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Greek language > STC SA > Flashcards

STC SA Flashcards

1
Q

Reasons for preventing accidents?

A

i. Moral: It is morally right to protect employees and other persons in the workplace from any form of harm
or suffering. The employer has a moral duty to show concern for employees, and make genuine efforts to
promote their wellbeing. (This moral responsibility also informs a ‘duty of care’ in common law.)

ii. Social: It is important to prevent injuries and disease because of the negative impact these have on society.
Consider the potential social impacts, for example:
- Health and wellbeing;
- Productivity;
- Standard of living;
- Support for families and loved ones;
- Contributions to NGOs and worthy causes.

iii. Financial: Injuries, diseases and damage to property have financial impacts, many of which are ‘hidden’,
and not covered by insurance. Also note that as the number of accidents increase, so insurance premiums
increase. Consider the costs, for example:
- Dealing with injury – first aid, phone calls,
transport, admin reports, etc;
- Time lost while injured employee is off work;
- Disruptions to work schedule;
- Repairing or replacing damaged equipment;
- Employing, and training, temporary or
replacement staff;
- Time spent conducting investigations;
- Legal costs;
- Reputational damage.

iv. Legal: The employer has a duty to comply with the Occupational Health and Safety Act, and do everything
reasonably practicable to prevent harm to employees and other persons. A ‘duty of care’ is a legally
enforced moral duty that requires the employer to anticipate possible causes of injury and illness, and do
everything reasonably practicable to remove or minimise these possible causes of harm

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2
Q

What is the purpose of the OSH Act?

A

“To provide for the health and safety of persons at work and for the health and safety of persons in connection with the use of plant and machinery; the protection of persons other than persons at work against hazards to health and safety arising out of or in connection with the activities of persons at work; to establish an advisory council for occupational health and safety, and to provide for matters connected therewith.”

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3
Q

What is section 7 of the OSH Act?

A

Health and Safety Policy

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4
Q

What is section 8 of the OSH Act?

A

General duties of employers to their employees

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5
Q

What is section 13 of the OSH Act?

A

Duty to inform

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6
Q

What is section 14 of the OSH Act?

A

General duties of employees at work

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7
Q

What is section 15 of the OSH Act?

A

Duty not to interfere with, damage or misuse things

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8
Q

What is section 16 of the OSH Act?

A

Chief Executive Officer charged with certain duties

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9
Q

What is section 17 of the OSH Act?

A

Health and Safety Representatives

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10
Q

What is section 18 of the OSH Act?

A

Functions of Health and Safety Representatives

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11
Q

What is section 19 of the OSH Act?

A

Health and Safety Committees

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12
Q

What is section 20 of the OSH Act?

A

Functions of Health and Safety Committees

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13
Q

What is section 24 of the OSH Act?

A

Report to inspectors regarding certain incidents

s24 (a) Injury Incident
s24 (b) Ill Health Incident
s24 (c) Near Miss Incident

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14
Q

What is section 26 of the OSH Act?

A

Victimization forbidden

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15
Q

What is section 30 of the OSH Act?

A

Special powers of Inspectors

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16
Q

What is section 31 of the OSH Act?

A

Investigations

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17
Q

What is section 37 of the OSH Act?

A

Acts or omissions by employees

or mandataries

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18
Q

Define GAR?

A

General Administrative Regulations, 2003

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19
Q

Define GSR?

A

General Safety Regulations, 1986

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20
Q

Define MHIR?

A

Major Hazard Installation Regulations, 2001

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21
Q

Define HBA?

A

Regulations for Hazardous Biological Agents, 2001

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22
Q

Define ER?

A

Explosives Regulations, 2003

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23
Q

Define CR?

A

Construction Regulations, 2014

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24
Q

Define RWHC?

A

Regulations on Hazardous Work by Children in SA, 2010

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25
Q

Define AR?

A

Asbestos Abatement Regulations, 2020

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26
Q

Define DR?

A

Diving Regulations, 2010

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27
Q

Define ERW?

A

Environmental Regulations for Workplaces, 1987

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28
Q

Define FR?

A

Facilities Regulations, 2004

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29
Q

Define RHCA?

A

Regulations for Hazardous Chemical Agents 2021

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30
Q

Define ErR?

A

Ergonomics Regulations 2019

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31
Q

Define LR?

A

Lead Regulations, 2002

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32
Q

Define NHLR?

A

Noise Induced Hearing Loss Regulations, 2003

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33
Q

Define DMR?

A

Driven Machinery Regulations, 2015

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34
Q

Define GMR?

A

General Machinery Regulations, 1988

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35
Q

Define LEPCR?

A

Lift, Escalator and Passenger Conveyor Regulations, 2010

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36
Q

Define RCCC?

A

Regulations concerning the Certificate of Competency, 1990

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37
Q

Define PER?

A

Pressure Equipment Regulations, 2009

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38
Q

Define EIR?

A

Electrical Installation Regulations, 2009

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39
Q

Define EMR?

A

Electrical Machinery Regulations, 2011

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40
Q

Define OHSA 16(2)

A

Assignment by CEO

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41
Q

Define OHSA 17

A

Health and Safety Representative

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42
Q

Define OHSA 19

A

H&S Committee

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43
Q

Define CR 5(a),(b)

A

Client Representative (implied appointment); as well as duties of the Client relating to the designer of a structure, as per CR 6

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44
Q

Define CR 5(h),(k)

A

Principal Contractor for each phase or project

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45
Q

Define CR 7(1)(c)

A

Contractor

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46
Q

Define CR 8(1)?

A

Construction Manager

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47
Q

Define CR 8(2)

A

Assistant Construction

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47
Q

Define CR 8(2)

A

Assistant Construction Manager

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48
Q

Define CR 8(5)

A

Health and Safety Officer (if necessary). Depending on size of project, degree of dangers and hazards and risks on site

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49
Q

Define CR 8(7)

A

Construction Supervisor (if necessary)

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50
Q

Define CR 9(1)

A

Person to carry out Risk Assessment

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51
Q

Define CR 10(1)(a)

A

Fall Protection Planner

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52
Q

Define CR 11(2)(a)

A

Structure Inspector

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53
Q

Define CR 11(2)(a)

A

Structure Inspector

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54
Q

Define CR 12(1)

A

Temporary Work Designer

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55
Q

Define CR 13(1)(a)

A

Excavation Supervisor

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56
Q

Define CR 14(1)

A

Supervisor Demolition Work

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57
Q

Define CR 16(1)

A

Scaffold Supervisor

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58
Q

Define CR 17(1)

A

Suspended Platform Supervisor

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59
Q

Define CR 18(1)(a)

A

Rope Access Supervisor

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60
Q

Define CR 19(8)(a)

A

Material Hoist Inspector

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61
Q

Define CR 20(1)

A

Bulk Mixing Plant Supervisor

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62
Q

Define CR 21(2)(g)

A

Person to control and issue and collect cartridges and nails/studs

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63
Q

Define CR 23(1)(k)

A

Construction Vehicle and Mobile Plants Inspector

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64
Q

Define CR 24(d)

A

Temporary Electrical Installations Inspector and Controller

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65
Q

Define CR 28(a)

A

Stacking and Storage Supervisor

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66
Q

Define CR 29(h)

A

Fire Equipment Inspector

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67
Q

Define DMR 18(5)

A
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68
Q

Define DMR 18(5)

A

Inspector of Lifting Machinery, Lifting Tackle and Forklifts

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69
Q

Define DMR 18(11)

A

Operator of Lifting Machinery, Lifting Tackle and Forklifts

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70
Q

Define GMR 2(1)

A

Machinery Supervisor

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71
Q

Define GSR 3(4)

A

First Aider

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72
Q

Define GSR 5(1)

A

Confined Space Inspector

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73
Q

Define GSR 8(1)(a)

A

Stacking Supervisor

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74
Q

Define LEPCR 6(1)

A

Person or Firm to Inspect Lifts

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75
Q

Define PER 11

A

Steam Generator/Pressure Vessel Inspector

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76
Q

Define PER 19(2)

A

Someone to fill, recharge, recondition, modify, inspect or test portable fire extinguishers

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77
Q

What are the Responsibilities of the employer in accordance to the OSH Act 85 of 1993?

A

As an employer, Rhodes University is obliged to “provide and maintain, as far as is reasonably practicable, a
working environment that is safe and without risk to the health of his/her employees”.

Reasonably practicable refers to what a reasonable person would do – a person with sound judgement
and whose behaviour is moderate and fair.

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78
Q

OHS Act section 8?

A

OHS Act, Section 8: General duties of employers to their employees

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79
Q

Define Criminal liability?

A

Criminal law – a type of ‘public law’ – deals with the relationship between the state and the general population.

This means that the state would be involved in a criminal law case against a person who has been negligent or
wilfully breaks the law.

Any employee found guilty of an offence in terms of the OHS Act shall, on conviction, be liable to a fine not
exceeding R50,000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding one year, or to both.

An employer found guilty of an offence in terms of the OHS Act shall, on conviction, be liable to a fine not
exceeding R100,000 or to imprisonment for a period not exceeding two years, or to both.

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80
Q

Define Civil liability?

A

Civil law – a type of ‘private law’ – deals with disputes between individuals and/or organisations where a (negligent
or intentional) wrongful act harms another. The victim lays a claim in a civil law case and if successful, is awarded
compensation. For example

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81
Q

Define Vicarious liability ?

A

Vicarious liability means that the Line Manager can be held responsible for any offence committed by a
subordinate employee, according to public law. It will depend on whether the employee was found to be acting
in a personal capacity, or in the course of his/her employment.
To avoid vicarious liability, the employer should ensure that all reasonable steps have been taken to prevent the
employee’s acts or omissions.

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82
Q

Define OHS Act, Section 37?

A

OHS Act, Section 37: Acts or omissions by employees or mandataries

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83
Q

Define OHS Act, Section 38?

A

OHS Act, Section 38: Offences, penalties and special orders of court

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84
Q

Define a Hazards?

A

Hazard = a source of or exposure to danger, that can cause injury, illness or death. Hazards are generally considered to be unsafe conditions or unsafe acts.

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85
Q

Define a Risk?

A

Risk = likelihood/probability that injury or damage will happen, if a situation is out of control.

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86
Q

That are the Responsibilities of the employer?

A

As an employer, is obliged to “provide and maintain, as far as is reasonably practicable, a
working environment that is safe and without risk to the health of his/her employees”.
The employer is obliged to have a health and safety policy when directed by the Chief Inspector
Provide and maintain an environment that
is safe and without risk to the health and
safety of members
Provide facilities and adequate resources
Carry out risk management activities to
ensure that risks relating to working
procedures and practices

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87
Q

What is the Health and safety rep functions?

A

Monitor and report on health & safety concerns in the workplace
Serve on a health & safety committee

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88
Q

The OHS Act states that health and safety reps may also be responsible for:

A
  • Visiting incident sites and attend inspections;
  • Attending investigations/formal inquiries;
  • Accompanying an inspector during inspections;
  • Participating in internal audits;
  • Being accompanied by a technical advisor if approved by your employer
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89
Q

What are the Duties of the H&S committee?

A 
Initiating: putting measures in place and starting systems that promote employees’ health and safety.
Developing
Promoting
Maintaining
Reviewing
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90
Q

What are Unsafe conditions?

A
  • Disorderly/messy work area
  • Overcrowded work space
  • Poor ventilation
  • Faulty equipment
  • Protective clothing not available
  • Loose items
  • Slippery floor
  • Moving machinery
  • Insufficient lighting
  • Hazardous substance storage.
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91
Q

What are Unsafe acts?

A 
- Working without safety equipment or
protective clothing
- Working without correct skills or knowledge
- Working in a dangerous area
- Working in a rush
- Doing unauthorised work
- Working with items unsecured
- Leaving items standing in an unsafe place
- Working on moving machinery
- Fooling around or taking chances.
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92
Q

What are the Hazard classification categories?

A 
Physical hazards
Chemical
Biological
Ergonomic
Psycho-social
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93
Q

What are the basic general steps of a Risk assessment?

A

i. Identify the hazards;
ii. Identify who might be harmed and how (potential impacts);
iii. Evaluate the risks and decide on control measures;
iv. Record the chosen control measures and implement the plan;
v. Review the assessment and update where required.

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94
Q

Define an Incident?

A

A near miss event or an undesired circumstance which has the potential to cause injury, ill-health, damage or other loss.

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95
Q

Define an Accident?

A

An event that results in injury or ill-health.

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96
Q

Name the Common causes of incidents/accidents:

A
  • Lack of planning
  • Lack of instructions
  • Poor housekeeping
  • Taking shortcuts
  • Casual attitude
  • Distractions
  • Stress:
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97
Q

For how many employees should there be a H&S Representative?

A

There must be designated Health and Safety Representatives where there are 20 or more employees, or

  • There must be one H&S rep for every:
  • 50 employees, or part thereof, in most workplaces; or
  • 100 employees, or part thereof, in the case of offices and shops
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98
Q

For how many employees should there be a first aider?

A

The OHS Act requires all workplaces with ten (10) or more employees to have first aiders.

Number of first aiders: There should be at least one first aider, with a valid certificate of competency in
first aid, per 50 employees – or per 100 in the case of shops or offices.

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99
Q

What is the OHS Act, General Administrative Regulations 8?

A

Reporting of incidents and occupational diseases

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100
Q

What is covered under the OHS Act, General Administrative Regulations 9 (GAR9)?

A

Recording and investigation of incidents

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101
Q

What is covered under the OHS Act, General Machinery Regulations 7 (GMR7)?

A

Reporting of incidents in connection with machinery

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102
Q

What is covered under COID Act, Chapter V: Claims for compensation, 39?

A

Notice of accident by the employer to commissioner Department of Labour

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103
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, General Safety Regulations 3?

A

First aid, emergency equipment & procedures

104
Q

What is covered in OHS Act, General Safety Regulations Annexure with regards to first aid?

A

Minimum contents of a first aid box

105
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, General Administrative Regulations 9?

A

Recording and investigation of incidents

106
Q

Explain the 3 elements with regards to the Chemistry of fire?

A

Fuel
Oxygen
Heat

107
Q

What is a class A Fire and what type of extinguisher is recommended to be used?

A

A (solid organic materials): solid materials such as wood, paper, coal, plastic and fabrics

Water

OTHER suitable extinguishers: Foam and Dry Powder

108
Q

What is a class B Fire and what type of extinguisher is recommended to be used?

A

B (flammable liquid/gas)

Dry powder/DCP ( Can be used to fight classes A, B, C & D)

OTHER suitable extinguishers: Carbon dioxide and Foam

109
Q

What is a class C Fire and what type of extinguisher is recommended to be used?

A

C (electrical): involving contact with live electrical installations

Carbon dioxide: CO2 (Can be used to fight Class B & C)

OTHER suitable extinguishers: Dry powder

110
Q

What is a class D Fire and what type of extinguisher is recommended to be used?

A

D (metal): involving combustible metals, e.g. magnesium &
titanium

Dry Powder

111
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Environmental Regulations for Workplaces 9 (ERW9)?

A

Fire precautions and means of egress

112
Q

What is covered under the OHS Act, Pressure Equipment Regulations 19 (PER19)?

A

Fire extinguishers

113
Q

Define Environment?

A

Environment refers to everything around us, including land, air, water and other living things.

114
Q

The OHS Act has a number of Environmental Regulations for Workplaces (ERW), addressing various issues such as?

A 
Housekeeping
Windows
Lighting
Ventilation
Noise protection
Fire precautions and means of egress (evacuation routes,
Fire escapes, 
Emergency escape doors,
Fire-fighting equipment, etc
115
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Environmental Regulations for Workplaces 2 (ERW2)?

A

Thermal requirements

116
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Environmental Regulations for Workplaces 3 (ERW3)?

A

Lighting

117
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Environmental Regulations for Workplaces 4 (ERW4)?

A

Windows

118
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Environmental Regulations for Workplaces 5 (ERW5)?

A

Ventilation

119
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Environmental Regulations for Workplaces 6 (ERW6)?

A

Housekeeping

120
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Environmental Regulations for Workplaces 7 (ERW7)?

A

Noise and hearing conservation

121
Q

What is covered under the OHS Act, General Safety Regulations 2 (GSR2)?

A

Personal safety equipment and facilities (PPE)

122
Q

What is covered in the OHS Act, Hazardous Chemical Substances Regulations 10 (HCS10)?

A

Control of exposure to HCS

123
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Hazardous Biological Agents Regulations 10?

A

Control of exposure to HBA

124
Q

What is one of the sections covered under SANS 10087-1, 2004 (Edition 4)?

A

The handling, storage, distribution and maintenance of liquefied
petroleum gas in domestic, commercial, and industrial installations

125
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Electrical Machinery Regulations 4?

A

Operation of machinery

126
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Electrical Machinery Regulations 9 (EMR9)?

A

Portable electric tools

127
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, General Safety Regulations 13A(GSR13A)?

A

Ladders

128
Q

What is covered under OHS Act, Hazardous Biological Agents Regulations, Annexure C (HBA Annexure C?

A

Precautions for workplaces.

129
Q

The risk control 4 T’s stand for?

A

Terminate
Treat
Transfer
Tolerate

Terminate: Remove the risk by changing a work practice or system. Best option.

Treat: Reduce the risk by implementing engineering and management controls, to minimise the likelihood
of its occurrence or minimise its impacts (potential or actual).

Transfer: Pay a third party or insurance company that will take the risk on your behalf.

Tolerate: Take no action because the risk is so low that it is deemed acceptable, or risk reduction/mitigation steps are not cost-effective. Monitor in case changes result in it becoming intolerable.

130
Q

Define Danger?

A

Anything that may cause injury or damage to a person or to property.

131
Q

Define Duty of Care?

A

A legally enforced moral duty to anticipate possible causes of injury and illness, and to do everything reasonably practicable to remove or minimise these possible causes of harm.

132
Q

Define Hazard?

A

Exposure to, or a source of, danger

133
Q

Define Healthy?

A

Free from illness or injury.

134
Q

Define Mitigate?

A

Remove, reduce or control a hazard or risk.

135
Q

Define Omission?

A

Failure to act.

136
Q

Define Properly used (with regard to machinery)?

A

Properly used (with regard to machinery): used with reasonable care and with due regard to any information or instructions provided.

137
Q

Define and give examples of Reasonably practicable?

A

This allows the employer to choose the most appropriate or efficient means of controlling a hazard/risk from a range of possibilities, bearing in mind the following:

(a) how significant a risk is (its extent and severity),
(b) the state of knowledge reasonably available concerning that hazard/risk and of any methods for removing or mitigating that hazard/risk,
(c) the availability and suitability of means to remove or mitigate that hazard/risk, and
(d) the cost of removing or mitigating that hazard/risk in relation to the benefit of doing so.

138
Q

Define Risk?

A

The probability/likelihood that injury or damage will happen.

139
Q

Define Safe?

A

Free from any hazard.

140
Q

Define - User (with regard to machinery)?

A

A person who uses plant or machinery for his/her own benefit.

141
Q

What is meant by Section 16: Duties of CEO?

A

3) Every chief executive officer shall as far as is reasonably practicable ensure
that the duties of his employer as contemplated in this Act, are properly
discharged.

142
Q

Explain Section 37: Acts or omissions by employees or mandataries?

A

3) Whenever any employee or mandatary of any employer or user does or omits to do an act which it would be an offence in terms of this Act for the employer or any such user to do or omit to do, he shall be liable to be convicted and sentenced in respect thereof as if he were the employer or user.

143
Q

Define COIDA Section 87?

A

c) An employer who refuses or fails to pay any assessment, instalment or fine
referred to in this section or any other money payable in terms of this Act, shall be guilty of an offence. This section should be read with section 89(1)
(b) reading: If a contractor fails so to register or pay any assessment, the said employees of the contractor shall be deemed to be the employees of the mandator, and the mandator shall pay the assessments in respect of those employees.

144
Q

Liability in respect of the environment can be established in terms of NEMA section 34 (6), explain?

A

Whenever any manager, agent or employee does or omits to do an act which it had been his or her task to do or to refrain from doing on behalf of the employer and which would be an offence under any provision listed in Schedule 3 for the employer to do or omit to do, he or she shall be liable to be convicted and sentenced in respect thereof as if he or she were the employer.

145
Q

In terms of the NWA, if an offence by an employee takes place with the permission of the employer, the employer is also liable for conviction. Section 154 of the Act states that?

A

Whenever an act or omission by an employee or agent:
a) constitutes an offence in terms of this Act, and takes place with the express or implied permission of the employer or principal, as the case may be, the employer or principal, as the case may be, is, in addition to the employee or agent, liable to conviction for that offence; or

b) would constitute an offence by the employer or principal, as the case may be, in terms of this Act, that employee or agent will in addition to that employer or principal be liable to conviction for that offence.

146
Q

Section 8(1) of this Act states that?

A

Every employer shall provide and maintain, as far as is reasonably practicable, a working environment that is safe and without risk to the health of his employees.

147
Q

Section 9(1) of the OHSA reads?

A

Every employer should conduct his undertaking in such a manner as to ensure, as far as is reasonably practicable, that persons other than those in his employment who may be directly affected by his activities are not thereby exposed to hazards to their health or safety.

The effect of this provision is that employers also have a legal duty towards other people who may be affected by their working activities. This is of utmost importance because it extends the ambit of the OHSA to people other than employees. These visitors are exposed to the
the environment created, and activities performed there.

148
Q

What is Section 2A (2) of the MHSA?

A

Section 2A stipulates that the chief executive officer must take all reasonable steps to ensure that the functions of the employer as contemplated in this Act, are properly performed.

149
Q

What is Section 2A (2) of the MHSA section 3?

A

Appoint one or more competent managers. This manager must have the qualifications needed to carry out the day-to-day management and operations of the mine.

150
Q

What does Section 22 state?

A

Stipulates that every employee has certain health and safety rights and duties in the workplace. The primary duty of the employees is to take reasonable care to protect themselves and their colleagues from risks and hazards to health and safety in the working place. To enable the employees to enjoy their rights in terms of the Act, safeguards are provided which protect them from any form of discrimination.

151
Q

In terms of section 25, every mine with more than how many employees must have at least 1 representative for each shift and workplace?

A

20 employees must have at least 1 representative for each shift and working place. If there are 100 or more employees a SHE
committee must be established.

152
Q

In terms of section 89 of the COIDA?

A

The staff of contractors will be regarded as the principal’s employees if the contractor is not registered and paid up with the Compensation Commissioner. The principal should require of the contractor to supply a certificate of good standing issued by the Commissioner. This certificate (a section 89 certificate) is only valid for a year, and must be renewed.

153
Q

What does Section 35 of the COIDA cover?

A

Bars employees from recovering money from their employers for
injuries and diseases sustained at work. They can only claim from the Commissioner.

154
Q

Environmental Law should be regarded as including the following areas of general concern?

A
  • Land-use planning & development;
  • Resource conservation and utilisation; and
  • Waste management and pollution control.
155
Q

The legal principles of sustainable development include?

A
  • Intergenerational equity principle;
  • Sustainable use principle;
  • Equitable use principle;
  • Integration principle.
156
Q

What does the Precautionary principle state?

A

This principle refers to the idea that the lack of certainty should not be used as an excuse to postpone action when there is a threat of serious or irreversible damage and/or harm.

157
Q

What is the ‘Best practicable environmental option’?

A

The option that provides the most benefit, or causes the least damage, to the environment as a whole, at a cost acceptable to society, in the long term as well as in the short term.

158
Q

What is meant by “Cradle to grave” responsibility?

A

Responsibility for the environmental and health and safety consequences of a policy, programme, project, product, process, service or activity exists throughout its life cycle.

159
Q

What is the Polluter pays principle?

A

Polluter pays principle is defined in Section 28 under Duty of care and remediation of environmental damage.

160
Q

What is the purpose of the NEMA Act?

A
  • Promote co-operative governance; and

- Establish systems, procedures and policies for a co-ordinated national environment management.

161
Q

Environmental management must place people and their needs at the forefront of?

A

Its concerns, and serve their physical, psychological, developmental, cultural and social interests equitably.

162
Q

NEMA Section 28 state?

A

Duty of care.

163
Q

Risk assessment steps?

A
  1. Objective of assessment
  2. Identify the Hazard
  3. Assess Risk
  4. Risk Rating
164
Q

What are the steps of having an effective preparedness programme in place?

A
  1. Procedures to assess the impact of the incident need to be in place,
  2. Employees should be trained to make judgements and act accordingly,
  3. Effective communications
  4. Emergency procedures should be tested where practical,
  5. Emergency procedures should be reviewed periodically.
165
Q

What does EIA stand for?

A

Environmental Impact Assessment

166
Q

What is an Environmental Impact Assessment?

A

An Environmental Impact Assessment is the administrative or regulatory process by which the environmental impact of a project is determined.

167
Q

What are the stages of the EIA process

A
  1. Screening - Deciding if an EIA is required
  2. Scoping - Deciding what needs to be covered in the assessment and reported in the ‘EIA Report’
  3. Preparing the EIA Report -The EIA report has to include the likely significant environmental effects of the development
  4. Making an application and consultation - The EIA Report and development application must be publicised (including electronic advertisement), and interested parties and the public must be given an opportunity to give their views on it
  5. Decision-making - The EIA Report and any comments made on it must be taken into account by the competent authority before they decide whether to give consent for the development. The decision notice has to be published
  6. Post decision - The developer starts any monitoring required
    by the competent authority.
168
Q

What is the scope and Ambit of environmental law?

A
169
Q

The reason the significance of the aspects is evaluated is?

A
  1. To ensure that the aspects are prioritized accordingly (i.e. from the least to the most environmentally hazardous) and:
  2. That it can be determined if the control measures currently in place are appropriate. It is not practical or logical to imagine that all the aspects can be managed to an equal extent.
170
Q

What is pollution?

A

Can be described as any change in the environment caused by substances, noise, odours, dust, heat and radioactive or other waves emitted from any activity.

171
Q

What is primary pollution?

A

Pollutants arising directly from natural or human activity.

172
Q

What are the stages of Impact analysis?

A
  1. Identification - to specify the impacts associated with each phase of the project and the activities undertaken;
  2. prediction - to forecast the nature, magnitude, extent and duration of the main impacts; and
  3. evaluation - to determine the significance of residual impacts, i.e. after taking into account how mitigation will reduce a predicted impact.
173
Q

The elements of mitigation and impact management hierarchy of action?

A
  1. Avoid adverse impacts as far as possible by use of preventive measures;
  2. Minimize or reduce adverse impacts to “as low as practicable” levels;
  3. Remedy or compensate for adverse residual impacts which are unavoidable and cannot be reduced further.
174
Q

What are the four steps of Identifying and Implementing cleaner production opportunities?

A 
Step1
Evaluation of existing processes
- Process mapping
- Quantification of losses
Step 2
Identification of the causes of the losses
Step 3
Identification of solutions/alternatives
Step 4
Implementation and of solutions/alternatives
175
Q

What is the waste hierarchy of controls?

A 
Eliminate
Minimize 
Re-use
Recover
Treat
Dispose
176
Q

What are the reporting principles?

A
  1. Transparency
  2. Inclusiveness
  3. Auditability
  4. Completeness
  5. Relevance
  6. Sustainability context
  7. Accuracy
  8. Neutrality
  9. Comparability
  10. Clarity
  11. Timeliness
177
Q

Define Mist?

A

Suspended liquid droplets generated during the condensation from the gaseous to the liquid state. It can also be formed when liquids are broken up into the dispersed state such as by splashing, foaming or atomising.

Mists are formed when a finely divided liquid is suspended into the air.

178
Q

Poor lighting can contribute to?

A
  • Incidents and injuries
  • Tired, sore, dry eyes
  • Headaches
  • Blurred vision and double vision.
179
Q

Explain the in-hours Sound level in dB(A)?

A 
8 hours @ 85dB
6 hours @ 92dB
4 hours @ 95dB
3 hours @ 97db
2 hours @ 100dB
1 1/2 hours @ 102dB
1 hours 105db
1/2 hours @ 110dB
1/4 hours or less 115dB
180
Q

Define Acceleration?

A

Vibration can be measured as a rate of change of velocity or acceleration, measured in meters per second per second (m/s’).

181
Q

Define Accelerometers?

A

Equipment used to measure acceleration. Commercial models can be fitted on to vibration surfaces such as the seat of a truck.

182
Q

Define Vibration Frequency?

A

The number of oscillations in a given time.

183
Q

Define Hertz?

A

The units of frequency are Hertz (Hz).

184
Q

Define Low Frequency?

A

Frequencies less than 20 Hz.

185
Q

Define TOXICOLOGY?

A

Is the study of the adverse effects of chemicals or physical agents on living organisms.

186
Q

Define TOXIC AGENT?

A

Is anything that can produce an adverse biological effect. It may be chemical, physical, or biological in form. For example, toxic agents may be chemical (such as cyanide), physical (such as radiation) and biological (such as snake venom).

187
Q

Define SYSTEMIC EFFECT?

A

Systemic effects are toxic effects in tissues distant from the route of absorption.

188
Q

Define LOCAL EFFECTS?

A

Effects occur at route of absorption.

189
Q

Define ACUTE EFFECTS?

A

Exposure is characterized by sharpness or severity, having a rapid onset and a relatively short duration. Acute effects occur after limited exposure, e.g. when there were leakages or spillage accidents, etc, and shortly (hours, days) thereafter and
may be reversible or irreversible. Acute effects are immediate, with serious reaction such as unconsciousness, burns, etc.

190
Q

Define CHRONIC EFFECTS?

A

Effects occur when a person is exposed to a low concentration for prolonged periods of time (months, years, decades) and/or persist after exposure has ceased. Sometimes life-long. The effect will develop gradually and is usually accompanied by changes in the body, e.g. lung problems and cancers.

191
Q

Define SENSITISER?

A

A chemical that causes a substantial proportion of exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction in normal tissue after repeated exposure to the chemical.

192
Q

Define ASPHYXIANTS?

A

These are chemical substances which cause a lack of oxygen (anoxia) in the blood and tissues. Examples: nitrogen, carbon dioxide, hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and hydrogen cyanide.

193
Q

Define IRRITANTS?

A

Corrosive or vesicant on the tissue surface. Examples: hydrogen chloride, ammonia

194
Q

Define ANAESTHETICS OR NARCOTICS?

A

Affect permeability of nerve cell membranes by acting on fatty areas. This penetration of the “blood-brain” barrier affects the performance of the nerve cell. Examples: acetylene, and ethylene.

195
Q

Define TERATOGENS?

A

Toxic substances which act on the unborn foetus to produce congenital malformations (X-ray).

196
Q

Define EMBRYOTOXIC MATERIALS?

A

Toxic substances or materials that act on the unborn foetus to produce abortion.

197
Q

Define MUTAGENS?

A

Mutagens act on genetic material (DNA) to result in alteration.

198
Q

Define CARCINOGENS?

A

Carcinogens act on many different types of body tissue to produce cancer.

199
Q

What are the factors influencing the toxic effects?

A 
EXPOSURE ROUTEbute first
FORM AND INNATE CHEMICAL ACTIVITY: The form of a 
DOSAGE, ESPECIALLY DOSE-TIME RELATIONSHIP
SPECIES
AGE
SEX
ABILITY TO BE ABSORBED
METABOLISM
DISTRIBUTION WITHIN THE BODY
EXCRETION
PRESENCE OF OTHER CHEMICALS
HEALTH STATUS
200
Q

What are the routes of entry into the human body?

A

INHALATION (RESPIRATORY TRACT)
SKIN ABSORPTION
INGESTION (GASTRO INTESTINAL TRACT)

201
Q

What are some of the health effects of the inhalation of Dust?

A
202
Q

What are the three categories that dust can be classified in?

A

INHALABLE DUST
RESPIRABLE DUST
THORACIC DUST

203
Q

Inhalation of Dust can lead to?

A 
PNEUMONITIS
SILICOSIS
MESOTHELIOMA
CHRONIC OBSTRUCTIVE PULMONARY DISEASES (COPD) 
CHRONIC BRONCHITIS
EMPHYSEMA
CHRONIC AIRFLOW LIMITATIONS
204
Q

Define MICRO ORGANISM?

A

Microbiological entities, cellular or non-cellular, capable of replication or of transferring genetic material.

205
Q

Define HAZARDOUS BIOLOGICAL AGENTS (HBA)?

A

Any micro-organisms, including those that have been genetically modified, pathogens, cells, cell cultures and human endoparasites that have the potential to provoke an infection.

206
Q

Define GROUP 1 HBA?

A

Unlikely to cause human disease

207
Q

Define GROUP 2 HBA?

A

May cause human disease and be a hazard to exposed persons, which is unlikely to spread to the community and for which effective prophylaxis and treatment are usually available.

208
Q

Define GROUP 3 HBA?

A

May cause severe human disease, which presents a serious hazard to exposed persons and which may present a risk of spreading to the community, but for which effective prophylaxis and treatment are available.

209
Q

Define GROUP 4 HBA?

A

Causes severe human disease and is a serious hazard to exposed persons and which may present a high risk of spreading to the community, but for which no effective prophylaxis and treatment is available.

210
Q

What are sources of Organic dust as a source of biological hazards?

A

There are many hazards associated with breathing organic dust in agricultural operations. Organic dust comes from hay, grain, fuel chips, straw, and livestock. Organic dust includes moulds, pollens, bacteria, pesticides, chemicals, feed and bedding particles, and animal particles including hair, feathers, and droppings.

211
Q

Give examples of Birds and bat droppings as a source of biological hazard?

A

Health risks arise from disease organisms that can grow in the nutrient-rich accumulations of bird droppings, feathers and debris under a roost External parasites also may become a problem when infested birds or bats leave roosts or nests. The parasites then can invade buildings and bite people.

212
Q

What are the diseases caused by bird droppings?

A

Several diseases are caused by fungi and bacteria present in bird and bat droppings, including cryptococcus, histoplasmosis, and psittacosis

213
Q

Rodents as a source of biological hazard are?

A

Some of the major diseases they have been associated with include plague, rickettsial diseases, leptospirosis, rat bite fever, trichinosis, hantavirus, rabies and bacterial food poisoning.

214
Q

Sewage or wastewater as a potential source of hazardous biological agents?

A

Bacteria
Funguses
Parasites
Viruses

215
Q

Define HEAT STROKE and give the signs and symptoms of it?

A

Heat stroke is the most serious health problem associated with working in hot temperatures. It occurs when the body’s temperature regulation system fails and
sweating becomes inadequate or stops entirely. Unless the victim receives quick and appropriate treatment, death may occur.
Symptoms - Chills, restlessness, irritability, and mental confusion.
Signs - Euphoria, red face, disorientation, hot, dry skin (usually), sweating stops, erratic behaviour, collapse, shivering, unconsciousness, convulsions, and body temperature > 30°C.
Cause - Excessive heat exposure combined with a high workload.
First Aid - Immediate professional medical treatment, replace fluids, and aggressive cooling (ice packs).

Prevention - Acclimation, healthy life style, appropriate work-rest cycle, fluid intake,
proper diet, and self-determination of heat stress exposure.

216
Q

Define HEAT EXHAUSTION and give the signs and symptoms?

A

Heat exhaustion is caused by the loss of large amounts of fluid from sweating, sometimes with excessive loss of salt. A worker suffering from heat exhaustion still sweats but experiences extreme fatigue or loses consciousness. If heat exhaustion is not treated, the illness may advance to heat stroke.
Symptoms - Fatigue, weakness, blurred vision, dizziness, and headaches.
Signs - High pulse rate, profuse sweating, and low blood pressure, pale face, clammy skin, collapse, vomiting, and slightly increased body temperature.
Cause - Dehydration, low level of acclimation, and low level of physical fitness.
First Aid - Lie down flat on back in cool environment, drink water, cool skin with cool spray mist or wet cloth, and loosen clothing.
Prevention - Drink water or other fluids frequently, take rest breaks in cool area, and acclimation.

217
Q

Define DEHYDRATION and give the signs and symptoms?

A

Symptoms - No early symptoms, fatigue, weakness, and dry mouth.
Signs - Loss of work capacity and increased response time.
Cause - Excess fluid loss and alcohol consumption.
First Aid - Fluid and salt replacement.
Prevention - Drink water frequently.

218
Q

Define HEAT SYNCOPE?

A

Symptoms - Blurred vision, fainting, and normal body temperature.
Signs - Brief fainting.
Cause - Pooling of blood in the legs and skin from prolonged static posture and heat exposure.
First Aid - Lie on back in cool environment and drink water.
Prevention - Flex leg muscles several times before moving and stand or sit up slowly

219
Q

Define HEAT CRAMPS and give the signs and symptoms?

A

Heat cramps are painful spasms of the muscles that occur among those who sweat profusely in heat, and drink large quantities of water, but do not adequately replace the body’s salt loss.
Symptoms - Painful muscle cramps.
Signs - Incapacitating pain in muscle.
Cause - Electrolyte imbalance caused by prolonged sweating without fluid and salt replacement, can be caused by too little or too much salt.
First Aid - Rest in a cool environment, massage muscles, and drink carbohydrate-electrolyte replacement liquids.

220
Q

Define HEAT RASH and give the signs and symptoms?

A

Heat rash is likely to occur in hot, humid environments where sweat is not easily removed from the surface of the skin by evaporation and skin remains wet most of the time.
Symptoms - Itching red skin, and reduced sweating.
Signs - Skin eruptions.
Causes - Prolonged, uninterrupted sweating, and poor hygiene.
First Aid - Keep skin clean and dry, change from wet clothes to dry clothes, and reduce heat exposure.
Prevention- Keep skin clean and periodically allow skin to dry.

221
Q

What are some of the Effects/symptoms of hand-held vibrating tools?

A
  • Prolonged exposure to vibration leads to damage in several organ systems of the upper limb.
    Blood vessels, nerves, muscles, bones and joints can all be affected by vibration.
  • Damage to the vascular system is a direct effect of the vibration on the blood vessels themselves.
  • Of the fingers or parts of the hand, hence the term vibration-induced white finger. Raynaud’s phenomenon or dead finger is essentially irreversible, so prevention is a high priority. Ulcers and gangrene can develop in advanced cases.
  • Neurological and muscular damage causes numbness and tingling in the fingers and hands. Neurological damage also causes a reduction in sensation to touch and temperature, as well as reducing grip strength and manual dexterity.
    Damage to nerves and swelling of adjacent tissues due to the trauma of vibration may contribute to compressing nerves and increasing the symptoms of tingling, numbness and pain.
  • The symptoms experienced from bone and joint damage are pain and stiffness in the hand, joints of the wrist, elbow and shoulder. Osteoarthritis and bone cysts occur in workers who are exposed to vibration from hand-held tools. This might
    be caused by decalcification of bones through vibration.

Workers who use hand-held power tools are subject to other ergonomic risks factors such as awkward postures, exertion of force and repetitive procedures which can increase the risk of developing HAVSs.

222
Q

What is Personal monitoring?

A

This is the measurement of a particular employee’s exposure to airborne contaminants. In personal monitoring, the measurement device, a dosimeter, is placed close to the port of entry of the contaminant.

223
Q

What is Static monitoring (Area or static sampling)?

A

This method is preferred when monitoring to determine the efficiency of control measures and where concentrations are uniform . This is the measurement of contaminant concentrations in the workroom. The measurement device is placed adjacent to the worker’s normal workstation.

224
Q

The body loses heat to the environment by four different routes?

A
  • Radiation
  • Conduction
  • Convection
  • Evaporation
225
Q

What is Hypothermia and give the signs and symptoms?

A

Normal body temperature (98.6 F / 37 C) drops to or below 95 F (35 C). The core body temperature decreases to a level at which normal muscular and brain functions are impaired. Wet clothes dramatically increase the risk of developing hypothermia. Hypothermia can lead to death if the body is not treated.

  • Symptoms - Chills, pain in extremities, fatigue, and drowsiness.
  • Signs - Euphoria, loss of coordination, violent shivering, slurred speech, slow and weak pulse, irrational behaviour, collapse, unconsciousness, body temperature <35°, pupils dilate, and pale skin.
  • Causes - Cold temperatures, wetness, improper clothing, exhaustion, dehydration, poor food intake, no knowledge of hypothermia.
  • First Aid - Move to warm dry area, remove wet clothing, wrap in dry blankets, modest external warming (external heat packs), drink warm sweet fluids, and take to the hospital.
226
Q

What is frostbite and give some signs and symptoms?

A
  • Freezing in deep layers of skin and tissue, usually affects the finger, hands, toes, feet, ears, and nose.
  • Symptoms - Burning sensation at first, coldness, numbness, and tingling.
  • Signs - Skin colour white or greyish yellow to reddish violet to black and blister.
  • Causes - Exposure to cold, and poor circulation.
  • First Aid - Move to warm area and remove wet clothing, external warming (warm water), and drink warm sweet fluids, do not rub affected area, and take person to
    the hospital.
227
Q

What is Trench Foot?

A

Is caused from wet feet and exposure to cold temperatures above freezing.
* Symptoms - Severe pain, tingling, and itching in feet and legs.
Signs - Edema, blisters, reduced touch sensation.
* Causes - Exposure to cold (above freezing) and dampness.
* First Aid - Similar to frostbite.

228
Q

What s general ventilation?

A

General ventilation reduces airborne concentrations of chemicals by diluting the workplace air with cleaner air from outside. General ventilation can effectively remove large amounts of hot or humid air, or dilute low concentrations of low toxicity

229
Q

What are two types of general ventilation?

A

Natural general ventilation.

General mechanical ventilation.

230
Q

What is a LOCAL EXHAUST VENTILATION SYSTEMS?

A

Local exhaust ventilation removes the contaminant rather than diluting it. This type of ventilation is only effective if it is located close to the source of the hazard.

231
Q

What is CARBON MONOXIDE?

A

Carbon monoxide (CO) is a colourless, odourless, and tasteless gas that is a product of incomplete combustion of any carbon-containing fuel. It is a chemical asphyxiat that prevents oxygen from reaching the body’s tissues. Outdoor levels are usually between 1-10 ppm with indoor levels usually tracking outdoor levels.

232
Q

Define CO2?

A

Carbon dioxide is a chemical compound occurring as a colorless gas with a density about 53% higher than that of dry air.

233
Q

Define Occupational health?

A

Is the responsibility and duty of the employer, providing a strong
incentive to establish an occupational health management system in every organisation.

234
Q

Occupational health is concerned with?

A

Any occupation, task, substance, process or circumstance which may affect a person’s health and safety at work.

235
Q

Define Occupational hygiene?

A

Deals with the anticipation, recognition, evaluation and control of
conditions arising in or from the work place ,which may cause illness or adverse health effects to persons.

236
Q

Define Occupational medicine?

A 
Deals with the prevention, monitoring, diagnosis and treatment
of illness (occupational), injury and the adverse health effects associated with a particular task, equipment or substance
237
Q

Define Occupational safety?

A

Deals mainly with the implementation and maintenance of control
measures as recommended by the Occupational Hygiene surveys.

238
Q

Sub categories under OCCUPATIONAL

HYGIENE?

A 
Identification
Measurement
Evaluation
Control
Hazard Identification
239
Q

What are the subcategories of Occupational

medicine?

A

Medical Surveillance program
Compliance with legislative requirements
Occupational disease/injury management

240
Q

What are the subcategories of Primary Health care?

A
  • Lifestyle Education
  • Early identification of Illness and diseases
  • Chronic disease management
241
Q

What is risk management?

A

Refers to the process of identifying, assessing, and eliminating risks that can cost businesses more than monetary loss. Through risk management strategies, companies can stay prepared for unexpected events and surprises. You have different ways of managing risks, such as:

  • Avoid the risks that are of no advantage to your business.
  • Sharing the risks with the team, stakeholders, and third-party to lower its burden.
  • Accepting the risks that have no possible solution at a particular time or may require a contingency plan in the later phase.
  • Controlling the risks through suitable CAPA Management plans. You can also rely on PDCA, i.e., the Plan-Do-Check-Act methodology, to manage risks efficiently and effectively.
242
Q

Why are risk assessments important?

A

As already discussed above, risk assessments are the primary step for effective risk management. It is recommended for every industry or organization to document their risk assessment strategy. After-all, it ensures the well-being of the employees and employers.

243
Q

What are the different types of risk assessments?

A

What are the different types of risk assessments?
The types of risk assessment activities in any organization depend on the operational activities conducted on a regular basis. Many industries have specific environmental or legislative requirements to take care of. Some of the most common types of risk assessment activities include:

  • Fire-Safety Related Risk Assessments
    To prevent fire incidents in the organization.
  • Health and Safety Related Risk Assessments
    To prevent any disease or injury to the workforce.
  • Equipment Usage Related Risk Assessments
    To prevent risks of overusing the equipment.
  • COSHH Related Risk Assessments
  • To prevent accidents, especially in the workplaces that use hazardous substances.
244
Q

Explain in more detail what Risk Management is?

A

Is the continuing process to identify, analyze, evaluate, and treat loss exposures and monitor risk control and financial resources to mitigate the adverse effects of loss. We typically simplify this a bit and describe it as the Identification, Analysis (or Measurement), Treatment and Monitoring of risk.

245
Q

Explain in more detail what Risk Assessment is?

A

Includes processes and technologies that identify, evaluate, and report on risk-related concerns. Risk assessment process is a “key component” of the risk management process. Identification and Analysis phases.

246
Q

What are the elements of successful occupational health management?

A 
Policy
Planning
Implementation and operation
Checking and corrective action
Management review
Continuous improvement
247
Q

What are the aims of The Occupational Health Services?

A
248
Q

Define Primary health care?

A

Involves the immediate treatment of minor/serious injury or illness, chronic diseases and minor ailments occurring at the workplace

249
Q

What are the objectives a Occupational Health Service?

A
  • Protecting the workers against any health hazard which may arise from work or conditions in which it is carried out. (protection and prevention principle).
  • Adapting work and the work environment to the capabilities of workers (adaptation principle) by placing them in jobs to which they are suited (inherent job requirement).
  • Contributing towards workers’ physical and mental adjustment, social well-being (health promotion principle) as well as their ability to conduct a socially and economic productive life.
  • Minimising the consequences of occupational hazards, accidents and injuries and occupation-related diseases (the cure and rehabilitative principle).
  • Providing general healthcare services for employees and their families, both curative and
    preventive (the PHC principle) either on-site, or by providing means like health cover assistance, e.g. medical aid/social security.

The guiding principle should be to ensure as far as is reasonably practical:

  • Asafe and healthy workplace.
  • The availability of adequate health care to all employees.
250
Q

What two aspects makeup ‘Risk Communication’?

A

Occupation Hygiene Surveys

Risk - profile

251
Q

Name a few Physical hazards?

A

Hazards that arise from the general work environment, such as uneven floors, ionising radiation (X-rays), noise, lighting, vibration, extreme temperatures and poor ventilation

252
Q

Name a few Chemical hazards?

A

Hazards that arise from substances, such as acids, pesticides, herbicides, fumes, dusts, gases, flammable substances, solvents, effluent and solid waste

253
Q

Name a few Biological hazards?

A

Hazards that arise from biological agents, such as insects, vermin (rats and mice), pathogens, viruses (HIV/AIDS) and medical waste.

254
Q

Name a few Mechanical hazards?

A

Mechanical hazards: Hazards that arise from machinery and equipment, such as lifts, cutting machines, electrical hand tools, portable electrical equipment, lifting equipment and forklifts.

255
Q

Name a few Ergonomic hazards?

A

Hazards that arise from the worker machine interface, such as manual handling, repetitive movement, poor design, restricted space, outdated design and technology.

256
Q

Name a few Psychosocial hazards?

A

Psychosocial hazards: Hazards that arise from social or work culture conditions, such as shift work, peer pressure, alcohol/drug misuse and stress.

257
Q

Name a few Behavioural hazards?

A

Hazards that arise from worker behaviour or attitude, such as unsafe acts or omissions and tomfoolery

258
Q

Name a few Environmental aspects?

A

Environmental aspects: Aspects that arise from a company’s interaction with the environment, such as contaminated air (emissions), sludge and other solid wastes (discharges), polluted water (discharges), other types of pollution (for example noise), all types of other waste (including hazardous waste) and resource
use/depletion

Greek language (15 decks)

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