative of what?

Answer 163

Right heart strain

Question 164

What is the smallest amount of blood loss that will result in a decrease in systolic blood pressure?

Answer 164

30-40% of blood volume ## Footnote *Class III hemorrhage is characterized by 30-40% blood loss and is characterized by tachypnea, tachycardia (HR\>120), decrease in systolic BP, delayed capillary refill, decreased urine output, and a change in mental status.*

Question 165

Which medication is typically used to treat supraventricular tachycardias?

Answer 165

Adenosine ## Footnote *This is an ultrashort-acting AV nodal blocking agent. Because it is so fast-acting it must be delivered through a large vein with a rapid intravenous fluid bolus. In addition to adenosine, maneuvers that increase vagal tone have been shown to slow conduction through the AV node. Some of these maneuvers include carotid sinus massage, Valsalva maneuver, and facial immersion in cold water.*

Question 166

Fracture at the junction of the middle and distal thirds of the radius, with an associated dislocation of the distal radialulnar joint is called what?

Answer 166

Galeazzi fracture

Question 167

What is the most common type of elbow fracture in kids?

Answer 167

Supracondylar fracture ## Footnote *The most serious complication of supracondylar fractures is Volkmann ischemic contracture. This occurs when high-pressure builds up in the forearm compartments leading to a compartment syndrome. Patients who develop pain upon passive extension of the fingers, forearm tenderness, or refuse to open the hand have a very high risk of developing this condition.*

Question 168

What is the treatment of alcoholic ketoacidosis?

Answer 168

Hydration with 5% dextrose in normal saline (D₅NS) ## Footnote *Thiamine supplementation should be given as prophylaxis against Wernicke encephalopathy.*

Question 169

Abdominal pain that radiates to the back and is associated with nausea, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, and a history of ethanol abuse is suggestive of what diagnosis?

Answer 169

Alcoholic pancreatitis ## Footnote *The initial treatment for acute pancreatitis is supportive: bowel rest, fluid resuscitation, and analgesia. 90% of patients recover without complications. Surgery is reserved for complications of alcoholic pancreatitis, such as pseudocysts, phlegmons, and abscesses.*

Question 170

What is the most common organism that causes epididymitis in men over age 35 years

Answer 170

E. Coli ## Footnote *In men under age 35 years old it is Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoea.*

Question 171

What is the treatment for stable atrial fibrillation?

Answer 171

Rate control with diltiazem or verapamil ## Footnote *Metoprolol or digoxin may also be used, but may depress the blood pressure.*

Question 172

During which week of gestation can an embryo be first detected via the following methods? 1. Transvaginal ultrasound 2. Transabdominal ultrasound

Answer 172

1. Transvaginal ultrasoun: 6 weeks 2. Transabdominal ultrasound: 7 weeks

Question 173

Within how many hours of symptoms onset can thrombolytic therapy be administered to patients having an acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction?

Answer 173

_\<_12 hours ## Footnote *Previous hemorrhagic stroke, known intracranial neoplasm, active internal bleeding, and suspected aortic dissection or pericarditis are all absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy.*

Question 174

What two agents are favored in the management of a patient with a hypertensive crisis?

Answer 174

Labetalol and Nitroprusside

Question 175

A branching or dendritic ulcer of the eye is characteristic of what condition?

Answer 175

Corneal epithelial disease ## Footnote *This is caused by herpes simplex virus. Patients will have typical herpetic skin lesions in the eyelids and conjunctiva. Patients should be treated with topical antivirals such as trifluridine, with topical antibiotics added to prevent secondary bacterial infection.*

Question 176

What is the most common pathologic arrhythmia of childhood?

Answer 176

Supraventricular tachycardia

Question 177

What is the most common ultrasound finding in patients who have ovarian torsion?

Answer 177

Unilateral enlarged ovary ## Footnote *This occurs secondary to edema. Patients with no ovarian or adnexal masses measuring 3-4 cm in diameter and normal-sized ovaries are extremely unlikely to have ovarian torsion.*

Question 178

What is the classic triad of symptoms associated with a vertebrobasilar stroke?

Answer 178

The 3 D's: Dizziness, dysphagia, and diplopia ## Footnote *The brainstem (dysphagia, facial droop, vertigo, and vertical nystagmus), cerebellum (ataxia, vertigo, and vertical nystagmus), and visual cortex (diplopia) are all anatomical areas supplied by the posterior circulation, specifically the vertebrobasilar artery.*

Question 179

What is the most common cause of respiratory distress in infants (especially those under the age of 6 months)?

Answer 179

Respiratory syncytial virus ## Footnote *This is also the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants.*

Question 180

What are the "eye opening" criteria of the Glasgow coma scale?

Answer 180

* Spontaneous: 4 * To verbal command: 3 * To pain: 2 * None: 1

Question 181

The following signs/symptoms are characteristic of which diagnosis? 1. Mid-dilated, nonreactive pupil 2. Corneal clouding 3. Decreased vision

Answer 181

Increased intraocular pressure ## Footnote *This is typical of acute angle-closure glaucoma.*

Question 182

What is the most useful diagnostic test obtainable in a suspected carbon monoxide poisoning?

Answer 182

Carboxyhemoglobin level

Question 183

What is the most effective method for relieving acute pericardial tamponade in the trauma setting?

Answer 183

Thoracotomy ## Footnote *This involves incision of the pericardium with removal of blood from the pericardial sac.*

Question 184

What is a potentially life-saving intervention in tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

Answer 184

Sodium bicarbonate ## Footnote *This is because an alkaline pH combined with a sodium load increases conductance through cardiac fast sodium channels and prevents ventricular dysrhythmias as evidenced by narrowing of the QRS complex on an electrocardiogram.*

Question 185

What is the best test for diagnosing appendicitis?

Answer 185

Abdominal computed tomography (CT) with IV and oral or rectal contrast

Question 186

Fracture of the proximal one-third of the ulnar shaft combined with a radial head dislocation is called what?

Answer 186

Monteggia fracture ## Footnote *This injury commonly occurs from either a direct blow to the posterior aspect of the ulna. It is associated with an injury to the radial nerve.*

Question 187

What is generally the first-line agent in an actively seizing patient?

Answer 187

Parenteral benzodiazepines (Diazepam, Lorazepam, Midazolam)

Question 188

Which medication is a common precipitant of visual hallucinations?

Answer 188

Digoxin