Q&A 3 Flashcards
1
Q
Explain effective leadership in terms of corporate governance?
A
• Legitimacy • Ethical Culture • Effective control • Good performance (LEEG) = (outcome and leadership)
2
Q
Explain corporate governance?
A
- Corporate governance is the system by which companies are directed and controlled
Corporate governance is a: - set of processes, - customs, - policies, - laws, and - institutions affecting the way a corporation is: - directed, - administered or - controlled.
3
Q
Name four items that would feature in a Department of Labour inspection?
A
• Proof of registration with the Compensation Commissioner and Unemployment Insurance Fund (UIF), as well as proof of the last payments made.
• A summary of legislation displayed in the workplace for the:
- OHS Act and the Regulations
- BCEA
- EEA
• The appointment of health and safety representatives for the workplace. This appointed person should have a letter of appointment, and the labour inspector will request the minutes of previous meetings that were held.
• The employer and employees trained to recognise health and safety hazards and risks including:
- Are moving parts like drive belts and chains guarded?
- Are chemicals used safely and stored in a safe place?
- Are emergency exits clearly marked and easily accessible?
- Are fire extinguishers accessible and serviced regularly?
- Are flammable materials stored and used correctly, for instance not near hot surfaces or areas?
- Are all electrical wires insulated and proper plugs used in the workplace?
• The provision of fully equipped first-aid boxes on the premises.
• Whether or not the employer reports occupational injuries and diseases to the Department of Labour in the manner and time required.
• Whether there are clean and hygienic toilets and washing facilities provided for both sexes.
4
Q
What are the powers of the EMI?
A
- Routine inspection:
- Investigation:
- Enforcement:
- Administrative powers
A range of powers can be conferred on environmental management inspectors, including powers of:
• Routine inspection:
o Entering premises to ascertain compliance
o Seizing evidence of non-compliance
• Investigation:
o Questioning witnesses
o Copying documents
o Inspecting and removing articles or substances
o Taking photographs and audio-visual recordings
o Taking samples
o Removing waste
• Enforcement:
o Searching and seizing premises, containers, vessels, vehicles and aircraft
o Searching pack animals
o Establishing roadblocks
o Arresting
• Administrative powers:
o Issuing compliance notices
5
Q
Explain legislation?
A
Is law that is passed by a legislature or other governing body, such as a body of representatives that have been democratically or otherwise elected or appointed. It can be considered the body of written law.
6
Q
Explain section 24 and Chapter 2 of the constitution?
A
The Bill of Rights – provides every South African citizen with fundamental rights: 1. rights to equality, 2. human dignity, 3. freedom, 4, privacy and 5. freedom of expression, among others.
7
Q
Explain Hybrid legal system and Habeas Corpus?
A
A writ of habeas corpus is used to bring a prisoner or other detainee (e.g. institutionalized mental patient) before the court to determine if the person’s imprisonment or detention is lawful. A habeas petition proceeds as a civil action against the State agent (usually a warden) who holds the defendant in custody.
8
Q
Where there is a lack of intent the burden of proof requires…….or……..to be proven?
A
Either Negligence or Recklessness be proven
9
Q
Name the categories of people entitled to compensation in terms of COID ACT?
A
- Employees; or
* Direct dependents of employees.
10
Q
Explain Prohibition, Contravention and improvement notices?
A
- Prohibition notice:
1. In the case of threatening danger, prohibit a particular action, process, machine or equipment.
2. closing an entire facility or site.
3. No disregard this notice.
4. Take immediate effect. - Contravention notice:
1. Contravene certain Regulations or a section of the Act,
2. the employer may be given the opportunity to correct the contravention within a time, usually 60 days. - Improvement notice:
1. H&S measures do not satisfactorily protect the H&S of Workers.
2. Employer to bring in effective measures in a specified amount of time - Prohibition notice: In the case of threatening danger, an inspector may prohibit a particular action, process, or the use of a machine or equipment, by means of a prohibition notice. A prohibition notice in the extreme may include closing an entire facility or site. No person may disregard the contents of such a notice and compliance must take place with immediate effect.
- Contravention notice: If a provision of a Regulation or a section of the Act is contravened, the inspector may serve this particular notice on the employer. A contravention of the Act itself can result in immediate prosecution, but in the case of a contravention of a Regulation, the employer may be given the opportunity to correct the contravention within a time limit specified in the notice, which is usually 60 days.
- Improvement notice: Where the health and safety measures that the employer has instituted do not satisfactorily protect the health and safety of the workers, the inspector may require the employer to bring about more effective measures, usually within a specified amount of time and at the discretion of the inspector. This ‘lesser’ notice, which prescribes the corrective measures needed, is then served on the employer.
11
Q
Is the OHS ACT applicable to Vessels and Marine?
A
No
12
Q
Explain the difference between criminal and civil liability?
A
CRIMINAL LIABILITY:
LIABILITY TYPE: Public
LEGAL ENTITY: The state is always the prosecuting authority
LEGAL PROCESS: Prosecution
BURDEN OF PROOF: Beyond a reasonable doubt
POSSIBLE OUTCOME: Guilty
PENALTY INCURRED: Jail time or fine, or both
CIVIL LIABILITY:
LIABILITY TYPE: Privat
LEGAL ENTITY: An action between two or more parties whether the parties are natural or juristic persons or a combination of both
LEGAL PROCESS: Action (usually in the form of a lawsuit)
BURDEN OF PROOF: On the balance of probability
POSSIBLE OUTCOME: Liable
PENALTY INCURRED: Damages (these are usually in monetary terms), although damages can also be in the form of restitution or a form of redress
13
Q
Provide and example of a crime that will fall under criminal liability?
A
Homicide, which involves the illigal killing of a person
14
Q
As per Nema provide the following sections of the Act;
- Controlling of Incidents
- Protection of person refusing to do anything to
pollute the environment
- Explain what Section 30 and 32 address
A
- Controlling of Incidents: Section 30
- Protection of person refusing to do anything to
pollute the environment: Section 29 - Explain:
- Section 30: Control of Incident, and
- Section 32 address: Legal standing to enforce Environmental Laws
15
Q
Explain the positive outcomes arise from the passing of Nema law and List citing of legislation from regulation onwards.
A
To provide for co-operative, environmental governance by establishing principles for decision-making on matters affecting the environment
16
Q
Explain several and joint liability, vicarious liability and strict liability?
A
- several and joint liability:
- More than one party can be held liable for a given offence - vicarious liability:
- law holds a person/employer, liable for the wrongful act or omission of another, regardless of whether it was that person’s fault - strict liability:
- No need to prove intent for a person’s acts or omissions in order to make them liable. -
Committing the act or omission is de facto culpability: you committed the act or omission and you are instantly liable.
- applies in both criminal and civil law. - several and joint liability: More than one party can be held liable for a given offence
- vicarious liability: it is a legal term that is used in describing a situation where the law holds a person, or an employer, liable for the wrongful act or omission of another, regardless of whether it was that person’s fault
- strict liability: There is no need to prove intent for a person’s acts or omissions in order to make them liable. Committing the act or omission is de facto culpability: you committed the act or omission and you are instantly liable. Strict liability applies in both criminal and civil law.
17
Q
Provide two examples of international law and explain how they have an influenced our South African HSE law?
A
This law forms an important supplementary role in the formulation of South African HSE law. Sources of international HSE law are multi-dimensional and include:
• IOL = The International Labour Organization
• WHO = World Health Organization
• UNEP = UN Environment Programme
• ICJ = International Court of Justice
• UNESCO = UN Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
• Conventions*
• Protocols*
• MEAs = Multilateral environmental agreements
• Judicial decisions in other jurisdictions
• Jurisprudence by legal scholars
• Customary law
18
Q
What is the aim of the corporate governance outcomes.
A
- Legitimacy
- Ethical Culture
- Effective control
- Good performance
(Out = LEEG)
19
Q
Explain Common Law and provide four examples of common law?
A
Common law is that part of South African law that is not contained in legislation but is an equally important aspect of the country’s legal system.
It is referred to as ‘the unwritten law of the land’.
Common law in South Africa comprises: • Roman-Dutch law • English legal principles • Tribal/traditional law • Law of contract between parties • Precedent
20
Q
What does the following address:
- OHSA 29(2)
- OSHA 24(1)(a)
A
- OHSA 29(2): An Interpreter
2. OSHA 24(1)(a): Ill Health Injuries
21
Q
Explain the possible symptoms of whole body syndrome?
A
- attacks of whitening (blanching) of one or more fingers when exposed to cold
- tingling and loss of sensation in the fingers
- loss of light touch
- pain and cold sensations between periodic white finger attacks
- loss of grip strength
- bone cysts in fingers and wrists
22
Q
List and explain four routes of exposure?
A
- Inhalation: Breathe in
- Ingestion: Eat it
- Skin absorption: Touch it
- Injection: Right in:
23
Q
Provide the correct Hazard description as per the GHS?
A
GHS01: Explosive GHS02: Flammable GHS03: Oxidizing GHS04: Compressed Gas GHS05: Corrosive GHS06: Toxic GHS07: Harmful GHS08: Health Hazard GHS09: Environmental Hazard (EFOCCTHHE)
24
Q
Explain the purpose of OREP?
A
The purpose of an occupational risk exposure profile [OREP) is to determine the nature and extent the medical surveillance that needs to be performed.
OREP is the formal documentation of the resulty of a hazard identification and risk assessment that has been formulated for a single occupationg
exposure group (i.e. a job category) or even specific employees.
- An OHMP and OHNP need the following to be completed to develop an OREP:
1. Health risk assessments relevant to the employee or group of employees.
2. Person-job specification (still often referred to in industry as the ‘man-job’ specification).
25
Name the health stressors and provide one example of each?
- Chemical stressors: dust
- Physical stressors: illustration, noise, ventilation, thermal conditions, radiation, vibration
- Biological stressors: rodents, humans, insect, birds and bats, cooling towers, mould
26
List the advantages of good illumination?
1. Preserving human energy
2. Decreasing risk of accidents
3. Increase productivity
27
Name auditory and non-auditory health effects?
```
Auditory:
- Temporary Threshold Shift
- Noise-induced hearing loss
Non-auditory:
- Wide range of influences on the human body
```
28
Name four dust-related diseases?
- Silicosis
- Chronic Bronchitis
- Emphysema
- Contact Dermatitis
- COPD
29
Explain Medical and Biological monitoring and provide two examples of each?
MEDICAL:
Medical surveillance is the method by which a worker's health is tested and ascertained.
X-Rays, MRI/CAT scan, Eye test, BP test
BIOLOGICAL:
Skin swabs, biopsy, lung function, blood test
30
Provide a list of the roles and functions of an Occupational Hygienist?
- Measuring
- Identification
- Control
- Evaluation
(MICE = Occupation Hygienist)
31
Explain 'at risk employee' and provide four examples?
An 'at-risk' employee is that employee who will require more medical surveillance due to:
- A more hazardous type of work/environment,
- Specific physical condition or demographic.
• Construction workers
• Workers in smelting processes
• Chemical workers
• Sanitation workers
• Work in confined spaces
• Work in hazardous locations
• Working at heights
• Pilots
32
Explain the difference between toxicology and toxic agent?
- Toxicology is: “the science of poisons” and “the study if adverse effects of chemicals or physical agents on living organisms”.
- A toxic agent is anything that can produce an adverse biological effect. Toxic agents may be chemicals (such as cyanide), physical (such as radiation) and biological (such as snake venom).
33
Briefly name the type of sampling methods with a short description of each?
1. Personal monitoring
2. Static monitoring (area or static sampling)
3. Worst-case sampling
4. Number of samples/sample range
5. Frequency and duration of sampling
6. Worker determination factors
7. Different methods of sampling
8. Interpretation of results
1. Personal monitoring: Personal monitoring is the measurement of a specific employee's exposure to a given stressor.
2. Static monitoring (area or static sampling): Static monitoring is preferred when monitoring to determine the efficiency of control measures and where concentrations are uniform.
3. Worst-case sampling: Workers who are suspected of greatest exposure to a given hazard (stressor) should be given priority in a monitoring strategy.
4. Number of samples/sample range: As a rule, workers can be divided into populations and sub- populations by considering their type of work, work environment and shifts..
5. Frequency and duration of sampling: Monitoring must be repeated as required by legislation.
6. Worker determination factors: Several factors influence the choice of an employee for monitoring.
7. Different methods of sampling: The two main methods of sampling are direct-reading methods and indirect-reading methods. Direct- reading devices give an instant result of the concentration, while indirect sampling devices collect the sample with subsequent analysis required in a laboratory.
8. Interpretation of results: Once sampling has been completed, the results will normally be a statement of the facts
34
Name two toxicity effects and how and where the toxins enter the body?
(SLAC = Systemic, Local, Acute, Cronic)
* Systemic effects: Systemic effects are toxic effects in tissues distant from the route of absorption
* Local effect: Local effects occur primarily at the route of absorption, i.e. the toxic effect is mostly local.
* Acute effects: Exposure is characterised by sharpness or severity with a rapid onset and a relatively short duration.
* Chronic effects: Chronic effects occur when a person is exposed to a low concentration for prolonged periods of time (months, years, even decades).
35
List the four stages of PHC?
Stage 1: Primary prevention
- Health Promotion
- Specific protection
Stage 2: Secondary prevention
- Prompt and effective treatment
- Limitation of disability
Stage 3. Tertiary prevention
- Rehabilitation
36
Define PHC?
PHC can be defined as essential healthcare that is both:
1. preventative.
2. curative.
Preventative, i.e. the proactive means by which good occupational health is maintained; and curative, i.e. the reactive means of providing first aid and trying to limit disability and, thereafter, rehabilitation if so required.
37
List three benefits of PHC?
1. Improved productivity
2. Reduced benefit cost
3. Reduced human resources and development cost
38
During the quality of illumination, we take into consideration the distribution of brightness in a visual environment, which includes four factors. Provide two factors?
- The degree of glare and contrast
| - The colour of the light
39
List four advantages of good illumination?
1. Preserving human energy
2. Decreasing the risk of accidents
3. Increasing productivity
40
What is the following expressed in? Noise, Vibration and HCA?
Frequency
Hertz
Mg/m3
41
Provide four examples of non-ionising radiation?
UV Radiation
Infrared
Laser
Microwave and high radio frequency
42
List three main categories of addiction?
Substance use addiction
Behavior addiction
Impulse disorder
43
Explain a fatigue management plan and provide an example?
- is a formal plan that seeks to minimise the risk of harm from fatigue to employees in the workplace.
Example:
• Detecting signs of fatigue.
• Clear understanding of employees/jobs prone to fatigue.
• Setting limits on working hours or standby
• Flexibility regarding shift work.
44
Provide four signs of mental fatigue and four examples of physical fatigue?
```
Mental Fatigue:
• Negative mood
• Reduced ability to communicate effectively
• Slips and lapses in cognition
• Poor memory, especially short-term
```
Physical Fatigue
• Tiredness even after sleep
• Reduced hand-eye coordination or slow reflexes
• Blurred vision or impaired visual perception
• Need for extended sleep during days off work
• Fidgeting
45
Explain general ventilation and provide two types of this type of ventilation?
* Natural general ventilation
* General mechanical ventilation
```
General ventilation (think Blow) reduces airborne concentrations of chemicals by diluting the workplace air with cleaner air from outside.
Two types:
• Natural general ventilation (wind and thermal forces) and features of buildings and designs to remove gases, dust, etc.
• General mechanical ventilation occurs when air velocity is created by mechanical means with the use of fans.
```
45
Explain general ventilation and provide two types of this type of ventilation?
General ventilation reduces airborne concentrations of chemicals by diluting the workplace air with cleaner air from outside.
There are two types of general ventilation:
• Natural general ventilation uses forces derived from nature (wind and thermal forces) and features of buildings and designs to remove gases, dust, etc.
• General mechanical ventilation occurs when air velocity is created by mechanical means with the use of fans.
46
Provide the classes of toxins and a brief explanation of each?
1. Sensitizers
2. Asphyxiants
3. Irritants
4. Anaesthetics and narcotics
5. Teratogen
6. Embryotoxins
7. Carcinogens
8. Mutagens
5. Teratogen: Think baby: A teratogen is a toxic substance that is potentially very harmful to an unborn child as it acts on the unborn foetus to produce congenital malformations, for example, X-rays.
6. Embryotoxins: Think mother: Embryotoxins are toxic substances or materials that act on the unborn foetus and can result in a spontaneous abortion (miscarriage), which in turn can be life- threatening for the mother. Examples are mercury compounds, lead, cadmium and radiation.
7. Carcinogens: Think cancer: Carcinogens act on many different types of body tissue to cause or aggravate cancer. They can also be a trigger for dormant cancerous conditions, for example, benzene, toluene, chromium VI, nicotine and aspartame.
8. Mutagens: Think genes: Mutagens could be considered the most toxic of all toxins since they act on and can alter genetic material (DNA), for example, bromine, sodium azide and gamma ray radiation.
1. Sensitizers: Think allergy: for example, wood dust and various food allergies.
2. Asphyxiants: Think suffocation: for example, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide.
3. Irritants: Think annoying: for example, acetylene and ethylene.
4. Anaesthetics and narcotics: Think sleep: for example, acetylene and ethylene
5. Teratogen: Think baby: for example, X-rays.
6. Embryotoxins: Think mother: for examples are mercury compounds, lead, cadmium and radiation.
7. Carcinogens: Think cancer: for example, benzene, toluene, chromium VI, nicotine and aspartame.
8. Mutagens: Think genes: for example, bromine, sodium azide and gamma-ray radiation.
47
List four benefits of implementing GHS?
a) Helps in preventive and protective precautions
b) Provides maximum value to the adopted regulatory system
c) Enhances overall protection
d) Recognizes regulations
e) Reduces the need for testing, and
f) Helps to facilitate safer international trade
48
Briefly explain Personal, Static Worst case sampling and Frequency and duration sampling?
1. Personal monitoring:
- measurement of a specific employee's exposure to a given stressor.
- employees who are in specific areas, for example, maintenance
2. Static monitoring (area or static sampling):
- determine the efficiency of control measures
- where concentrations are uniform.
- This is the measurement contaminant concentrations in a specific area.
3. Worst-case sampling:
- greatest exposure to a given hazard, priority in a monitoring strategy.
- If the worst-case worker is exposed at a safe level, then the other workers are presumed to be too.
1. Personal monitoring: Personal monitoring is the measurement of a specific employee's exposure to a given stressor. This method is preferred when monitoring the exposure of an employee or group of employees who are in specific areas of the workplace at regular frequencies, for example, maintenance workers.
2. Static monitoring (area or static sampling): Static monitoring is preferred when monitoring to determine the efficiency of control measures and where concentrations are uniform. This is the measurement of contaminant concentrations in a specific workplace or work area.
3. Worst-case sampling: Workers who are suspected of greatest exposure to a given hazard (stressor) should be given priority in a monitoring strategy. This is based on a worst-case strategy, the logic of which is that the results will also be applicable to those workers who are less exposed to a given hazard. If the worst-case worker is exposed at a safe level, then the other workers are presumed to be too.
49
Provide three examples of direct spread of flames?
- Flames spreading over a surface
- Falling objects
- Airborne pieces of burning material due to convection
50
Explain static electricity?
- Electrons leap between two objects that have opposing electric charges.
- Imbalance between negative and positive charges in an object.
Static electricity occurs when electrons leap between two objects that have opposing electric charges. Static electricity is the result of an imbalance between negative and positive charges in an object.
51
Explain over fusing?
- replaced fuses with one that can take heavier current loads.
- This prevents the tripping action
- If circuit breaker is too large, it prevents electricity from being safely carried which can cause an overload overloaded possibly leading to an electrical fire.
Fuses must never be replaced with fuses that can take heavier current loads. This will prevent the tripping action, which is a safety feature of any electric circuit. Over-fusing occurs when a circuit breaker is too large for the given electric circuit, which prevents electricity from being safely carried because the breaker will not trip if the circuit becomes overloaded. When this happens, the wires can overheat and this can possibly lead to an electrical fire.
52
List four fundamental safety requirements for workers working and/or operating lifting gear?
* Must be trained in accordance with the applicable legislation.
* Hand signals, in accordance with international codes, must be used.
* The signalman must be visible to the operator at all times.
* Except for emergency stop signals, the operator should only obey signals from the rigger.
* Slack must be taken up before lifting starts.
* No one may walk under an overhead load.
* Operators of lifting equipment must be trained in accordance with the applicable legislation.
* Hand signals, in accordance with international codes, must be used.
* The signalman must be visible to the operator at all times.
* Except for emergency stop signals, the operator should only obey signals from the rigger.
* Slack must be taken up before lifting starts.
* No one may walk under an overhead load.
53
Provide three hand tools with energy sources they used?
* Tools using human energy - Spade
* Portable pneumatic tools - Air pressure: Hilti gun
* Portable hydraulic tools - Liquid pressure: Jackhammer
* Fuel-powered tools - Fuel: Chainsaw
54
Provide three hindrances to an optimal site layout?
- Management pushback
- Legacy issues
- Financial cost implications
- Lack of understanding
55
Describe Mandatory and warning signs with reference to their geometric shape and background colours?
- Prohibition Signs (indicate certain behaviour is not allowed): Cycle with a diagonal bar - Red
- Mandatory Action Signs (indicate that a particular action must be taken): Circle - Blue
- Warning Signs (give warning about a specific hazard): Triangle - Yellow
- Safe Condition Signs (provide information about safe conditions): Square/rectangle - green
- Fire Safety Signs (provide information about fire safety): Square/rectangle - red (contras white)
56
Provide three tasks where rope access can be used.?
- High access cleaning
- Building maintenance
- High access cleaning
1. Installation and removal of signage
2. High access cleaning
3. Structural surveys
4. Building maintenance (Painting, waterproofing etc)
5. Rigging and hot work
6. Non- destructive testing (NDT)
57
List three attributes of a safety culture?
- Increased productivity
- Decreased accident rates
- Leadership by example
1. Increased productivity
2. Decreased accident rates
3. Increased employee morale
4. Improved job satisfaction
5. Leadership by example
* Employee empowerment becomes a norm
* Increased productivity
* Decreased absenteeism
* Decreased accident rates
* Increased employee morale
* Increased staff retention
* Improved job satisfaction
* Enhanced organisational competitiveness
* Decrease in accident and ill health costs
* Improved near miss reporting
* Leadership by example
* Safety norms are held as values by all employees
* Each individual behaves responsibly toward safety issues
* Each individual is willing, able and enabled to go beyond the call of duty to ensure compliance with safety standards
58
What are the core elements of safety leadership? List two elements?
The social process of influencing people to work persistently toward an organisational goal creating a safe working environment.
1. Act as a role model (lead by example)
2. Motivate employees to behave safely.
3. Instil a sense of achievement and pride
Safety leadership is generally defined as the social process of influencing people to work voluntarily, enthusiastically and persistently toward purposeful group or organisational goals, thereby creating a safe working environment.
• Act as a role model – 'lead by example'.
• Provide the necessary resources to ensure that safety practices are possible.
• Provide the necessary environment, which can ensure that a proactive safety culture is achieved.
• Motivate employees to behave safely.
• Monitor safety performance as required.
• Instil a sense of achievement and pride amongst all employees.
59
Explain the differences between Safety and Security Management - provide two of each?
SAFETY:
1. safety is about protecting the environment from the system
2. safety is the protection against hazards
3. Safety focuses on people being free from injury.
SECURITY:
1. security is about protecting the system from the environment
2. security is the state of feeling protected against threats that are deliberate and intentional.
3. Security is the state of people and the organisation being free from danger or threat.
Safety is about protecting the environment from the system and security is about protecting the system from the environment
60
Define behavior-based safety?
1. Reinforcing change to existing unsafe behaviours
2. Help identify caused of unsafe behaviours
3. Apply techniques to eliminate or minimise this behaviour
BBS can be defined as reinforcing change to existing unsafe behaviours in the workplace. BBS helps to identify the cause of unsafe behaviours and then applies techniques to eliminate or minimise this behaviour. It is about a commitment to safety by everyone in an organisation.
61
Provide three examples of safety devices and description of each?
1. Two-handed control devices
2. Remote control devices
3. Pullback or pull-out devices
- Two-handed control devices
- Remote control devices
- Pullback or pull-out devices
- Trip devices
- Restraints
- Enclosures
62
Provide two examples of mechanical hazards and non-mechanical hazards?
```
- Mechanical hazards
• Crushing
• Shearing
• Entanglement
• Impact
• Stabbing
```
```
- Non-mechanical hazards
• Chemicals
• Dust
• Electricity
• Fumes/vapours
• Noise
```
```
- Mechanical hazards
• Crushing
• Shearing
• Entanglement
• Drawing in (or trapping).
• Impact
• Stabbing, punctures and ejection
• Friction and abrasion
• High-pressure fluid injection
```
```
- Non-mechanical hazards
• Chemicals
• Dust
• Electricity
• Ergonomics
• Explosion/implosion
• Fumes/vapours
• Heat/fire
• Noise
• Oils and residues
• Radiation
• Vibration
```
63
Explain fixed guards, and interlocking guards. Provide two advantages and two disadvantages of each?
```
FIXED GUARDS
- prevent access to the dangerous parts of machines
Advantages:
• Easy to maintain and inspect
• Only be bypassed by a deliberate act
- Limitations include:
• Obstruct visibility and limit access
• Not interfaced with machinery controls so they do not afford protection if removed
```
INTERLOCKING GUARDS:
A mechanical or electrical device that is used to prevent the operation of the machine when the guard is not closed or interlocked
- Advantages:
• They allow for easier maintenance
• They have to be in place for the machine to operate normally
- Disadvantages are:
• They are more complicated and need more maintenance; thus, they are more likely to fail
• They can easily be bypassed
Fixed guards
Fixed guards prevent access to the dangerous parts of machines, which pose the greatest health and safety risks.
- Advantages, namely:
• They are easy to maintain and inspect
• They can only be bypassed by a deliberate act by a user - - Limitations include:
• They may obstruct visibility and limit access
• They are not interfaced with machinery controls so they do not afford protection if removed
Interlocking guards
An interlocking guard or device is a mechanical, electrical, or other type of device that is used to prevent the operation of machine elements under specified conditions (usually when the guard is not closed or interlocked).
- Advantages:
• They allow for easier maintenance access than fixed guards
• They have to be in place for the machine to operate normally - Disadvantages are:
• They are more complicated and need more maintenance; thus, they are more likely to fail
• They can easily be bypassed by a user if not properly implemented
64
Name the requirements needed to ensure safe stacking and storage?
* Ventilation
* Lighting
* Manoeuvring space.
* Maximum use of volume
* Fire Prevention
65
Which fire extinguishers are used on Class B, C, D and F?
- Class B: Foam, dry powder, Carbon dioxide, wet chemical
- Class C: Dry powder, Carbon dioxide, wet chemical
- Class D: Use special purpose extinguisher only
- Class F: None, specialised
66
What are the two categories of flammable liquids classified?
* High flashpoint (higher than 37.8°C but lower than 60°C).
| * Low flashpoint (lower than 37.8°C).
67
List the colors in a three phase permanent electrical installation?
* Live – any colour other than green or green/yellow that is clearly distinguishable from black
* Neutral – black
* Earth – copper or green, green/yellow combination
68
Explain access control (is it the most efficient way to restrict access to sensitive and unauthorized areas on company premises?
Access control is the most efficient way to prevent unauthorised visitors, restrict certain employees from accessing sensitive areas and manage employees' access rights.
Access control should determine who enters a business, when they entered and what door they used to enter.
Access control should encompass the following:
• Company security
• Physical production security
69
Name Symbolic safety signs, their geometric shapes and background colors?
- Red: Red is reserved for danger signs and labels. This color signifies a hazardous situation, alerts people they need to stop, or mark off restricted areas. OSHA says red will be the basic color for identifying fire protection equipment and apparatus.
- Orange: Used to alert people the fact there is dangerous parts of a machine or equipment. Most commonly used with labels that are placed directly on the machinery, but is also used for wall signs, specifically warning signs.
- Yellow: Yellow signs are used anywhere that caution needs to be used, specifically physical hazards. This includes risks of tripping, falling, getting burned, being caught in a pinch point, experiencing hearing damage, and almost any other common hazard that may be present.
- Green: Green is safety related and means there is no danger present. This color is commonly used for first aid signs or signs indicating exits.
- Blue: Provides information about a particular item or area. This information doesn’t necessarily have to be safety related, such as property policies. Blue signs are also used for signs depicting mandatory actions by the employee and notice signs.
- Magenta & Yellow: These signs using magenta text on a yellow background is used for radioactive materials or equipment that produces radiation.
- Black & White: Used for guiding traffic or telling people which direction to go. Could also be used for housekeeping information in the facility. While not specifically safety related, having this type of signage can directly improve the safety of the facility.
70
Name the risks relating to electricity?
* Contraction of the chest muscles could compromise the lungs resulting in death due to asphyxiation.
* Temporary paralysis of the central nervous system that disrupts the breathing rhythm.
* Disturbing of the rhythmic function of the heart (arrhythmia)
* Bleeding or damage of tissues along the path of the current due to burns.
* Electrical faults that could cause fires.
* Fire or explosion where electricity could be the source of ignition in a flammable or explosive atmosphere.
* The risk of injury from electricity is strongly linked to where and how it is used.
* Contraction of the chest muscles could compromise the lungs and result in death due to asphyxiation.
* Temporary paralysis of the central nervous system that disrupts the breathing rhythm.
* Disturbing of the rhythmic function of the heart, i.e. arrhythmia.
* Bleeding and/or damage of tissues along the path of the current due to burns.
* Electrical faults that could cause fires.
* Fire or explosion where electricity could be the source of ignition in a potentially flammable or explosive atmosphere.
* The risk of injury from electricity is strongly linked to where and how it is used.
71
Explain five safety features of stacking and racking systems?
* Ventilation
* Lighting: Luminaires (lights)
* Manoeuvring space
* Maximum use of volume
* Fire prevention:
72
Provide three diseases arising from water pollution and three from air pollution?
WATER:
- Cholera
- Typhoid
- Guinea worm disease
- Dysentery
AIR:
- Coronary heart disease
- Stroke
- COPD
- Lung cancer
- Asthma
SOIL (ground pollution):
- Childhood leukaemia
- Cancers
- Neuromuscular blockage
- Diseases due to bioaccumulation in food
MARINE:
- Hepatitis
- Cholera
- Gastroenteritis
- Salmonellosis
RADIOACTIVE:
- Cancers (all variants)
- Eye cataracts
- Impaired central nervous system
NOISE:
- Hypertension
- Heart disease
- Mental disorders
73
Provide a short description of the following solutions to minimize global warming and climate change: Fossil Fuels, Upgrading buildings, Carbon footprint, and Planting more trees?
* Fossil fuels: Use fewer fossil fuels wherever possible in the organisation's activities or processes.
* Electricity: Be more energy efficient regarding electricity usage wherever this is at all possible within the organisation. greenhouse gas emissions, namely, coal-fired power stations.
* Carbon footprint: An organisation should know its actual carbon footprint, which is the sum total of all the carbon it produces or emits due to its activities or processes.
* Carbon management: Ensure that the management of the organisation's carbon output is an integral part of its environmental management system.
* Upgrade buildings and infrastructure: Make buildings and infrastructure more energy efficient in terms of design, materials and insulation.
* Transportation: Make less use of fossil fuel-based transportation wherever possible.
* Plant more trees: Plants provide us with much-needed oxygen while taking in carbon dioxide.
74
Define the following; Ecotoxicity, Biodiversity, Plume, Ecology, and Ecosystem?
- Ecology
Ecology is the branch of biology that studies the relations of organisms with one another and with their physical surroundings.
- Ecotoxicity
Ecotoxicity is the study of toxic effects on non-human organisms, populations or communities, i.e. the impact of a toxin on an ecosystem.
- Plume
A plume is a cloud of contaminated smoke or vapour that flows from a specific pollution source.Biodiversity
- Biodiversity
Is the variety and range of species found within a given ecosystem, as well as between different ecosystems.
- Food chain
A food chain is the interconnectedness (chain) between a series of organisms that each depend on the next organism as a source of food and sustenance.
- Deep ecology
Deep ecology is an enviro-political movement concerned with protecting the environment. It considers humans no more important than other species.
- Bioaccumulation/bioconcentration Bioaccumulation/bioconcentration is the accumulation over time of a substance and especially a contaminant (such as a pesticide or heavy metal) in a living organism, which may or may not lead to a toxic effect.
- Wetland
A wetland is an area that is regularly saturated by surface water or groundwater
75
Explain the anthropogenic greenhouse effect?
results from human activity which causes additional emissions of greenhouse gases preventing more heat radiation from escaping the atmosphere
Enormous growth is causing an accelerated, anthropogenic (human-caused) greenhouse effect.
76
Explain the environmental term cumulative impact?
Is the collective effect on the environment by a range of impacts from the past, present and even the future.
77
Explain global warming and provide three human activities that contribute to climate change?
Huge amounts of greenhouse gases are being emitted into the atmosphere due to human activities.
These gases become trapped in the ozone layer resulting in more solar energy being trapped on Earth rather than escaping back into space.
Human Effects:
- Mining
- Transportation
- Deforestation
- Waste at landfills
78
Explain the short-term greenhouse effect and give one example of a short-lived greenhouse gas?
- Black Carbon
- Methane
- Tropospheric ozone
- Fluorinated gases.
79
Name three principal fossil fuel energy sources?
- Petroleum
- Coal
- Natural Gas
80
Provide three advantages and disadvantages of Fossil Fuels?
• Advantages:
- Easy to find and extract
- Fairly inexpensive
- Well-known technologies
• Disadvantages:
- Increasingly difficult to find and extract.
- Increasingly expensive to produce.
- Leading contribution to climate change.
• Advantages of fossil fuels:
- Easy to find and extract
- Fairly inexpensive
- Well-known technologies
- Relevant to long-existing technologies, e.g. power stations
- Central importance in the world economy.
• Disadvantages of fossil fuels:
- Increasingly difficult to find and extract.
- Increasingly expensive to produce.
- Losing economies of scale and price per unit comparisons with renewables.
- Enormous pollution and other environmental degradation impacts.
- Leading contribution to climate change.
- Adverse impacts on human health and well-being.
- Increasingly unpopular in public opinion/civil society.
- Over-dominance in the world economy, especially petroleum.
81
Explain acid rain?
Acid rain is caused by the release of the gases SO² (sulphur dioxide) and N²O (nitrous oxides) into the air, which mix with water particles. Rain that falls becomes acidic, which, in turn, increases the acidity of soil, lakes, dams and streams.
82
Name four stages of the EIA process?
- Project Screening
- Scoping
- Project description, and
- Consideration of alternatives
(EIA = PSPC)
83
What is MEA and provide two examples of important MEAS's to date?
An MEA (Multilateral Environmental Agreement) is the process of international environmental law becoming the norm.
- Kyoto protocol (on greenhouse emission) 1997
- Vienna convention on nuclear safety 1994
84
Provide three common themes relating to sustainability?
* Putting people at the centre
* The precautionary principle
* Making the polluter pay
85
Explain the triple bottom line?
SEE = social, economical, ecological system
- Sustainability is viewed as the inter-dependence between the three systems identified as basic to any development: the economic system, the social system and the ecological system.
- True sustainable development, therefore, is development that meets triple bottom-line considerations by which all three systems interact on an equal and interconnected basis
86
Provide the systematic stages of the LCA process?
LCA = Life cycle analysis
An LCA identifies, quantifies and evaluate the environmental impacts of a product, service or activity from cradle to grave.
* Goal definition and scoping – what is the purpose of the analysis?
* Inventory analysis – what impacts arise from all inputs and outputs?
* Impact assessment – what is the extent of impacts?
* Interpretation – how can improvements be made based on findings?
LCA = GIII
87
Provide three classifications of pollutants?
- Air
- Water
- Soil
88
Provide four techniques used to achieve cleaner production?
* Changes in technology
* Changes in input materials
* Changes in maintenance
* Changes in packaging
* Changes in technology
* Changes in input materials
* Changes in resource use
* Changes in operating practices
* Changes in product design
* Changes in service delivery
* Changes in waste generation
* Changes in maintenance
* Changes in packaging
89
List three examples of greenhouse gasses?
* Carbon dioxide (CO²)
* Methane (CH⁴)
* Nitrous oxide (N²O):
90
Name three human activities that release greenhouse gasses and contribute to climate change?
* Mining
* Transportation
* Deforestation
* Burning vegetation due to land clearing
* Waste at landfills
91
List four types of pollution detrimental to the ecosystem?
- Air
- Water
- Soil
- Noise
92
List the earth's atmosphere layers.....sphere?
```
• Troposphere
• Stratosphere
• Mesosphere
• Thermosphere
• Exosphere
(They Should Make Them Elastic)
```
93
Provide the definition of cleaner production and three advantages?
```
Is a preventive approach to managing the environmental impacts of business processes and products.
Cleaner production:
• New technology to reduce waste
• Minimises environmental damage.
• Uses energy more efficiently.
• Increases business profitability
• Increases efficiency of production
• Cleaner production
```
94
Name three benefits and flaws of the EIA process?
Benefits
- Facilitates public participation
- Top-level decision making
- Triggers institutions-buildings
Flaws
- Time-consuming
- Costly
- Too focused on scientific analysis
95
Name four factors influencing the climate on earth?
* The spherical shape of the Earth.
* The orientation of the Earth's axis towards the sun.
* The proliferation of oceanic water on Earth.
* The amount of ice cover.
* The spherical shape of the Earth.
* The orientation of the Earth's axis towards the sun.
* The greenhouse effect of water vapour and other trace gases.
* The proliferation of oceanic water on Earth.
* The distribution of landmass on Earth.
* The amount of ice cover.
* The movement and velocity of winds in the atmosphere.
96
A critical aspect of eco-efficiency for your company is to have a greater focus on production?
- Improved recyclability
- Less waste generation
- Less pollution
- Decreased water and energy usage
- Maximum use of renewable resources
* Greater focus on environmental imperatives
* A reduction in the material intensity of goods or services
* A reduction in the energy intensity of goods or services
* Reduced use and disposal of toxic materials
* Improved recyclability
* Less waste generation
* Less pollution
* Decreased water and energy usage
* Maximum use of renewable resources
* Greater durability of products or services rendered
* Increased service intensity of goods and services
97
Explain (in short) three benefits of technology in risk management?
- Detect risk with SMART devices IoT
- Real-time crucial risk detection
- Improves risk-related decision making
- Real-time data fees detecting risks
* Smart devices that comprise the IoT have the potential to help organisations detect risk events.
* Crucial risk insights can be detected in real-time.
* Risk management is made comprehensive and dynamic and can improve risk-related decision-making.
* Organisations can also potentially manage HSE-related risks due to contractors, suppliers or customers by analysing their behaviour through real-time data feeds.
98
Explain CBA (Cost-Benefit Analysis) in the context of HSE risk management?
- Quantifying the benefit the company obtains for a given control against the cost of the benefit.
- A control can be considered reasonably practicable (and therefore necessary or justifiable) unless its costs are grossly disproportionate to the benefits thereof.
- Cost vs Benefits
99
What does each of the following acronyms stand for; SWOT, PESTLE and VUCA, and provide and brief explanation of each tool?
- A SWOT analysis is a "strategic approach to planning" whereby an organisation tries to ascertain its primary strengths and weaknesses, as well as the potential threats and opportunities for the organisation.
- SWOT = Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
- A PESTE/PESTEL/PEST analysis is "a measurement tool" used by an organisation to assess markets for a particular product or service provision at a given timeframe.
- A PESTE/ PESTEL/PEST analysis is strategic in nature. It is also fundamentally risk-driven
- PESTE = Political, Economic, Social, Technological, Environmental
- VUCA is an acronym that is used to describe or reflect on the volatility, uncertainty, complexity and ambiguity that an organisation may face
- VUCA = Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity and Ambiguity
100
Provide three important aspects when identifying risk controls?
- No control is ever 100% effective, unless the hazard is entirely eliminated
- The most significant risk should be considered first for controls
- Care should be taken not to take controls at 'face value'
101
What are the four requirements of the risk assessment team once the risk assessment mandate has been authorized?
Team members need to:
• Understand the methodology that will be used in the assessment process.
• Have the ability to identify workplace hazards and risks.
• Have the ability to distinguish between pure physical hazards and behavioural or procedural hazards.
• Understand the main hazards of the energy sources in the workplace.
102
Name the three conditions under which a hazard may be present?
- has the potential to be:
* harmful
* cause injury ' or
* have an adverse effects
103
Provide an example of a source for the following; Biological, Psychosocial, Ergonomic, and Physical?
- Biological hazards, also known as biohazards, refer to biological substances that pose a threat to the health of living organisms, primarily that of humans. This can include samples of a microorganism, virus or toxin (from a biological source) that can affect human health. It can also include substances harmful to other animals.
- A chemical hazard is a type of occupational hazard caused by exposure to chemicals in the workplace. Exposure to chemicals in the workplace can cause acute or long-term detrimental health effects. There are many types of hazardous chemicals, including neurotoxins, immune agents, dermatologic agents, carcinogens, reproductive toxins, systemic toxins, asthmagens, pneumoconiotic agents, and sensitizers. These hazards can cause physical and/or health risks. Depending on chemical, the hazards involved may be varied.
- A psychosocial hazard is any occupational hazard that affects the psychological well-being of workers, including their ability to participate in a work environment among other people. Psychosocial hazards are related to the way work is designed, organized and managed, as well as the economic and social contexts of work and are associated with psychiatric, psychological and/or physical injury or illness.
- Ergonomic hazards are physical conditions that may pose risk of injury to the musculoskeletal system, such as the muscles or ligaments of the lower back, tendons or nerves of the hands/wrists, or bones surrounding the knees, resulting in a musculoskeletal disorder (MSD). Ergonomic hazards include awkward postures, static postures, large forces, repetitive motion, or short intervals between activity.
- A physical hazard is an agent, factor or circumstance that can cause harm with or without contact. They can be classified as type of occupational hazard or environmental hazard. Physical hazards include ergonomic hazards, radiation, heat and cold stress, vibration hazards, and noise hazards.
104
Explain briefly what is meant by Cost of Risk?
Cost-of-risk is a measure to determine the effectiveness of the risk management function.
As per its definition, it consists of the following:
a. Insurance costs:
b. Un-reimbursed losses (self-insured, retained).
c. Risk control and loss prevention expenses
d. Administrative costs (including but not restricted to)
105
Name the steps in the process of conducting a baseline risk assessment?
* Step 1 - Preparation
* Step 2 - Hazard identification
* Step 3 - Converting hazards to risks
* Step 4 - Ranking the risks
* Step 5 - Evaluating the effectiveness of existing controls.
106
Explain briefly; Operational Risk, Strategic Risk, Project Risk, and Speculative Risk?
- Operational Risk:
Think: Risks at the shop floor level
Operational risk is at the lower levels of the organisation, i.e. where things get done (where a product is actually made, a service is rendered, etc.).
- Strategic Risk:
Think: Risk at the highest levels of an organisation
Strategic risks that can affect the strategic direction and survival of an organisation.
- Project Risk:
Think: Risks relating to specific projects
Projects can often have a major impact on the direction of an organisation and ultimately its very success or failure managing this project risk is, therefore, an essential skill for any project manager or HSE professional.
- Speculative risk:
Think: Risky undertakings and ventures
Speculative risks are prone to so many different variables that they cannot be quantified or controlled easily. Speculative risks are usually associated with business, finance, investment, human resources, IT strategy and politics, where success (the so-called risk pay-off) can be immense but so too is the uncertainly and, therefore, the risk thereof.
107
Explain the difference between Raw Risk and Residual Risk?
Raw Risk:
Inherent risk is the amount of risk that exists in the absence of controls. In other words, before an organization implements any countermeasures at all, the risk they face is inherent risk.
Residual Risk:
Residual risk is the risk that remains after controls are accounted for. It’s the risk that remains after your organization has taken proper precautions.
108
Explain mega risk?
These are risks that are huge in scope and risk potential.
109
Name the risk assessment process?
* Step 1 - Preparation
* Step 2 - Hazard identification
* Step 3 - Converting hazards to risks
* Step 4 - Ranking the risks
* Step 5 - Evaluating effectiveness of existing controls.
110
Name the two fundamentals that Risk management is based on?
- Risk Control
- Risk financing
Risk control: Primarily preventing losses from occurring by reducing the severity of losses from risks and/or reducing the frequency of losses occurring because of risks.
Risk financing: No organisation can fully prevent or eliminate all losses from risks that may be present in the organisation.
111
Name the two types of risks and provide a brief description of each?
Risk control: Primarily preventing losses from occurring by reducing the severity of losses from risks and/or reducing the frequency of losses occurring because of risks.
Risk financing: No organisation can fully prevent or eliminate all losses from risks that may be present in the organisation.
112
How do we monitor risk and name four ways?
Means by which risk can be monitored include using:
• Risk models
• Risk analytics
• Web-enabled technologies
• Internal auditing
• Informal monitoring, such as inspections and planned job observations
113
HSE legal requirements identification is done in two phases. List three that are relevant in phase, one?
* Legally mandated appointments
* Legally mandated assessments
* Legally mandated
- Phase 1: Identify all relevant legal requirements
The organisation must consider applicable national, provincial and local/municipal legislation, standards and/or codes of practice incorporated into legislation. Specific note should be taken of the following:
• Legally mandated appointments
• Legally mandated assessments
• Legally mandated permits/licences/certificates
• Legally mandated monitoring and measurement
• Other legally mandated systemic requirements
• Legally obtained exceptions/ exemptions
-Phase 2: Provide effective means of accessing the relevant identified legal requirements
114
Name three most common causes of a lack of control?
* Inadequate HSE programme
* Inadequate programme standards
* Inadequate compliance with standards
115
Provide three roles of the implementation team in the context of documentation implementation?
* Release copies of the documentation for pre-
* Identifying key information requirements and new skills required for groups and individuals
* Base the training needs analysis on the risk assessment
* Conduct information or skills development briefings (training and awareness)
Role of the implementation team/HSE committee
It is the responsibility of the implementation team or HSE committee to communicate plans for implementing, maintaining and improving documentation for the site. This will involve the following activities:
• Release copies of the documentation for pre-reading to commence implementation
• Prepare a training needs analysis for the HSE management system i.e. identifying accountabilities of various groups and individuals
• Identifying key information requirements and any new skills required for all groups and/or individuals
• Plan briefing sessions or other means of providing the information or skills required
• Base the training needs analysis on the risk assessment
• Conduct information or skills development briefings (training and awareness)
• Ask line managers to discuss selected documentation with their work groups/output teams over a period of about three months to explain and discuss the impact or resolve any questions
116
Name the hierarchy of documentation in the correct order?
- Policy
- Procedures
- Work Instruction
- Records/Forms
117
What is meant by retention of documents, discuss?
Retention of documented information is a critical aspect of document control. Document retention is a general term referring to the process of deciding which record to keep permanently and which to destroy after they no longer serve a useful purpose. In HSE management, there are legislative requirements pertaining to document retention periods.
118
List four requirements of an HSE management policy?
The following requirements typically apply to an organisation's HSE policy:
• It is formulated by top management.
• The intent stated in the policy is expressly supported by top management.
• It is written clearly and unambiguously.
• It is not overtly long or unwieldy.
• It is signed by the CEO and dated accordingly.
• It is appropriate to the nature and scale of the organisation's HSE risks and impacts.
• It stipulates the organisation's commitment to minimising HSE risks and impacts.
• It includes a commitment to continual improvement of the HSE management system.
• It includes a commitment to comply as a minimum with current applicable legislation, regulations and other requirements to which the organisation subscribes.
119
Briefly explain IMS and provide two benefits?
```
A HSE Integrated management system must also be integrated with other management systems within an organisation, wherever feasible and practicable.
- Benefits of an IMS included:
• A single audit for all systems is possible
• Greater synergy between systems
• Controls can be more efficient
• Simplicity is created
• A greater focus on singular results
• Fewer policies and procedures
• Increased worker participation
• A system that is easier to manage
• Improved document control
• Optimised training
```
120
Name two disadvantages of a non-integrated HSE management system?
A non-integrated approach to management systems creates unnecessary duplication, additional costs and the danger of each silo doing its own thing and, as such, in-consistencies between systems in an organisation occurs.
121
Name four purposes of a PTO?
122
Name the four quadrants of the Deming Cycle and a short description of each?
is an iterative design and management method used in business for the control and continual improvement of processes and products.
PLAN-DO-CHECK-ACT
* Plan: The Foundation: Establish all that the management system requires before controls and other system requirements can be rolled out or improved upon.
* Do: Get It Done: Implement all that have been planned, including all objectives, targets and resource requirements, including requirements for employees.
* Check: Is It Working? Monitor and measure processes and controls against policies, objectives and controls and, in particular, the organisation's risk profile.
* Act: Time to Review: Top management must assess the system and take necessary action where needed to continually improve the system.
123
List two insured costs resulting from the occupational incident?
* Medical expenses
* Employee's compensation, disability payments and death benefits
* Incident insurance (such as fire, flooding and natural disaster)
* Environmental due diligence
* Compensation paid to a disabled worker or next of kin from a compensation insurance fund provider and required by law, as well as funeral costs
124
Provide four examples of safety monitoring?
- Advanced driving test
- Electrical compliance test
- Load testing
- Fire surveys
- Housekeeping inspections
125
Explain the difference between proactive and reactive monitoring?
• Proactive/active: The purpose of proactive or active monitoring is to monitor HSE performance primarily within the context of checking compliance of the organisation's processes and activities to the HSE management system and/or legislation.
• Reactive: The purpose of reactive monitoring is to monitor failures in the management system,
i.e. non-conformances that have occurred, for example, incidents, ill health occurrences, complaints and near misses, so that their recurrence may be prevented. This is 'After the Fact' monitoring.
126
DMR 10, GSR 3(c), NIHL 3, GMR 2(1), GSR 8(1)(a), RHCA 10(2), EWR 2(1), NEMA 30 (3)(D)(iii),
127
Define the following Hazards and give examples of each:
- Physical hazards: Hazards that arise from the general work environment, such as uneven floors, ionising radiation (X-rays), noise, lighting, vibration, extreme temperatures and poor ventilation.
- Chemical hazards: Hazards that arise from substances, such as acids, pesticides, herbicides, fumes, dusts, gases, flammable substances, solvents, effluent and solid waste.
- Biological hazards: Hazards that arise from biological agents, such as insects, vermin (rats and mice), pathogens, viruses (HIV/AIDS) and medical waste.
- Mechanical hazards: Hazards that arise from machinery and equipment, such as lifts, cutting machines, electrical hand tools, portable electrical equipment, lifting equipment and forklifts.
- Ergonomic hazards: Hazards that arise from the worker machine interface, such as manual handling, repetitive movement, poor design, restricted space, outdated design and technology.
- Psychosocial hazards: Hazards that arise from social or work culture conditions, such as shift work, peer pressure, alcohol/drug misuse and stress.
- Behavioural hazards: Hazards that arise from worker behaviour or attitudes, such as unsafe acts or omissions and tomfoolery.
- Environmental aspects: Aspects that arise from a company’s interaction with the environment, such as contaminated air (emissions), sludge and other solid wastes (discharges), polluted water (discharges), other types of pollution (for example noise), all types of other waste (including hazardous waste) and resource use/depletion.
128
Explain the process turning hazards into risk?
First ask:
What is wrong? And Where is it?
Then, contact with a hazard turn into a risk if contact is made, then risk + consequencia = Risk outcome
129
Give examples of behaviour and procedural risk?
Behaviour:
- Speeding with forklifts
- Not using POE
Procedure:
Not following SSW
130
Living organisms depend on the Earth to provide them with three basic requirements?
* Resources for consumption (food)
* A physical environment that provides a habitat (housing)
* A sink for wastes that organisms discard
131
Give examples of Environmental degradation?
```
Loss of biodiversity and species loss
Deforestation
Soil erosion
Ozone depletion
Acid rain
```
132
Name types of pollution?
* Light pollution
* Visual/aesthetic pollution
* Noise pollution
* Thermal pollution
* Marine pollution
* Radioactive pollution
* Transgenic/genetic pollution
133
Difference between climate and waether?
- Climate refers to the long-term average (and other statistics) of weather measured over long periods of time (at least several decades).
- Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere for a specific period – from several minutes up to several days.
134
Give examples of some types of renewable energy?
* Solar
* Wind
* Geothermal
* Hydro-electric*
* Wave**
* Tidal**
* Biomass/Biofuels***
* Algal****
* Hydrogen
135
What are the three questions of pollution management?
1. Can the pollution be avoided? If not …
2. Can the pollution be reduced? If not …
3. Can the pollution be controlled?
136
Risk evaluation quantities?
```
2 = E
3 = D
4 = C
```
```
2 = Burn, bruises, cuts, sprains, lung infection/irritation, skin irritation, ground/air pollution
3 = Broken, amputate, deep burns, lung disease, NIHLS, Kidney failure, Water pollution
4 = Extremes
```
137
Safety examples interaction and consequence?
Think Outside!
- Interaction = Contact, hit/collide with, slips trips and falls
- Consequence = Cuts, broken, death/fatality, burns and bruises
138
Health examples interaction and consequence?
Think Inside!
- Interaction = Exposed to, Absorb, Ingest, Inhale
- Consequence = Fatality/death, illness/lung, NIHLS, Irritation, Diseases/lung
139
Environmental examples interaction and consequence?
- Interaction = Emissions from, spillage into/on, Incorrect disposal, leakage from/onto
- Consequence = pollution: Air, ground/soil, water
140
What is the Pre-loss financing mechanisms?
- risk retention
- insurance
- Commercial Insurance
- Captive insurance companies
- State risk financing
- Capital market instruments
- Catastrophic bonds
- Post-loss financing
Important instruments in pre-loss financing are risk retention and insurance. These instruments can be quite simple or very complex depending on the nature of the retention being sought or offered.
- Commercial Insurance
- Captive insurance companies
- State risk financing
- Capital market instruments
- Catastrophic bonds
- Post-loss financing
141
The four types of statutorily mandated scaffolds include?
* Suspended scaffold
* Inclined scaffold
* Trestle scaffold
* Putlog scaffold
142
What are the Safety features of stacking?
- installed according to specifications
- Damage to the rack: Any damage to the pallet rack frame must be reported immediately
- Warning sign
- rack audits
- inspection
- racks should never be climb on
- racks should never be overloaded
- racks must never be shaken
* Inventory rotation
* Item/load size and weight
* Optimal storage design
* Cost of materials and installation
Stacking/racking systems used should be designed and installed according to specifications. Furthermore, because of the variation in the size and weight of pallets or other types of stacking, these important safety factors have to be considered at all times:
• Damage to the rack: Any damage to the pallet rack frame must be reported immediately because such frame damage could cause the pallets to subside and fall.
• Warning sign/s: The owner of a stack has a common law responsibility to communicate the following issues at a storage rack, by way of a warning sign, especially if the given rack is in a retail/public space:
o A rack must never be climbed at any time.
o Racks are not designed to be stepped on.
o Racks are not designed to be used as an elevated platform of any type.
o Racks must not be shaken or otherwise unnecessarily disturbed.
• Accessibility: Proper planning of the placement of products will consider the mass, ease of handling and frequency of demand for the product.
• Overloading or exceeding recommended load specifications: This must be avoided at all times for a racking system. Overloading may cause a catastrophic failure of a storage rack system.
• Obstructions: Unnecessary obstacles at the end of aisles must be avoided at all times. These obstructions can cause severe and potentially fatal injuries and accidents.
• Minimum distance: All movement in the store should be direct and functional. The same standards discussed in criteria for good layout are also valid for the store.
• Motorised equipment or vehicles: Any of these that may be used must be suitable for working in and around pallets or stacking of any kind.
• Inspections: Pallets must be inspected regularly to check for, amongst other possible issues, broken or fractured planks or stringers, protruding nails or missing support blocks.
• Rack audits: These safety-based inspections should be performed on a regular basis by a qualified inspector familiar with applicable design and safety standards.
143
Define GSR 8?
Storage and stacking
144
Define GSR 4?
Storage of flammable liquids
145
Define ERW 5?
Ventilation
146
Define ERW 2?
Thermal conditions
147
Define NIHLR 9?
Noise Zone
148
The principal benefits of the promotional and preventative aspects of PHC include the following?
- Improved productivity
- Reduce benefit cost
- Improved image of organisation
- Reduced human resources and development costs
o Improved public relations possibilities
o Reduced absenteeism
o Improved morale
o More committed and loyal staff
• Reduced benefit costs
o Reduced health insurance costs
o Reduced worker compensation claims
o Reduced stress on profit margins due to health costs
• Reduced human resources and development costs
o Decreased recruiting costs
o Decreased costs for educating and training new employees
o Decreased costs due to rehabilitation of seriously ill or injured employees
• Improved image of organisation
o Improved public relations possibilities
o Viewed as concerned and responsible employer
o Employer of choice
149
There are usually specific conclusions that can be drawn from the sampling, namely?
* No exposure (within detection limits of analysis).
* Acceptable exposure (below recognised exposure levels).
* Over-exposure (above recognised exposure levels).
150
Criminal liability has certain key elements, but does not include?
that burden of proof is on a balance of probabilities
151
Define precedent in the South African legal system?
- It comprises decisions made in courts by judges.
- The body of law has evolved over time, sometimes over centuries, and has become accepted by society as being normative and accepted as law, as valid and as enforceable as legislation
152
True or false: Joint and several liabilities is the type of liability where there is no need to prove intent for a person's acts or omission in order to hold them liable. Committing the act or omission is de facto culpability.
False
153
Toxic substances can have various routes of exposure into the human body. These routes do not include?
exposure
154
Primary health care (PHC) is an important part of occupational health and safety (OHS). Briefly discuss what is referred to as the third level' of PHC?
The third level of PHC is rehabilitation or tertiary prevention. This would occur post-injury or post- disease diagnosis and the adequate treatment thereof
155
A lifting machine is a power-driven machine that is designed and constructed for the purpose of raising or lowering a load or moving it in suspension. An example of lifting gear is?
a crane
156
List the three indirect forms of heat transfer that can cause fires to spread?
Convection
Conduction
Radiation
157
Define scaffolding?
A scaffold is a temporary structure for the purpose of creating a work platform on which workers can carry out work at varying heights, whether on buildings under construction or during
maintenance
158
There are many different possible categories of waste streams?
```
Paper
Plastic
Medical/biohazardous waste
Wood
Glass
Plastics
Hazardous (general)
Non-hazardous (general)
Aluminium
Hazardous chemicals
```
159
There are various features of an environmental impact assessment (EIA), which include but are not limited to?
participation, credibility, transparency and practicality
160
When performing a risk assessment, besides considering a given activity under emergency and normal conditions, under what other condition should a potential risk be considered?
Abnormal
161
If elimination is the highest level of control in the hierarchy of controls, list the next four levels in the hierarchy, in the correct order?
Substitution
Engineering
Administrative
PPE
162
Define strategic risk?
This is risk at the highest level of an organisation, with regard to strategy/direction that an organisation must take. This type of risk can only be controlled by top/executive management
163
Not everything is discussed in a HSE management review meeting. Several topics may be discussed but not?
Housekeeping
164
Besides a management review, what are the two forums in which HSE management system issues?
SHE committee meeting
Toolbox talks
Intranet discussion rooms
165
Provide THREE possible disadvantages of an internal audit?
- overly familiar with internal processes internal politics
- too much emotional investment
- victimisation of/hindrances to the internal audit team
- resentment by certain managers/divisions/employees
- lack of commitment to the audit process by top management
- hindered production or certain processes during an audit
166
Basic requirements for a storeroom or storage facilities?
* Ventilation
* Lighting
* Manoeuvring space
* Maximum use of volume
* Fire prevention
167
Define Raw Risk?
The level of risk faced by an organisation before any internal controls are applied.
168
Define Residual risk?
Residual risk is the risk that remains after efforts to identify and eliminate some or all types of risk have been made.
169
Define Operational Risk?
Think: Risks at the shop floor level
Operational risk relates to those risks that may arise in the operations of a company, namely, the day-to-day operational factors required to make a product or render a service. Operational risk is at the lower levels of the organisation, i.e. where things get done (where a product is actually made, a service is rendered, etc.).
170
Define Financial or business risk?
Think: Risks due to money and finance
Financial or business risks are the risks that can affect a business in terms of its general financial viability. Financial risks are associated with the financial structure of an organisation, the transactions the organisation makes and the financial systems that may already be in place.
171
Define Programme or project risk?
Think: Risks relating to specific projects
Most organisations today use projects to initiate and establish change. Projects can often have a major impact on the direction of an organisation and ultimately its very success or failure managing this project risk is, therefore, an essential skill for any project manager or HSE professional.
172
What are the sources for Health, Biological, physiological, physical and ergonomic hazards?
- Health: Extreme temperatures, Extreme precipitation, High levels of pollution, High levels of radiation, and High levels of noise.
- Biological: bacteria, viruses, insects, plants, birds, animals, and humans
- Physiological: high job demands, poor support from supervisors/co-workers, poor role clarity and role conflict, poor workplace relationships, poor organisational change management.
- Physical: exposure to slips, trips, falls, electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, heat, cold and fire
- Ergonomics: repetition, awkward posture, forceful motion, stationary position, direct pressure, vibration, extreme temperature, noise, and work stress
poor organisational justice.
173
Explain load testing and how often should it be done?
Load testing is performed to determine a system's behaviour under both normal and anticipated peak load conditions. It helps to identify the maximum operating capacity of an application as well as any bottlenecks and determine which element is causing degradation.
Annually by a qualified lifting material inspectors
174
All stacking in a store or in a storage area should always comply with the following eight requirements?
* The base on which the stacking is done should be solid
* No stack may be higher than three times the width of the narrowest base of the stack (what is known as the 3:1 ratio rule)
* Bonded and linked.
* Under no circumstances should stacking be done in walkways, passages or designated routes for motorised equipment.
* Not obstruct firefighting equipment, lighting, ventilation, electric switching devices, emergency exits or symbolic safety signs.
* Stacks should only be mounted using the correct equipment
* Stacks should only be dismantled from the top down.
* Danger of a stack collapsing, it should immediately be dismantled, starting from the top.
175
What are the facets (aspect) of a management system?
- Mission Statement
- Vision Statement
- Strategy
- Goals and objectives
(GMSV)
176
What are the different management theories?
- General systems theory (GST)
- Scientific or classical management theory
- Bureaucratic management theory
- Contingency theory
- Theory X vs Theory Y
177
What are the requirements for an H&S management policy?
* It is formulated by top management.
* The intent stated
* It is written clearly and unambiguously.
* It is not overtly long or unwieldy.
* It is signed by the CEO and dated accordingly.
* Appropriate to the nature and scale of the organisation's HSE risks and impacts.
* Commitment to minimising HSE risks and impacts.
* Commitment to continual improvement of the HSE management system.
* Commitment to comply as a minimum with current applicable legislation
* It includes an explicit commitment to preventing injuries, ill health and pollution.
* Communicated to all employees
* Readily available
178
What are the two phases of HSE legal requirements?
- Identify all relevant legal requirements
- Provide effective means of accessing the relevant identified legal requirements.
- Phase 1: Identify all relevant legal requirements
Specific note should be taken of the following:
• Legally mandated appointments
• Legally mandated assessments
• Legally mandated permits/licences/certificates
• Legally mandated monitoring and measurement
• Other legally mandated systemic requirements
• Legally obtained exceptions/ exemptions
- Phase 2: Provide effective means of accessing the relevant identified legal requirements. Other routes for attaining inputs on legal requirements:
• Compiling a legal register
• Having a law firm or lawyer who specialises in HSE law on a retainer basis.
• Acquiring external legal expertise sporadically as and when required by.
• By having a legal register compiled
179
What are the percentages of the Control hierarchy?
1. Elimination = 100%
2. Substitution = 81 - 99%
3. Engineering = 61 - 80%
4. Administrative = 41 - 60%
5. Personal protective equipment (PPE) = 21 - 40%
180
When objectives or targets are developed we use the smart?
```
Specific
Measurable
Adequate
Realistic
Time-related
```
181
Principal stages of documentation?
1. writing and approval
2. implementation
3. sustaining and improvement
182
Document retention is a general term referring to?
- The process of deciding which record to keep permanently and which to destroy after they no longer serve a useful purpose.
183
Document retention schedule should have three objectives?
- Prompt disposal of documents
- Storage of documents that need to be destroyed
- Preservation of HSE documents that need to be kept
* Prompt disposal of documents when time retention period has lapsed
* Storage of document which must be temporarily retained after they are no longer required for active use
* Prevention of documents with HSE related significance, whether legal or otherwise
184
What are the two types of communication?
Internal and external
185
The Hazardous Substances Act, 15 of 1973, is an important piece of occupational health and safety legislation. The purpose of this legislation is?
- provide controls
- provide division
- provide Prohibition
* To provide for the control of substances that may cause injury or ill health
* To provide for the division of such substances or products into groups
* To provide for the prohibition and control of the importation, manufacture, sale, use, operation,
186
Name the four groups of Hazardous substances are ?
* Group I: Hazardous substances of a toxic, corrosive, irritant, strongly sensitizing or flammable nature and potentially hazardous to human health.
* Group II: As above, but of a more hazardous nature.
* Group III: Electronic products potentially hazardous to human health.
* Group IV*: Radioactive material that is outside a nuclear installation
187
In terms of Section 89 of the COID Act, the staff of contractors will be regarded as the principal's employees if the contractor?
Is not registered and paid up with the Compensation Commissioner. The principal should require that the contractor supply a certificate of good standing issued by the Commissioner. This certificate (a Section 89 certificate) is only valid for a year,
188
Define liability?
liability is legal responsibility, or responsibility before the law. Under law, liability can be incurred by either a natural person (any man or woman) or a juristic/ legal person (a non-natural entity that
exists only due to its legal persona.
In theory, all 'persons', whether natural or juristic, should be equal before the law.
189
What is criminal liability?
A criminal act is an offence against society and the 'greater good'
190
What is considered to be a noise zone and give the legal citation for it?
Is any area in which the noise level is at or exceeds 85dB(A).
NIHLR9
191
Define proactive and reactive monitoring?
- Proactive safety management is all about keeping ahead of the game, resolving any issues before an incident or an accident occurs.
- Reactive health and safety management is about dealing with issues, accidents and incidents when they occur. Unlike proactive safety management, it's too late to stop them.
192
Primary health care stages and levels?
```
Level 1
- Health promotion
- Specific protection
Level 2
- Promp and effective treatment
- Limitation of disability
Level 3
- Rehabilitation
```
193
List stage 1 of PHC?
Stage 1: Primary prevention
- Health Promotion
- Specific protection
194
List stage 2 of PHC?
Stage 2: Secondary prevention
- Prompt and effective treatment
- Limitation of disability
195
List stage 3 of PHC?
Stage 3. Tertiary prevention
| - Rehabilitation
196
Provide four signs of mental fatigue?
* Negative mood
* Reduced ability to communicate effectively
* Slips and lapses in cognition
* Poor memory, especially short-term
197
Provide four signs of physical fatigue?
* Tiredness even after sleep
* Reduced hand-eye coordination or slow reflexes
* Blurred vision or impaired visual perception
* Need for extended sleep during days off work
* Fidgeting
198
Name 5 classes of toxins?
- Asphyxiants
- Irritants
- Teratogen
- Embryotoxins
- Carcinogens
- Mutagens
199
List four fundamental safety requirements for workers working and/or operating lifting gear?
* Must be trained in accordance with the applicable legislation.
* Slack must be taken up before lifting starts.
* No one may walk under an overhead load.
* The signalman must be visible to the operator at all times.
200
Explain the types of fire extinguishers and their effect/purpose?
- Water (coolant)
* suitable for Class A fires,
- Dry powder (smothering)
* suitable Class B fire. (Also, A, C)
- Foam (smothering and cooling)
* suitable Class B fires. (Also, Class A)
- Carbonic acid gas (CO2) (smothering and cooling)
* suitable Class B fires (Also A, C)
201
Name the four risks relating to electricity?
- Electrical faults that could cause fires.
- death due to asphyxiation.
- Temporary paralysis of the central nervous system
- Bleeding and/or damage of tissues
202
Provide three diseases arising from water pollution?
- Cholera
- Typhoid
- Guinea worm disease
- Dysentery
203
Provide three diseases arising from air pollution?
- Coronary heart disease
- Stroke
- COPD
- Lung cancer
- Asthma
204
Provide three diseases arising from radioactive pollution?
- Cancers (all variants)
- Eye cataracts
- Impaired central nervous system
205
Define Ecotoxicity?
the study of toxic effects on non-human organisms, populations or communities, i.e. the impact of a toxin on an ecosystem.
206
Define Biodiversity?
Is the variety and range of species found within a given ecosystem, as well as between different ecosystems.
207
Define Plume?
a cloud of contaminated smoke or vapour that flows from a specific pollution source
208
Define Ecology?
Ecology is the branch of biology that studies the relations of organisms with one another and with their physical surroundings.
209
Define Ecosystem?
consists of all the organisms and the physical environment with which they interact
210
Provide an example of a source of Biological hazards?
refer to biological substances that pose a threat to the health of living organisms, primarily that of humans.
- microorganism,
- virus
- toxin
211
Provide an example of a source of Psychosocial hazards?
any occupational hazard that affects the psychological well-being of workers
- related to the way work is designed,
- organized and managed,
- as well as the economic and social contexts of work and are associated with psychiatric, psychological and/or physical injury or illness
212
Define Proactive/active Monitoring?
Is to monitor HSE performance primarily within the context of checking compliance
213
Define Reactive Monitoring?
is to monitor failures in the management system, i.e. non-conformances that have occurred
214
What are the Attributes of the inspection process?
- Inspection stations should be implemented at critical stages.
- Inspections or tests performed wherever process inputs or outputs occur should be verified
- Further control of improvement & processes.
- Demonstrable conformance of HSE legislation.
- All inspections should be undertaken according to checklists and registers.
- The method of inspection/testing to be undertaken.
- The inspection/test equipment to be used.
- Sampling instructions as required, including required equipment.
- By whom the inspection or test should be undertaken.
• Inspections or tests should be performed by trained and certified persons.
• Inspection/test records should be archived for at least ten years or such other period as otherwise specified by applicable legislation, contractual obligations, corporate policies or procedures, industry standards or norms, etc.
• Inspection/test stations should be implemented at critical stages of an organisation's processes.
• Inspections or tests performed wherever process inputs, actions or outputs occur should be verified, so that there can be:
- Further control of, as well as improvement of, said processes.
- Demonstrable conformance to HSE
requirements, for example, to procedures and applicable legislation.
• All inspections should be undertaken according to documented inspection instructions, whatever the format of the documentation may be, for example, pro forma checklists and registers.
• Inspection or testing instructions should contain:
- The method (the chosen methodology) of inspection/testing to be undertaken.
- The inspection/test equipment to be used.
- Sampling instructions as required, including required equipment.
- By whom the inspection or test should be undertaken.
• Inspections or tests should be performed by trained and certified persons.
• Inspection/test records should be archived for at least ten years or such other period as otherwise specified by applicable legislation, contractual obligations, corporate policies or procedures, industry standards or norms, etc.
215
Name a few HEALTH monitoring and measuring types?
```
Occupational hygiene surveys: (OCC Hygienist)
• Ergonomics survey
• Hazardous biological agents (HBA) survey
• Hazardous chemical agent (HCA) survey
• Indoor air quality (IAQ) survey
• Illumination survey
• Noise survey
• Radiation survey
• Thermal survey
• Vibration survey
Medical surveillance – medical testing: (OHMP)
• Audiometric test
• Blood pressure test
• Body mass index (BMI) calculation
• CAT/MRI scan
• Eye test
• Fitness test
• Psychological assessment
• X-ray (thoracic, full body, etc.)
Medical surveillance – biological monitoring
• Blood test
• Cancer screen
• Faecal/stool sample
• Lung function test (spirometry)
• Saliva swab
• Skin swab
• Spinal tap
• Urine sample
```
216
Name a few SAFETY monitoring and measuring types?
* Advanced driving test
* Electrical compliance test
* Fire survey
* Housekeeping inspection
* Load testing
* Load testing (Lifting equipment)
* Lock-out (electrical for inspection purposes)
* Lock-out (other energy sources, for example pneumatic and hydraulic)
* Machinery inspection (various types)
* Planned job observations (PJO) and planned task observation (PTO)
* Portable fire extinguisher inspection
* Road worthiness test
* Safeguarding inspections (e.g. nip points, efficiency of safety barriers, etc.)
* Safety culture survey
* Security viability assessment
* Security drill/mock-up
* Vehicle inspection
* Visual inspection
217
Name a few ENVIRONMENTAL monitoring and measuring types?
* Alien/invasive species mapping
* Ambient air/emissions sampling
* Ambient noise survey
* Aquatic water quality analysis/sampling
* Carbon footprint
* Biodiversity survey
* Energy efficiency survey
* Environmental impact assessment (EIA) – related sampling
* Groundwater sampling
* Life cycle analysis (LCA)
* Marine water analysis
* Recycling survey
* Socio-environmental impact survey
* Soil quality analysis/sampling
* Sustainability analysis
* Waste inspections (also referred to as a waste audit)
* Wastewater/effluent analysis
218
Define OCCUPATIONAL INCIDENT?
is any event that results in (or has the potential to result in) injury, illness, disease, damage or harm to the environment
219
Define NON-CONFORMANCE?
Is an unexpected or unwanted event that occurs in an organisation's management system that deviates from a set standard or requirement within that system.
220
Define ACCIDENT?
sudden and unexpected event or occurrence that results in an unwanted and undesirable outcome … and must directly or indirectly be the result of human activity rather than a natural event
221
The three most common problems that cause a lack of control are?
* Inadequate HSE programme
* Inadequate programme standards
* Inadequate compliance with standards
222
Incidents control measures can be divided into three phases?
* Precontact control – aims to prevent an incident
* Contact control – aims to reduce the overall impact and severity of an incident
* Post-contact control – aims at limiting further losses following an initial event
223
The aims of an effective incident investigation and prevention programme are to?
- Identify all causes of an incidents
- Collect information.
- Analyse data
- Determine the root causes of the event
- Formulate an action plan to prevent losses.
- Create ownership among employees
- Demonstrate that the organisation is concerned about HSE.
* Objectively and collectively identify all contributing causes of all incidents.
* Col• Objectively and collectively identify all contributing causes of all incidents.
* Collect information.
* Analyse data to identify contributory factors and their inter-relationship.
* Determine the root/real causes of events contributing to the incident.
* Formulate an appropriate action plan and prevent further losses.
* Create ownership among employees by making them part of the investigation process.
* Demonstrate that the organisation is concerned about HSE.lect information.
* Analyse data to identify contributory factors and their inter-relationship.
* Determine the root/real causes of events contributing to the incident.
* Formulate an appropriate action plan and prevent further losses.
* Create ownership among employees by making them part of the investigation process.
* Demonstrate that the organisation is concerned about HSE.
224
Define 'Margin of error'?
Refers to the amount of deviation that is acceptable or can be tolerated before an incident occurs.
225
Define GAR9
Incidents
226
What are the Investigation Process phases?
```
Phase 1 – Situation analysis
Phase 2 – Collect information
Phase 3 – Analyse data
Phase 4 – Remedial action plans
Phase 5 – Audit
```
(SCARA)
227
What are the accident Modules?
- Simple linear models
- Complex linear models
- Non-linear models
228
Define Audit?
(existing system benchmarked = standard, protocol & legislation & evaluated performance/compliance)
A formal process by which an existing system is benchmarked against a specific standard, protocol or legislation and evaluated for its performance or compliance with the said benchmark standard, protocol or legislation.
229
There are three main types of audits that can be undertaken?
* First party audit
* Second party audit
* Third party audit
230
There are five essential features or characteristics of auditing which are?
```
• Systematic
• Subject
• Evidence
• Criteria
• Opinion
(SSECO)
```
231
The following factors are essential for successful continuous improvement?
- leadership
- proactivity
- constancy
- long-term mindset
* Leadership – The support of the leadership team in an organisation is imperative to its success.
* Proactivity – A focus on 'fire prevention' as opposed to 'fire-fighting' in a system.
* Constancy – Deming himself called for the “constancy of purpose for continuous improvement of products and service to society”.
* A long-term mindset – Too often organisations are overly focused on monthly or quarterly targets, which can make it difficult to prioritise improvements that may only have a longer-term impact.
232
There are three major types of Ergonomic injuries and incidents?
1. Cumulative Trauma Disorders (CTDs)
2. Acute strains, sprains and pulls
3. Incidents resulting from poor human factors environment
233
What is the Ergonomics/Manual handling Assessment?
- In order to determine the risks and identify controls an ergonomics assessment should be conducted.
- During such an assessment, four main factors must be considered:
- Task
- Individual
- Load
- Environment
(TILE)
234
Proper training should be provided to all individuals with proper supervision and information, as required in?
OHSA 8.
235
There are three major types of Ergonomic injuries and incidents?
1. Cumulative Trauma Disorders (CTDs)
2. Acute strains, sprains and pulls
3. Incidents resulting from poor human factors environment
236
Define stress?
Stress is a feeling of emotional or physical tension. Stress is your body's reaction to a challenge or demand
237
Define Depression?
Depression describes a range of symptoms from a period of low spirits that makes coping with normal tasks harder,
238
What are the effects of ionizing radiation?
* Carcinogen: Cause/ aggravate cancer
* Embryo toxin: Affect the unborn foetus
* Mutagen: Damage or changes to DNA cell structure.
239
Define Anxiety?
Workplace anxiety occurs when a person develops fears, phobias or hypochondriac anxieties regarding their working condition
240
Define Addiction?
Is a chronic, relapsing brain disease defined by a physical and psychological dependence on addictive substances, or a given behaviour or impulse
241
Define MSD disorders and give 4 examples?
It affects both the upper extremities and the lower back areas.
Some examples of MSDs are:
• Nerve disorders
• Neuro-vascular disorders
Other: bending, gripping, working in awkward positions and twisting
242
What are the most important principles of an occupational hygiene programme?
* It needs to be an ongoing
* Continuous data collection
* A data storage system is needed
* Periodic review of worker exposure
243
What are some of the causes of fatigue?
* Shift work, especially night work
* Inadequate time to recover between shifts
* Long hours of work
* Long commuting times
* International or domestic travel
* Excessive stress
* Mental health issues
* Ill health, including medication
244
Principals of occupational medicine?
- Medical surveillance programme
- Compliance with the legislative requirements
- Occupational health risk profile
245
What is an OREP?
Is the formal documentation of the results of a hazard identification and risk assessment that has been formulated for a single occupational exposure group (i.e. a job category) or even specific employees.
246
There are usually specific conclusions that can be drawn from the sampling, namely?
* No exposure
* Acceptable exposure
* Over-exposure
247
What are the five main stages of occupational hygiene?
* The anticipation stage
* The identification stage
* The evaluation stage
* The control stage
* The assurance stage
248
Define Safeguarding?
Is any means used to minimise the health and safety risks of personnel who come into contact with hazards.
249
What is considered to perhaps be the best-known source of contemporary law?
Legislation (Written or Statutory law)
250
What is corporate governance?
is the system by which companies are directed and controlled
```
Corporate governance is:
- the set of processes,
- customs,
- policies, laws, and
- institutions
affecting the way a corporation is:
- directed,
- administered or
- controlled.
```
251
What does corporate governance also includes?
The relationships among the many stakeholders involved and the goals for which the corporation is governed.
252
The principal stakeholders in relations to corporate governance are?
- the shareholders,
- management, and
- the board of directors.
Other stakeholders include:
- labour (employees),
- customers,
- creditors (e.g., banks, bond holders),
- suppliers,
- regulators, and the
- community at large.
