NEBOSH Textbook Q&A Flashcards

1
Q

Define an Accident?

A

An undesired event resulting in personal injury, damage or loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define a Hazard

A

A situation with the potential to cause harm or damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define a Risk

A

The likelihood that harm from a particular hazard may be realized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What two types of Hazards are there?

A

Unsafe conditions.

Unsafe acts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What factors are assessed in determining the magnitude of a risk?

A

The number of people likely to be affected by the harm from a hazard, and the severity of the harm that may be suffered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Identify two responsibilities of workers/employees identified in the Occupational Health and Safety Recommendation 1981?

A

(1) Workers should:
(a) take reasonable care for their own safety and that of other persons who may be affected by their acts or omissions at work;
(b) comply with instructions given for their own safety and health and those of others and with safety and health procedures;
(c) use safety devices and protective equipment correctly and do not render them inoperative;
(d) report forthwith to their immediate supervisor any situation which they have reason to believe could present a hazard and which they cannot themselves correct;
(e) report any accident or injury to health which arises in the course of or in connection with work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the consequences for an employer of non-compliance with Health and Safety responsibilities?

A
  1. Criminal - Fines

2. Civil - Compensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the consequences for an employer of non-compliance with Health and Safety responsibilities?

A

Criminal – fines; Civil - compensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Identify two external and two internal sources of information about health and safety.

A

(4) External data sources include: National legislation (e.g. regulations); Safety data sheets from manufacturers and suppliers; Government Enforcing Authority publications such as Codes of Practice and Guidance Notes; Manufacturers’/suppliers’ maintenance manuals; National/International standards; Information from local safety groups; Information from trade associations; Information from journals and magazines.

Internal data sources include: Information from accident records; Information from medical records and the medical department (if you have one); Information from company doctors; Risk assessments; Maintenance reports; Information from joint inspections with safety reps; Information from audits, surveys, sampling and tours; Information from safety committee minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the organizational requirements for effective health and safety management?

A

There should be a framework of roles and responsibilities for health and safety allocated to individuals throughout the organisation, including the appointment of specialist staff and ensuring that general management roles and arrangements address health and safety issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the roll of evaluation?

A

(2) To ensure that the organisational arrangements, health and safety standards and operational systems and measures are working effectively and, where they are not, to provide the information upon which they may be revised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why might the health and safety policy of two organisations, both undertaking similar work, be different?

A

Because the policy is a reflection of the particular circumstances of each organisation. Thus, any variations in size, nature and organisation of operations, etc., will mean that the health and safety policy will also vary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the three key elements of a health and safety policy?

A

The general statement of intent, organisation and arrangements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

By whom should the policy be signed?

A

A senior Director or the Chief Executive Officer, indicating the organisation’s commitment at the highest level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a safety organisation chart show?

A

The hierarchy of roles and responsibilities for health and safety, and the lines of accountability between them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What responsibilities do all workers have relating to health and safety?

A

To act responsibly and safely at all times, and to do everything they can to prevent injury to themselves and to fellow workers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What forms the base for the plans for the systems, procedures and other measures required to put the health and safety policy into effect?

A

Risk Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

State the three main forms of communicating health and safety information to staff.

A

The three main methods of communicating health and safety information are the use of written procedures, provision of instructions and provision of appropriate training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are active monitoring systems?

A

Active monitoring systems are those which seek to identify deficiencies in current arrangements before any resulting accident. They include testing, inspections and consultation procedures, as well as management controls to ensure compliance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In what specific circumstances should a policy review be held?

A

(4) The circumstances which should give rise to reviews, either of general policy or specific aspects of it, are:
 Changes in the structure of the organisation, and/or changes in key personnel.
 A change in buildings, workplace or worksite.
 When work arrangements change, or new processes are introduced.
 When indicated by a safety audit or a risk assessment.
 Following government enforcement action or as the result of the findings from accident investigations.
 Following a change in legislation.
 If consultation with workers or their representatives highlights deficiencies.
 If requested by a third party.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Outline typical duties of employers to workers.

A

The general duties of employers are:
 Provision/maintenance of safe plant/equipment and a safe system of working.
 Provision of adequate instruction, training, supervision and information necessary to ensure the health and safety at work of workers.
 Provision and maintenance of a safe workplace (including a safe way of getting to and from that place of work).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Outline common duties of workers.

A

The two general duties of workers are:
 To take reasonable care for their own health and safety and that of other persons who may be affected by their acts or omissions at work.
 To co-operate with the employer so far as is necessary to enable the employer to fulfil his legal obligations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the responsibilities of employers to people who are not their workers?

A

Employers must make adequate provision to protect third parties from harm as a result of their work activities by:
 Conducting their undertakings in such a way as to ensure that people not in their employment who may be affected by their activities are not exposed to risks to their health and safety.
 Giving people who are not their workers sufficient information regarding the undertaking as might affect their health and safety; for example, details of potential hazards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where business premises are rented, is the employer responsible for health and safety matters relating to points of entry to and exit from the workplace?

A

It would depend on the terms of the tenancy agreement. Responsibility lies with the person who may be said to control the particular aspect of the premises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Outline the areas of responsibility placed on people in the supply chain for the articles and substances which they supply to workplaces.

A

(1) All people involved in the design, manufacture and supply of articles and substances, insofar as it relates to their own role, should:
 Ensure that the articles and substances, are reasonably safe and without risks to health at all times at the workplace.
 Carry out such testing as may be necessary for the performance of the above.
 Take reasonable steps to ensure that the recipient of the article or substance is provided with adequate information about the article/substance (this might cover intended use, limitations, inherent hazards as well as how to use it properly).
 Keep the recipient up to date if new information comes to light regarding additional (significant) risks arising from the article/substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Outline the responsibilities of the client and the contractor where a contractor is working in the client’s own workplace?

A

In general terms, the client would be responsible for the workplace and environment, and the contractor for the job, with each being responsible as the employer to his own workers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How may employers consult workers?

A

(1) Directly, or through representatives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are safety circles?

A

Safety circles are small groups of workers who meet informally to discuss safety problems in their immediate working environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define health and safety culture?

A

Your definition should cover the main points of the definitions given in the element:
 From IOSH: “The characteristic shared attitudes, values, beliefs and practices of people at work concerning not only the magnitude of risks that they encounter but also the necessity, practicality, and effectiveness of preventive measures.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the difference between active and reactive indicators of a health and safety culture

A

Active indicators show how successfully health and safety plans are being implemented, mainly through the extent of compliance with systems and procedures.
Reactive indicators show the outcomes of breaches of health and safety systems and procedures, mainly through accidents, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why are low accident rates not a good indicator of a positive safety culture?

A

A low incidence of accidents may conceal a high number of near misses, or even a lack of reporting. In low risk organisations, a very low rate of accidents would be expected and any accidents may be a cause for concern. It is not the accident rate itself which indicates the state of health and safety in the workplace, but why those accidents take place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why do accident rates increase during periods of organisational change?

A

A lack of focus on health and safety by management and staff, increased pressure of work on individuals during the change period, uncertainty over the outcome of change causing demotivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List the main internal and external influences on the approach to health and safety in an organisation?

A

The main internal influences are management commitment, the demands of production, the form of communication, levels of competence and worker representation.
The main external influences are public opinion and expectations, legislation, trade unions and insurance companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is perceptual distortion and how may it arise?

A

Perceptual distortion, as applied to risk, occurs where the risk is not recognised for what it is. This may occur because of a failure to notice the hazard or a failure to interpret it as a risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the difference between an error and a violation?

A

An error is an action or decision which was not intended, involving a deviation from an accepted standard and leading to an undesirable outcome. A violation is a deviation from a rule, procedure, instruction or regulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do an individual’s peers exert influence over his/her behaviour?

A

Through the influence of groups and group norms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Why is encoding such a key element in the communication process?

A

In order for the communication to be effective, the message at the centre of the communication must be understood by the receiver in the way intended by the sender. The process of encoding (and then decoding) involves putting the message into words, gestures and symbols, etc., which the receiver will understand, so this is central to the effectiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is feedback essential for effective communication?

A

No. Feedback opportunities may help, but are not essential. Most written communication is one-way and this does not, in itself, make that form of communication ineffective.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the main advantages and disadvantages of both written and oral forms of communication?

A

(3) The following table shows the advantages and disadvantages of the two forms of communication.

Written:
Advantages:
Permanent record
More careful compilation
Widely distributed with ease

Disadvantages:
Expensive
Impersonal
Lack of feedback may lead to misunderstandings

Oral:
Advantages:
Immediate provision of information
Immediate feedback
Personal and direct

Disadvantages:
Time consuming and expensive
Impermanent
Opportunities for misinformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How are graphical (picture) symbols used in safety communications?

A

Predominantly in signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How may safety briefings be supported?

A

By the use of procedural manuals and by reinforcing signs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the main functions of committees and working groups?

A

The main functions of formal meetings are to:
 Provide members with an opportunity to exchange views and information.
 Make recommendations for action to a higher organisational level.
 Generate ideas or solutions to problems.
 Make policy and other decisions for the organisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What should be the first priority in induction training?

A

To set out the general instructions and procedures to be followed for safe movement around the workplace and what to do in the event of a fire or accident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Apart from induction, when should training always be provided?

A

Whenever there is a change to the job or tasks which workers are expected to perform, and when new legislation is introduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why is the distinction between hazards and risks so important to health and safety management?

A

Hazards will always exist to some extent in the workplace and usually it is not possible to eliminate them. Risk can be controlled and reduced. This is the central point of health and safety management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

State the purpose and objectives of risk assessment?

A

Risk assessment is an examination of what could cause harm to people as a result of work activities in order that appropriate precaution may be put in place to prevent harm. Its overall aim is to ensure that no one suffers harm as a result of workplace activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the basic calculation for risk?

A

Risk = Frequency  Severity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do accident triangles show?

A

Accident triangles show the relationship between numbers of accidents with different outcomes. They give the numbers of less serious accidents which occur for each occurrence of the most serious.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What limitations are there on the use of accidents statistics to draw comparisons with other workplaces or the industry as a whole?

A

The basis on which the statistics were prepared may not be the same and the workplaces themselves may not be directly comparable. The larger numbers of accidents included in statistics for an industry as a whole are likely to provide a more accurate reflection of reality than the smaller numbers involved in one particular workplace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the two ways in which accidents may be classified?

A

By the cause of the accident itself or by the cause of the injury arising from the accident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the main causes of accidents?

A

Human failings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

State the four forms in which chemical agents may be encountered.

A

Liquids, dusts, fumes and mists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the difference between an acute and a chronic effect?

A

An acute effect is the response induced by a single dose or limited exposure to an agent, and a chronic effect is the long-term response, usually after repeated exposures to a sub- lethal concentration of the agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

State the four ways in which physical hazards may cause harm to a person’s general health?

A

Physical hazards cause harm to the body through mechanical, radiation or thermal sources or because of ergonomic conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Into what categories are accidents which result in injuries caused by falling divided?

A

Slips, trips and falls on the same level, and falls from a height.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 5 steps of a Risk Assessment?

A

• Step 1: Look for the hazards
This is the process of identifying all the hazards that exist in the workplace. You must be aware of all the possible hazards, but it is the significant ones which are important.
One approach is to take each task and break it down into steps, assessing the hazards associated with each step. For example, the preparation of a meal could be broken down into preparation of the vegetables, etc.; cooking, to include boiling or roasting; serving, including the dishing-up and the moving to the table; and washing-up. Each step will have its own hazards. The staff actually performing the tasks are likely to be the best people to assess them, although their familiarity with the job may make them less objective about potential hazards.
• Step 2: Decide who might be harmed, and how
This is the process of determining who may be at risk from the hazards, that is the groups of staff and others likely to be affected in the case of an incident involving the hazard.
It is important to consider the wider implications of hazards, not just as they may affect those working in the immediate environment. We have to be aware of other staff groups, such as maintenance personnel and cleaners, as well as visitors and the public. Special attention should be given to inexperienced staff, lone workers or temporary staff, and to the particular needs of disabled staff, pregnant women and children.
• Step 3: Evaluate the risks arising from the hazards and decide if existing precautions are adequate or more should be done
This is where we assess the significance of the risks and suggest what should be done to protect people.
The key question is: have precautions been taken to protect the people we have identified against the risk from the named hazards? For example: are there proper working systems and procedures in place; are control measures such as guards on machines working properly; is there adequate information, instruction or training relating to the risk?

Action has to be taken where any existing measures do not appear to be adequate.
• Step 4: Record your findings
The significant findings of the assessment should be recorded and kept. There should be a record of all hazards, the risks that they present and what precautions are in place to protect people from harm. This written record is an important reference for future use, not only as the basis for reviewing risks, but also as information for enforcement officers; or even as evidence in any court proceedings arising from an accident involving the risk.
The record must cover all significant risks and state the current position; for example, “electrical wiring checks carried out in building A and everything found to be satisfactory”. Reference can be made to other information where appropriate; for example, “loading bay markings checked and all in accordance with site plan 44A”.
• Step 5: Review your assessment from time to time and revise it if necessary
The way we work is constantly changing, perhaps as a result of new equipment or modifications of existing equipment, building alterations, new procedures, new or modified products, etc. Sometimes systems and procedures are changed by the staff themselves.
They all bring their own hazards, but new hazards can also arise in existing methods of work; the effects of stress is a recent example.
It is important that we continue to be vigilant about hazards and risks and review workplace conditions regularly. How often is “regularly” will depend on the extent of the risks and the degree of change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

State the five steps involved in risk assessment?

A

Identifying hazards, identifying who might be harmed and how, evaluating the risks arising from the hazards and deciding if existing precautions are adequate or more should be done, recording the findings, and reviewing the assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Apart from operators, what particular staff groups require special consideration during a risk assessment?

A

Maintenance staff, cleaners, young workers, lone workers, new and expectant mothers and disabled staff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What techniques are used for identifying hazards?

A

Inspection, job/task analysis, analysis of incident data, examination of legislative requirements and associated guidance, examination of manufacturer’s information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is residual risk?

A

Residual risk is the level of risk remaining after the application of safety precautions. It should be only low-level, tolerable risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What factors are used to evaluate risk?

A

The likelihood of harm occurring and the severity of that harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

State the three principles which underlie the order of the general control hierarchy?

A

Elimination of the hazard, using physical or engineering controls to reduce the risk at source and provide protection generally, and control of the person by job design, management or (as a last resort) personal protective equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What conditions might trigger a risk assessment review?

A

Factors which would require a risk assessment include changes in legislation or control measures, a significant change in work practices and processes, or installation of new machinery and equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

(1) Which three general principles of prevention are not included in the following list?

 Avoiding risks (wherever possible).
 Evaluating risks that cannot be avoided by carrying out a risk assessment
 Adapting work to the requirements of the individual.
 Adapting to technical progress.
 Replacing the dangerous by the non-dangerous or less dangerous.
 Developing a coherent overall prevention policy.

A

The three missing principles are:
 Combating the risks at their source, rather than taking measures to control the risk in the wider workplace.
 Giving priority to collective protective measures over individual protective measures.
 Giving appropriate instructions to workers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
(2)	What type of sign is represented by the following pictograms?
 (i)
Blue
(ii)
Red
(iii)
Green
(iv)	
Yellow
A

(i) Mandatory action – must put litter in bins.
(ii) Prohibition – not drinking water.
(iii) Safe conditions – drinking water.
(iv) Warning – radiation hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

State, in order, the three elements of the hierarchy of control.

A

First, eliminate the hazard through elimination or substitution.
Second, use engineering controls which reduce the risk at source and provide protection generally rather than individually.
Finally, control the way people interact with the hazard by working patterns and methods, or as a last resort by the use of personal protective equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What do engineering controls do?

A

Engineering controls provide plant and equipment with built-in safety features and add particular safety equipment to processes in order to remove or reduce risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When should personal protective equipment be used?

A

When it has not been possible to eliminate the hazard or reduce risk to acceptable levels by the use of engineering controls, working methods or working patterns.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Define a safe system of work?

A

A safe system of work is a formal procedure which results from a systematic examination of the tasks of a work process in order to identify all the hazards and define methods of working which eliminate those hazards or minimise the risks associated with them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How does involving workers in the development of safe systems of work contribute to strengthening the safety culture?

A

Involvement enables workers to gain a deeper understanding of hazards and risks, and of the way in which safe systems of work will minimise those risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the difference between technical, procedural and behavioural controls?

A

Technical or engineering controls are those which are applied directly to the hazard itself in order to minimise the risk. Procedural controls define the way in which work should be carried out in relation to the hazard. Behavioural controls define how the individual operator or groups of workers must act in relation to the hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which types of control listed in (3) are used in permits-to-work?

A

All of them.
Technical or engineering controls are those which are applied directly to the hazard itself in order to minimise the risk. Procedural controls define the way in which work should be carried out in relation to the hazard. Behavioural controls define how the individual operator or groups of workers must act in relation to the hazard.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why do instruction, training and supervision form a part of safe systems?

A

Because only people who are competent by means of appropriate training and instruction may be allowed to undertake the work. Supervision is necessary to ensure that staff follow instructions and their training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is a permit-to-work?

A

Permits-to-work are formal written documents specifying the work to be done and the precautions to be taken. Work can only start when it is confirmed that it is safe to do so, and the work must be carried out strictly according to the requirements of the permit. On completion, confirmation is required that all safety measures have been reinstated before any further work can commence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What three key points are missing from this list of requirements for a permit-to-work form?
 Permit title, number and reference to other relevant permits or isolation certificates.
 Job location, plant identification, description of work to be done and its limitations.
 Hazard identification and precautions necessary.
 Signature of the manager releasing the plant for the job and confirming that isolations have been made/precautions taken, except those which can only be taken during the work.
 Signature confirming understanding of the work to be done, the hazards involved and the precautions required.
 Hand-back – signatures, with time and date, of both the permit acceptor and issuer confirming that all the procedures have been carried out correctly, the work has been completed and the plant is ready for testing and recommissioning.
 Cancellation – signatures, with time and date, certifying that the work has been tested and the plant satisfactorily recommissioned, and that it has been accepted back in a safe condition for production to recommence.

A

The three missing elements are:
 Protective equipment necessary when undertaking the work.
 Date and time duration of the permit.
 Extension/shift hand-over procedures – signatures confirming that checks have been made to ensure that the plant remains safe to be worked upon, and that the next workers have been made fully aware of the hazards and precautions. Where an extension to the work is involved, a new expiry time for the permit must be given.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the main objective of an emergency procedure?

A

The main objective of emergency procedures is to provide a safe environment for workers during an emergency and to limit the loss of property.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What hazards should be included in a risk assessment relating to emergency procedures?

A

Hazards at the workplace, and also those at nearby facilities which may affect it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the role of those with specially designated responsibilities in the event of an emergency?

A

Their role will be to:
 Receive information about incidents likely to give rise to an emergency situation.
 Determine the initial response to the situation, including whether an evacuation is necessary, and lead that response.
 Contact the emergency and rescue services as necessary, and brief them on the nature of the incident and any special problems/hazards they might face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What items should not be included in a first aid kit?

A

Medicines and tablets (since they may only be dispensed by qualified medical personnel).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the three main types of hazard faced by pedestrians?

A

Slips, trips and falls; collisions; injury or damage caused by environmental conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the main hazards causing slips, trips and falls on the same level?

A

Wet or greasy floors, uneven or loose surfaces, and obstacles on the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the four main environmental hazards?

A

Lighting levels, heat, noise and air quality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

State four items that a risk assessment should consider in relation to potential hazards to pedestrians?

A

There are many such factors. The following were given in the element:
 The normal patterns of movement in and around the workplace.
 Patterns of movement outside of those which are normal, whether authorised or not, and which may be reasonably predicted.
 The particular needs of certain groups.
 The needs of people not normally on the premises.
 The influence of different weather conditions.
 The influence of maintenance procedures.
 Accident and incident reports.
 How good are the existing measures and systems of work in providing adequate protection for pedestrians.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a designated walkway?

A

Designated walkways are areas which are specially protected from hazards by segregating people from vehicles, and within which pedestrians should be reasonably safe from harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Where and how should hazard warning markings be placed?

A

Hazard warning markings (yellow diagonal stripes on a black background) should be fixed as tape or painted onto any object likely to present an unforeseen hazard. In addition, they may be used to indicate areas to avoid, such as around doors used by vehicles, and to mark the edges of safe walkways.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What safety measures may be taken relating to doors?

A
Four strategies are suggested:
	One-way systems through double doors.
	Automatic doors or soft doors.
	Hazard signals and warning lights on the doors themselves, and in surrounding areas.
	Putting in viewing panel windows.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the three main types of hazard caused by vehicle operations?

A

Loss of control, overturning and collisions with other vehicles, pedestrians or fixed objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What may cause loss of control of a vehicle?

A

Driver error, mechanical failure and environmental conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What factors may contribute to the risk of overturning?

A

Several factors may be involved, including:
 Speed of travel.
 Steepness of the slope.
 Height of the vehicle (including its load).
 Stability of the load.
 High tyre pressure.
 Any external longitudinal pressure, such as wind or colliding objects.
 Presence and size of any bumps or holes in the surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Identify the environmental conditions which might contribute to accidents?

A
Adverse environmental conditions include:
	Poor weather.
	Poor lighting.
	Poor sight lines.
	Poor ground surface.
	Congestion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How can visibility be improved?

A

By ensuring adequate lighting is provided for the traffic route (and its surroundings), and by making sure that sight lines are good.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Identify the main safety measures used to manage vehicle operations and movement?

A
Management of vehicle operations and movements includes the following measures:
	Movement systems.
	Speed limits.
	Vehicle parking.
	Signs and markings.
	Signalling.
	Loading and unloading procedures.
	Special rules for particular sites.
	General rules to make sure vehicles do not become hazards.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

On what key areas should vehicle safety maintenance concentrate?

A
Vehicle safety maintenance should concentrate on:
	Braking systems.
	Steering mechanisms.
	Tyres.
	Exhaust systems.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In what conditions should warning lights and alarm systems be used?

A

Warning lights and alarms should be used to alert pedestrians and other drivers of the approach of a vehicle. They are particularly important at blind corners, junctions and doorways, and on reversing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What special equipment should be fitted to vehicles to protect drivers?

A

The main methods of protecting drivers are the use of seat belts, secured doors and protective cages and cabins with shatter-proof glass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the main means of separating vehicles and pedestrians?

A

There are three main means of separation:
 Barriers and/or clear surface markings to mark separate routes for pedestrians and vehicles.
 Designated crossing points for pedestrians to use when crossing vehicle routes.
 Separate doorways, etc., for pedestrians.

97
Q

What are the main causes of injury to workers as a result of manual handling operations?

A

The main causes of injury are:
 Failing to use a proper technique for lifting and/or moving the object(s) or load.
 Moving loads which are too heavy.
 Failing to grip the object(s) or load in a safe manner.
 Not wearing appropriate personal protective equipment.

98
Q

What is a WRULD and how might it be brought about?

A

WRULD stands for “work related upper limb disorder” and refers to ill-health conditions affecting the upper limbs, particularly the soft connecting tissues, muscles and nerves of the hand, wrist, arm and shoulder.
WRULDs arise from the repetition of ordinary movements (such as gripping, twisting, reaching or moving), often in a forceful and awkward manner, without sufficient rest or recovery time.

99
Q

What is the primary means of minimising the hazards of manual handling?

A

The elimination of risk by the use of mechanical aids.

100
Q

What are the characteristics of the load which may present a hazard?

A

The characteristics of a load which constitute a hazard are its weight, size, shape, resistance to movement, rigidity or lack of it, position of its centre of gravity, presence or absence of handles, surface texture, stability of any contents and the contents themselves.

101
Q

Identify the main hazards presented by the working environment in relation to manual handling operations.

A

The main hazards in the working environment are:
 Restrictions on movement and posture.
 Conditions of floors and other surfaces.
 Variations in levels.
 Temperature and humidity.
 Strong air movements.
 Lighting conditions.

102
Q

How can manual handling tasks be re-designed to make them less hazardous?

A

Re-design of the task may include:
 Sequencing – adjusting the sequence of tasks in a process to minimise the number of operations involving lifting and carrying loads.
 Work routine – reducing repetitive operations to allow variation in movement and posture, by such means as introducing breaks, job rotation and providing ways in which workers can operate more at their own pace, rather than the work being controlled by a continuous supply of materials to be handled.
 Using teams – sharing the load by using teams of workers to carry out the task.

103
Q

What are the most common hazards associated with:

(i) Fork-lift trucks.
(ii) Lifts and hoists.
(iii) Cranes.
(iv) Sack trucks?

A

((i) The most common hazard of lift trucks is that, with their small wheels and particularly when loaded and with the forks raised, they may become unbalanced, resulting in them shedding their load or tipping over. Other hazards arise from the constant need to reverse the truck, obscured vision when the load is raised and using unsuitable trucks for the working environment.

(ii) The main risks associated with lifts and hoists are falls from a height (from a landing level, from the platform or with the platform) and being hit by materials falling from the platform. Other hazards include being struck by the platform or other moving parts, and being struck by external objects or structures while riding on the platform.
(iii) The main hazards associated with cranes are the risk of them becoming unbalanced and toppling over, the arm of the crane swinging out of control or the load striking something whilst being moved horizontally or falling.
(iv) The main hazards of sack trucks are overloading, instability of the load, tipping when moving over uneven ground or on slopes, and careless stowage.

104
Q

What personal protective equipment might be appropriate for working with:

(i) Pallet trucks.
(ii) Cranes?

A

(i) Safety footwear, as well as gloves and aprons to protect whilst handling loads.
(ii) Safety helmets.

105
Q

How can entry to and exit from lifts be made safe for people?

A

The main means of protection is the use of interlocking gates which ensure that access to and egress from the lift platform is only possible when the lift is at rest. Other relevant safety measures include the positioning of the operator so that each access point can be seen or the use of signallers to inform the operator that it is clear.

106
Q

(i) From what do the risks in the use of hand tools arise?

(ii) From what do the additional risks of portable power tools arise?

A

(i) The risks in the use of hand tools arise from operator error, misuse and improper maintenance.
(ii) The additional risks of portable power tools arise from the presence of the power source (and especially the electrical cables) and the speed and force of the tool itself.

107
Q

Why might each power tool be marked?

A

To identify it for inspection purposes as part of a routine maintenance system.

108
Q

What are the general factors about machines and the way in which people may come into contact with them which cause the specific mechanical hazards in any situation?

A

There are six general factors:
 Shape of the machine– for example, whether an object has sharp edges, angular parts, etc., which may be a hazard even if not moving.
 Relative motion of machine parts or of a machine part to a body, or part of a body.
 Mass and stability of the machine or parts of it, including the workpiece.
 Acceleration of moving parts of a machine (or the workpiece), either under normal conditions or if something breaks.
 Inadequate mechanical strength of a machine or part of it.
 Potential energy of elastic components which may be translated into movement.

109
Q

What are drawing-in injuries?

A

These occur where a part of the body is caught between two moving parts and drawn into the machine.

110
Q

List the non-mechanical hazards arising from the use of machinery.

A

Noise, vibration, electricity, temperature, hazardous materials and substances (including radiation) and ergonomics.

111
Q

What hazards might arise from the use of the following machines?

(i) Bench top grinder.
(ii) Simple robot.
(iii) Pneumatic drill.
(iv) Bench-mounted saw.

A

(i) Bench top grinder: Mechanical – contact, ejection of parts, swarf.
Non-mechanical – dust.
(ii) Simple robot: Mechanical - impact/crushing.
Non-mechanical – noise.
(iii) Pneumatic drill: Mechanical - impact/crushing.
Non-mechanical – noise, vibration, dust.
(iv) Bench-mounted saw: Mechanical – cutting/severing.
Non-mechanical – noise, dust.

112
Q

What is the hierarchy of protective measures?

A

The hierarchy of protective measures referred to in the text is as follows:
 Fixed enclosing guards.
 Other guards or protection devices.
 Protection appliances.
 The provision of information, instruction, training and supervision.

113
Q

What five requirements are there for any guarding system?

A
That they should:
	Be compatible with the process.
	Be of adequate strength.
	Be properly maintained.
	Not increase risk.
	Not be easily bypassed or disabled.
114
Q

Describe the principles of an interlocking guard system.

A

Interlocking guards comprise a system which links the opening of the primary guard to the operation of a second safety device, leading either to the complete stoppage of the machine or to the operation of another guard.

115
Q

What is a trip device?

A

A trip device is a system which stops or reverses the motion of a machine when a person enters the hazard area.

116
Q

What are the limitations of adjustable guards?

A

There are two potentially serious limitations:
 They can easily be defeated.
 They rely upon operators being 100% vigilant in providing for their own safety, a condition the guard should provide, not the operator.

117
Q

What are protection appliances?

A

These are hand held tools or hand controlled fixed devices which are used to hold or manipulate a workpiece as it enters the machine, is worked on and/or removed from the machine. They allow the operator to keep control of the piece whilst not coming into contact with the hazardous parts of the machine. They include push sticks, jigs and other types of holder.

118
Q

How may two-handed controls be over-ridden?

A

Two people can over-ride the system by each holding one handle.

119
Q

When are operators required to be trained in the use of safety equipment?

A

At all times and in all situations.

120
Q

What is the voltage of a circuit?

A

Voltage is the measure of difference in electrical potential between the two terminals of a circuit.

121
Q

What determines the current in a circuit?

A

The current in a circuit is determined by the voltage.

122
Q

What is the difference between resistance and impedance?

A

In principle, there is no difference as both terms relate to the slowing of the flow of electricity through a circuit. Generally, resistance relates to the components connected to a circuit whereas impedance relates to resistance within the conductor itself.

123
Q

What is a short circuit?

A

A short circuit is formed where another conductor touches the circuit and provides the electricity with an alternative path to a terminal with a larger potential difference than the neutral terminal, usually the earth.

124
Q

What does arcing do?

A

Earthing provides a safe path for any faulty current to be dispersed to earth through a designated conductor.

125
Q

What is the main effect of electric shock on the body?

A

An electric shock results in a convulsive response by the nervous system to the passage of electricity through that part of the body, causing the muscles to contract, often violently.

126
Q

(7) If a person receives a shock for one second which passes through the body along a path with an impedance of 10,000 ohms, what would be the current received and what effect might it have on the person if the voltage of the circuit touched was:
(i) 240 volts.
(ii) 110 volts.
(iii) 50 volts?

A

Using the equation for calculating current from Ohms Law and expressing the result in milliamps:

(i) I = V = 240 = 24 mA.
R 1o, 000 This will cause strong muscle contraction and possibly some breathing difficulties.

(ii) I = V = 110 = 11 mA. R 1o,000 This will be painful and there will be some muscle contraction.
(iii) I = V = 50 = 5 mA. R 1o,000 This will be barely perceptible, perhaps some mild tingling will be felt.

127
Q

What is the first step in treating a victim of electric shock?

A

The first action should be to break any continuing contact between the victim and the current.

128
Q

What is arcing and what risks does it pose?

A

Arcing is the electrical bridging through air of one conductor with a very high potential to another nearby earthed conductor. If the arc is connected to a person, the victim may be subject to both a flame burn from the arc and electric shock from the current which passes through the body. There is also a danger of burns from ultraviolet radiation and radiated heat, even where the arc does not actually touch a person. Arcing can also provide a source of ignition for fire.

129
Q

Why are cable drum extension leads dangerous?

A

The bends in the cable increase resistance and may cause overheating of the conductor.

130
Q

What five factors should be used to assess the suitability of the construction of an electrical system?

A

The factors to be considered when evaluating the suitability of the construction of electrical systems are:
 The manufacturer’s recommendations.
 The likely load and fault conditions.
 The probable use of the system(s).
 The need for suitable electrical protection devices, such as overload protection.
 The environmental conditions which may affect the mechanical strength and protection required.

131
Q

What protection is offered by the cord grip in a plug?

A

A cord grip restricts movement at the point of entry of the flexible cable into the plug, thus preventing abrasion of the cable. It also prevents the conductors being pulled loose from their terminals.

132
Q

What is the difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker?

A

A fuse forms a weak link in a circuit by overheating and melting by design if the current exceeds the safe limit. A circuit breaker is a mechanical device in the form of a switch which automatically opens if the circuit is overloaded.

133
Q

What is the purpose of a fan in an item of electrical equipment?

A

A fan is designed to disperse excess heat generated by the normal operation of the equipment. It is not designed to prevent overheating from electrical faults.

134
Q

What is equipotential bonding?

A

Equipotential bonding is the process of connecting all external metalwork in the system to a common bonding conductor, thus ensuring that all the metalwork is at the same potential and, if any of the metal fittings become live, current will not flow through the system.

135
Q

What is the difference between switching off and isolation?

A

Switching off refers to depriving the equipment of electric power, but still leaving it connected. Isolation refers to physically separating it from any source of electric power, with the additional step being taken of ensuring that it cannot be inadvertently re- energised.

136
Q

What protection is offered by a reduced voltage transformer in a circuit?

A

Reduced voltage circuits reduce the effect of any shock received from making contact with part of the circuit.

137
Q

State the main features of a proper system of maintenance.

A

The main elements of a proper system of maintenance are:
 Identification of the equipment which has to be maintained and where/how it is to be used.
 Discouragement of “unauthorised” equipment in the workplace.
 Carrying out simple user checks for signs of damage; for example, casing, plug pins and cable sheath.
 Formal visual inspections carried out routinely by a competent person.
 Periodic testing of equipment by a competent person.
 Systems for the reporting and replacement of defective equipment.
 Recording of all maintenance and test results along with the inventory of equipment in use.

138
Q

What checks should be carried out before an item of electrical equipment is used?

A

The person utilising the electrical equipment should visually check for signs that the equipment is not in sound condition; for example:
 Damage to the cable sheathes, joints or plugs.
 The equipment has been subjected to conditions for which it is not suitable; for example, it is wet or excessively contaminated.
 Damage to the external casing of the equipment or there are loose parts or screws.

139
Q

What is the safest method of powering electric hand tools which are being used outdoors?

A

If they cannot be powered by battery, the electrical power should be delivered through a reduced voltage circuit and/or protected by a residual current circuit breaker.

140
Q

What is likely to happen if you open a window to release the dense smoke in a room created by a fire?

A

The smoke may begin to clear but by allowing fresh air into an oxygen-depleted environment the fire is likely to burn with increased intensity.

141
Q

Explain briefly how each of the following might start a fire.

(i) Static electricity.
(ii) Friction.
(iii) Space heater.

A

(i) Static electricity is an electrostatic charge produced by friction or induction. The charge may be transported a considerable distance from the point of origin and a spark may be produced when sufficient charge accumulates. This spark may have enough energy for ignition.
(ii) Friction is the process whereby heat is given off by two materials moving against one another. In the absence of a lubricant or cooling substance it can result in the surfaces of the materials becoming hot or actually producing sparks, either of which may be sufficient to cause ignition. Friction can be caused by impact (one material striking another), rubbing (when moving parts of a machine contact stationary surfaces) or smearing (for example, when a steel surface coated with a softer light metal is subjected to a high specific bearing pressure with sliding or grazing).

(iii) A space heater is designed to give off considerable heat and, close to the heater, temperatures may be very high. Fire may be started by combustible materials being placed too close to the source of the heat (through radiation) or by actually touching the hot surfaces of the heater itself.

142
Q

Define the following term:

(i) Convection.
(ii) Radiation.
(iii) Conduction

A

(i) Convection - is the process of heat transfer by the bulk movement of molecules within fluids such as gases and liquids.
(ii) Radiation - heat transfer is a process where heat waves are emitted that may be absorbed, reflected, or transmitted through a colder body.
(iii) Conduction - is the transfer of thermal energy through direct contact

143
Q

What additional method of heat transfer/fire spread is not illustrated by the photographs above?

A

Direct burning.

144
Q

Identify the fire classification of each of the following types of fire.

(i) Butane gas cylinders burning in the storage area of a garden centre.
(ii) Fire in the paint shop of a car manufacturer.
(iii) Fire in an office.

A

(i) Class C – fires involving gases or liquefied gases.
(ii) Class B – fires involving flammable liquids or liquefied solids.
(iii) Class A – fires involving solid, mainly carbonaceous, materials (here, most likely paper and furniture, etc.).

145
Q

How might you minimise the risk of fire in a woodworking area?

A

Fire risk can be minimised by ensuring that wood shavings and dust are cleared regularly and ignition sources such as cigarettes and sparks from electrical equipment do not come into contact with combustible materials.

146
Q

What precautions should be taken when using flammable liquids?

A

The volume of flammable liquids in use at any one time should be minimised and it should be held in appropriate (usually metal), correctly labelled containers with secure lids. The need to decant highly flammable liquids from one container to another should be minimised, thus reducing the risk of spillages.

147
Q

Upon what does the fire resistance of each of the following building materials depend?

(i) Timber.
(ii) Reinforced concrete.
(iii) Brick walls.

A

(i) The fire resistance of timber depends on the “four Ts”: the thickness or cross- sectional area of the piece, the tightness of any joints involved, the type of wood and any treatment received.
(ii) The fire resistance of reinforced concrete depends on the type of aggregate used and the thickness of concrete over the reinforcing rods.
(iii) The fire resistance of a brick wall depends on its thickness, the applied rendering or plastering, whether the wall is load-bearing or not, and the presence of perforations or cavities within the bricks.

148
Q

Describe the effects of fire on an unprotected steel beam?

A

The beam will distort, possibly causing the collapse of any structure it is supporting. It will also conduct heat and increase the possibility of fire spread.

149
Q

Describe how flame retardant paint protects covered timber?

A

When exposed to heat the paint bubbles rather than burns and thus gives additional protection to the covered timber.

150
Q

What three elements should be addressed in any assessment of fire risk?

A

A site plan, the fire hazards and their level of risk, and fire control and evacuation measures.

151
Q

What are the limitations of manual alarm systems and how may they be overcome?

A

(1) Manual systems alone can only raise an alarm over a limited area and for a limited time. There has to be some means for the person raising the alarm to make it general – by using the phone or public address system, or a manual/electric system.

152
Q

Identify the three ways in which fire may be detected and state the types of automatic detector associated with each.

A

Manual systems alone can only raise an alarm over a limited area and for a limited time. There has to be some means for the person raising the alarm to make it general – by using the phone or public address system, or a manual/electric system.

153
Q

Identify the three ways in which fire may be detected and state the types of automatic detector associated with each?

A

(i) Detection of smoke or other fumes by ionisation or optical smoke detectors.
(ii) Detection of flames by ultra-violet and infra-red radiation detectors.
(iii) Detection of heat by fusion or expansion heat detectors

154
Q

Identify the three ways of extinguishing a fire?

A

(3) Starvation (removing the fuel), smothering (removing the oxygen) and cooling (removing the heat).

155
Q

Identify the classes of fire for which each of the following extinguishing agents/devices are suitable.

(i) Water.
(ii) Carbon dioxide gas.
(iii) Dry powder.
(iv) Foam.
(v) Fire blankets.

A

(i) Water – class A.
(ii) Carbon dioxide gas – classes A and B.
(iii) Dry powder – classes A, B, and D.
(iv) Foam – class B.
(v) Fire blankets – classes A, B, D and F.

156
Q

State the four colour coding requirements for portable fire extinguishers?

A

Water – Red.
Chemical foam – Cream.
Carbon dioxide – Black.
Dry powder – Blue

157
Q

Outline the main points to be covered in training in the use of fire extinguishers?

A

General understanding of how extinguishers operate.
The importance of using the correct extinguisher for different classes of fire. Practice in the use of different extinguishers.
When to and when not to tackle a fire.
When to leave a fire that has not been extinguished.

158
Q

What areas may be used as assembly points?

A

An assembly point should be a place of ultimate safety (outside the building, in the open air, away from any further danger from the fire) or a place of comparative or relative safety, in a fire-protected area.

159
Q

What should take place in an assembly point following an evacuation?

A

There should be a roll call to ensure that all people in the affected area are present.

160
Q

State the escape times and distances for:

(i) High fire risk areas.
(ii) Normal fire risk areas.
(iii) Low fire risk areas.

A

(i) High fire risk areas – one minute or 12 - 25 metres.
(ii) Normal fire risk areas – three minutes or 18 - 45 metres.
(iii) Low fire risk areas – five minutes or 45 - 60 metres.

161
Q

What is the purpose of signs used on escape routes?

A

To direct occupants to the means by which they can safely leave the premises.

162
Q

Outline the main requirements for an escape route?

A

The escape route should be as straight as possible direct to the assembly point, clear of obstruction, free of materials which could pose a fire hazard, and be wide enough throughout (including at doorways and openings) to provide for the unrestricted flow of people.

163
Q

List the actions for which fire marshals/wardens are responsible when an evacuation takes place?

A

Ensuring all occupants leave by the designated escape route. Searching all areas to ensure that the area is clear.
Ensuring that fire escape routes are kept open and clear at all times. Ensuring all doors and windows are closed on leaving the area.
Conducting the roll call at the assembly area.
Meeting the fire brigade on arrival and informing them of all relevant details.

164
Q

State the forms of chemical agents which may arise in the workplace.

A

Liquids, gases, vapours, mists, fumes and dusts.

165
Q

Identify the three general classifications of chemical hazards?

A

The classification of hazardous substances is split into three basic groups: Physico- chemical, Health and Environmental.

166
Q

Distinguish briefly between acute and chronic ill-health effects?

A

Acute ill-health effects arise where the quantity of a toxic or harmful substance absorbed into the body produces harmful effects very quickly, that is within seconds, minutes or hours. Chronic ill-health effects arise where the harmful effects of a substance absorbed into the body take a very long time to appear, perhaps months or even years.

167
Q

Identify the routes of entry of chemical and biological agents into the body?

A

Inhalation, ingestion, absorption, aspiration and injection.

168
Q

What are the conditions which allow the Legionella bacterium to develop?

A

The Legionella bacterium thrives in:
 Water temperatures in the range of 20-45C.
 The presence of sediment, sludge, scale and/or organic material in the water which act as a source of nutrients.
 Slime on the surface of water.

169
Q

What is the difference between the effects of CO2 and CO?

A

Both carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide are asphyxiants, that is when inhaled they do not cause direct injury to the respiratory tract, but reduce the oxygen available to the body. CO2 is a simple asphyxiant which displaces air, whereas CO is a chemical asphyxiant which combines with haemoglobin to form a compound which prevents oxygen transport by the blood.

170
Q

What is the difference between an inhalable substance and a respirable substance?

A

Inhalable substances are capable of entering the mouth, nose and upper reaches of the respiratory tract during breathing. Respirable substances are capable of deeper penetration to the lung itself. It is the size of the individual particle which determines whether a substance such as a dust is inhalable or respirable.

171
Q

What is pneumoconiosis?

A

Pneumoconiosis is the general term for an accumulation of dust in the lungs and the tissue reaction to its presence

172
Q

What do you understand by the term time-weighted average in relation to an WEL?

A

Workplace Exposure Limits (WELs) are expressed as time-weighted averages, meaning that measurements are taken over a particular time period (15 minutes for short-term limits or 8 hours for long-term limits) and then averaged out. The concept of time-weighted averages allows concentrations levels to exceed the limit, provided that there are equivalent exposures below it to compensate.

173
Q

Give three examples of the limitations of WELs?

A

The limitation of WELs are:
 They are designed only to control absorption into the body following inhalation.
 They take no account of human sensitivity or susceptibility (especially in relation to allergic response).
 They do not take account of the synergistic effects of mixtures of substances.
 They do not provide a clear distinction between “safe” and “dangerous” conditions.
 They cannot be applied directly to working periods which exceed eight hours.
 They may be invalidated by changes in temperature, humidity or pressure.
(3) The label on a preparation which is dangerous for supply must give the following

174
Q

What information is generally provided on the label of a substance or preparation which has been classified as dangerous?

A

The label on a preparation which is dangerous for supply must give the following information:
 The name(s) of the hazardous constituents.
 The indication(s) of danger and the corresponding symbols.
 The risk phrases.
 The safety phrases.
 Name, address and telephone number of the supplier.

175
Q

What is the purpose of safety data sheets?

A

Safety data sheets are intended to provide users with sufficient information about the hazards of the substance or preparation for them to take appropriate steps to ensure health and safety in the workplace in relation to all aspects of their use, including their transport and disposal.

176
Q

What is the difference between passive and active sampling devices?

A

In passive sampling devices the air sample passes through/into the device by means of natural air currents and diffuses into a chamber containing an absorbent material which can be removed for later analysis. In active sampling devices the air sample is forced through the instrument by means of a pump.

177
Q

Give three examples of limitations in the use of stain tube detectors?

A

The limitations of stain tube detectors are:
 The volume of air sampled may not be accurate due to incorrect assembly interfering with the air flow (through leaks, etc.) or incorrect operation.
 There may be the possibility of cross-sensitivity of tube reagents to substances other than the one being analysed.
 There may be problems caused by variations in temperature and pressure.
 The indicating reagent in the tubes may deteriorate over time.
 There may be variations in the precise reagent make-up between tubes.
 Hand-operated detectors are capable of only a single “point in time” spot sample.

178
Q

What are smoke tubes used for?

A

Smoke tubes are used to test the effectiveness of ventilation or air conditioning systems and chimneys, to detect leaks in industrial equipment, to assess relative air pressures used in certain types of local ventilation systems, and to provide general information about air movements in a work area.

179
Q

What principles of control are illustrated by the following measures?

(i) Using granulated pottery glazes instead of powders.
(ii) Vacuum cleaning rather than sweeping up with a broom.
(iii) Job rotation.
(iv) Using water-based adhesives rather than solvent-based ones.

A

(i) Substitution.
(ii) Work process change.
(iii) Reduced time exposure.
(iv) Elimination.

180
Q

What is the difference between local exhaust ventilation and dilution ventilation?

A

Local exhaust ventilation (LEV) is a control measure for dealing with contaminants generated from a point source. Dilution ventilation deals with contamination in the general atmosphere of a workplace area.

181
Q

What are dead areas and why are they a problem for dilution ventilation systems?

A

Dead areas are areas in the workplace which, owing to the airflow pattern produced by the positioning of extraction fans and the inlets for make-up air used in the ventilation system, remain motionless and so the air is not changed. They can move from one position in the workplace to another as a result of changing the positions of fans and inlets, by draughts of air through windows and doors or moving the position of machinery or workbenches.

182
Q

List the five main types of respirator and the three main types of breathing apparatus?

A

The main types of respirator are filtering face-piece respirators, half-mask respirators, full- face or canister respirators, powered clean-air respirators and powered visor respirators. For breathing apparatus the three main types are fresh air hoses, compressed airlines and self-contained systems.

183
Q

What are the key criteria in the selection of the appropriate respirator to use?

A

The type of hazard (dust, gas, vapour, etc.) and the category of danger, contaminant concentration levels and wearer acceptability.

184
Q

What is the main purpose of routine health surveillance?

A

The main purpose of routine health surveillance is to identify at as early a stage as possible any variations in the health of workers which may be related to working conditions.

185
Q

Sum up the aims of ergonomics in a simple phrase.

A

Fitting the task to the worker.

186
Q

What are the categories of health risks arising from poor task and workstation design?

A

Physical stress, resulting in injury or general fatigue, visual problems and mental stress.

187
Q

What is HAVS and how is it caused?

A

Hand-Arm Vibration Syndrome (HAVS) is a condition produced at work by exposure to vibrations from hand-held tools. The vibration affects blood flow to the fingers and arms causing blanching of the fingers (white finger) and tingling of muscles, and may cause blocking and restriction of blood flow in small arteries and even gangrene.

188
Q

State the risk factors involved in the physical requirements of the task?

A

Posture and physical action, forces involved, repetition, and duration and recovery time.

189
Q

What aspects of lighting are risk factors?

A

Illumination, contrast, flickering and glare.

190
Q

Summarise the requirements relating to the following elements of workstations.

(i) Work surface/desk
(ii) Keyboard
(iii) Chair
(iv) Space.

A

(i) The work surface or desk should be large enough to hold all necessary equipment and other items used from time to time, and to allow them to be arranged to suit the individual’s needs. If necessary, it should also be deep enough to accommodate a VDU for viewing at a distance of about 350 to 600 mm without cramping the work surface in front of it.
(ii) The keyboard should be of appropriate design to be usable in comfort, with keys of sufficient size and clarity to suit the demands of the task. It should be able to be tilted and separated from the screen so the operator can find a comfortable position.
(iii) A work chair must have an adjustable seat back, good lumbar support and be adjustable in height to suit the user.
(iv) There should be sufficient clear and unobstructed space at each workstation to enable the work to be done safely, allowing for the manoeuvring and positioning of materials. This should also provide for adequate freedom of movement and the ability to stand upright.

191
Q

What does an LEP,d of 85 dB(A) mean and what is significant about this figure?

A

This refers to a daily personal exposure to noise (LEP,d) at a level of 85 dB(A) over the course of a working day (eight hours), or an equivalent exposure over a shorter period.

192
Q

What are the limitations of ear defenders and earplugs?

A

There is a general limitation on the level of noise reduction that can be achieved, depending on the quality and type of ear protection. Taking off the protection reduces its effectiveness. In addition, the seal between the ear and the protective device may be less than perfect due to long hair, thick spectacle frames and jewellery, incorrect fitting of plugs or the wearing of helmets or face shields.

193
Q

Identify the protective measures to be used for working in conditions of extreme heat?

A

Providing as much ventilation as is reasonable, ensuring that the length of time for which individual workers are exposed is limited, there are adequate rest facilities, away from the heat, with appropriate facilities to counter the effects of exposure, including cold drinks. Where there is a direct source of heat, protective clothing will have to be provided, such as face shields and heat/flame resistant footwear, gloves and clothing.

194
Q

What type of non-ionising radiation is given off by the following pieces of equipment?

(i) Radio transmitter
(ii) Hot plate in a kitchen
(ii) Arc welder in operation
(iv) Laser

A

(i) Radio frequency
(ii) Infra-red radiation
(iii) Ultra-violet
(iv) Visible radiation

195
Q

What are the health risks of visible radiation?

A

Visible radiation can cause serious burns to exposed skin tissue and is particularly dangerous to the eyes.

196
Q

State the nine categories of cause of work-related stress and, for each, give one example of a preventive measure?

A

(i) Culture – Preventive measures include taking stress seriously, with encouragement to raise any problems, knowing that they will be recognised and dealt with promptly, and a recognition of the importance of the work-life balance.
(ii) Work demands – Preventive measures include ensuring that there are sufficient resources available and support is offered to re-negotiate priorities and deadlines.
(iii) Control over work – Preventive measures include encouraging workers to plan their work, and make decisions about how it is completed and how problems will be tackled.
(iv) Relationships between staff – Preventive measures include clear standards of conduct and policies to tackle harassment and bullying.
(v) Organisational change – Preventive measures include consultation and involvement of staff in determining processes.
(vi) Role conflicts and uncertainties– Preventive measures include clear work objectives, job descriptions and reporting responsibilities.
(vii) Support by management – Preventive measures include providing positive feedback, focusing on performance, not on personality.
(viii) Training – Preventive measures include training needs assessments and the provision of appropriate training programmes where necessary.
(ix) Factors unique to the individual – Preventive measures include taking account of individual differences in skills and approaches in allocating and managing work.

197
Q

State the main risk factors for violence at work?

A

The risk factors reside in particular situations such as:
 The handling of high value goods
 Contact with customers or clients where the outcome will be to refuse the person what they want
 Contact with customers/clients where the outcome is to censure them in some way
 Contact with customers/clients who are under stress (perhaps as a result of frustrations or delays in obtaining the necessary contact), under the influence of alcohol or drugs, or with a history of violence

198
Q

What strategies are available to avoid the risk of violence?

A

Minimisation of cash handling, minimisation of customer/client frustration and refusing access to potentially violent customers and clients.

199
Q

What are the requirements for a mixed store?

A

In mixed stores, different goods and materials should be separated in different areas to allow for easy location and access. Incompatible hazardous materials should not be stored together, nor should flammable materials be mixed with other materials and flammable liquids, solids and gases should be kept separately.

200
Q

What are the requirements for the internal storage of flammable materials?

A

Internal stores for flammable materials must be constructed of fire-resistant materials and provide a good level of ventilation to stop dangerous levels of gases accumulating. The requirement for fire-resistant materials is not necessary if the store is a completely separate building located in a safe place.

201
Q

What is the safe method of working on a fragile roof?

A

The use of roof ladders (or crawling boards) laid across the roof surface, supported by the underlying load bearing roof members, in order to distribute the load of the worker over a wide area.

202
Q

What are the main hazards of using ladders?

A

Not being tied or not resting on firm ground, which may cause the ladder to tip. Poor storage and maintenance allowing the ladder to rot or warp, which may cause the rungs to break.

203
Q

What measures should be taken to prevent materials falling from a height?

A

To prevent materials from falling in the first place, the following control measures should be used:
 Not stacking materials near edges and particularly unprotected edges.
 Close boarding of working platforms – minimising gaps between scaffold boards or placing sheeting over the boards so that material cannot fall through.
 Avoiding carrying materials up or down ladders, etc. by using hoists and chutes to move materials.

204
Q

In respect of scaffolding:

(i) What is the difference between standards, ledgers and transoms?
(ii) What is the difference between tying and bracing?

A

(i) Standards are the vertical tubes (the uprights), ledgers are the horizontal tubes running parallel to the face of the building and transoms are the tubes spanning across ledgers to secure a scaffold transversely.
(ii) Tying secures the scaffolding to the building, whereas bracing is used to stiffen the framework.

205
Q

State the safety precautions which need to be taken when mobile elevating work platforms are in use?

A

The precautions for the use of MEWPs are:
 That there is firm sound ground for the vehicle to stand on.
 That there must be sufficient clearance from any building or obstacle.
 Barriers must be put in place to provide an exclusion zone which also prevents collisions with the equipment.
 That there is adequate edge protection for the cradle.
 That the controls of the arm should be inside the cradle.

206
Q

What is the angle at which ladders should be positioned?

A

75.

207
Q

When should scaffolding be inspected?

A

Before being used for the first time, after any substantial alteration or any event likely to affect its strength or stability, and at regular intervals (usually weekly) days.

208
Q

Identify the main hazards associated with excavation work?

A

The two main hazards are that things (and people) may fall into the excavation and that the ground will collapse into it. Other hazards include buried services, flooding and hazardous substances.

209
Q

What is battering?

A

Battering is the process of allowing the sides of an excavation to lie naturally at an angle to the floor of the excavation which is below the angle of repose for the materials involved.

210
Q

What are the key elements of shoring?

A

The key elements of shoring are the support boards laid against the face of the side wall and the struts which brace those boards against a secure surface.

211
Q

Identify the requirements for crossing points?

A

The crossing points should be of sound construction and suitable to support all the types of vehicles and equipment likely to use them. They should be fitted with guard rails and toeboards.

212
Q

How can the hazards of buried services be avoided?

A

By identifying, as far as possible, the location (routes and depth) and nature of all buried services before work starts, planning work to avoid them, marking their location on working plans and on the surface, and through safe digging practices.

213
Q

When must excavations be inspected?

A

At least daily and more frequently for deep excavations (exceeding 2 metres). Additional inspections will be required after any event likely to have affected the strength or stability of the excavation, or any part of it.

214
Q

What is the prime purpose of an accident investigation?

A

The main purpose of an accident investigation is to find the cause, with the intention of preventing a recurrence.

215
Q

What are the four elements of the investigation process?

A

Establishing the facts, identifying immediate causes, identifying any underlying causes and identifying remedial action to prevent the causes from occurring again.

216
Q

Identify the categories of staff who may be considered useful members of an internal accident investigation team?

A

The categories of staff might include the immediate supervisor or foreman, a member of management, a safety representative and a safety officer.

217
Q

List the types of documentation which may need to be consulted during an accident investigation?

A
The types of record to be consulted are:
	Inspection and maintenance records.
	Risk assessments.
	Environmental measurements.
	Medical records.
	General and specific safety reports and analyses which relate to the circumstances.
	Training and other personnel records.
	Minutes of safety committee meetings
218
Q

What are the two categories of immediate cause of accidents/incidents?

A

Unsafe acts and unsafe conditions.

219
Q

Who is responsible initially for the reporting of accidents and safety-related incidents?

A

The first-line manager or supervisor.

220
Q

What is the purpose of analysing all information about accidents?

A

To identify underlying causes of accidents and to provide information about trends and other patterns in workplace accidents.

221
Q

To whom do the results of accident investigations have to be communicated?

A

The result of an individual accident investigation would be communicated to the victim, his/her immediate manager and the local safety representative in all instances. Depending on the seriousness of the accident and the extent of the underlying causes, it may also be necessary to inform other managers in the organisation, including senior management, and the safety committee. For reportable incidents, the results must also be notified to the enforcement agency.

222
Q

Apart from the accident documentation about the particular incident, what other information may be relevant to a claim for damages in respect of injuries suffered as a result of a chuck guard malfunctioning on a bench press or drilling machine?

A

The types of information may include:
 Accident documentation about any other similar incidents.
 Risk assessments relating to drilling work in that particular workplace.
 Inspection and maintenance records relating to the particular guard and to others in the area.
 Other recent and relevant documentation relating to the use of guards, reporting of faults, worker history (including training records), etc.

223
Q

Define reactive and active monitoring?

A

Reactive monitoring is where accidents and other safety-related incidents are investigated to find out what went wrong and identify action to put it right so that there will be no recurrence. Active monitoring is where the existing safety measures are inspected to find out if anything may go wrong and identify action to put it right before there is an incident.

224
Q

What are performance standards and what role do they play in monitoring?

A

Performance standards are the statements of who does what, when and with what result in the organisational arrangements and control measures designed to ensure health and safety at work. They form the basis against which actual performance may be measured to identify how effective the safety policy is in practice.

225
Q

What do we mean by systematic monitoring?

A

Systematic monitoring involves the taking of planned regular action to seek information about the effectiveness of the organisation and arrangements regarding health and safety.

226
Q

State the sources of information used in reactive monitoring?

A

The information for reactive monitoring comes from the investigation of accidents and other safety-related incidents, issues raised by workers and failings identified by external agencies (usually enforcement authorities).

227
Q

State the purpose of workplace inspections?

A

The purpose of workplace inspections is to ensure that the control arrangements specified in the safety policy are operating effectively and that they cover all the risks.

228
Q

What three key elements do all forms of workplace inspection include?

A

The three common elements of all inspections are:
 An assessment of the standards of workplace health and safety against the specified performance standards and the risks.
 The identification and reporting of any deficiencies.
 The identification of causes and of action to be taken to remedy the problem.

229
Q

What inspections involve operators?

A

Routine inspections of the immediate work area and plant, machinery and equipment used.

230
Q

What is the difference between a safety survey and safety tour?

A

Safety tours are generally unannounced inspections of the major control measures in a workplace following a predetermined route. Safety surveys are in-depth inspections of specific issues or procedures where there is reason to believe that there may be deficiencies in the existing safety systems, either because of changes in the workplace or on the basis of problems identified by other monitoring techniques.

231
Q

What role does senior management have in workplace inspections?

A

Senior management has responsibility for ensuring that effective workplace inspection regimes are in place and are operated effectively. This will include receiving reports and overseeing/agreeing action. In addition, the visible involvement of senior managers in all types of inspection is to be encouraged for the commitment it demonstrates towards safety and the effect on the promotion of a positive health and safety culture.

232
Q

Why are checklists used in inspections?

A

Checklists help to ensure a consistent systematic and comprehensive approach to checking all the safety elements to be covered during an inspection.

233
Q

Identify the seven Cs which underpin effective report writing?

A
The seven Cs are be:
	Clear.
	Concise.
	Correct.
	Courteous.
	Complete.
	Consistent.
	Convincing.
234
Q

What should the introductory part of a report contain?

A

The introductory part of a report should set the scene, covering the background to the issue, why it is being dealt with and briefly, what is to come. The following elements should be covered:
 Preface stating the title, who the report is to and who has written it, the date, general authority for its writing, and reference.
 List of contents.
 Brief summary of the aims, main findings and recommendations.
 Statement of purpose and objectives, including the organisational context of the inspection, problems or issues addressed, approach and any legal aspects which apply.

235
Q

What is the “sample” taken in safety sampling?

A

The sample is the snapshot of the state of health and safety at one particular time throughout the premises.

236
Q

Performance review is concerned with ensuring that incident investigations are properly concluded. True or false?

A

True, but it is concerned with more than just reactive monitoring. It encompasses all forms of systems for monitoring, checking and measuring the effectiveness of health and safety arrangements and, where there are deficiencies, for reporting and taking action at the appropriate level to remedy them.

237
Q

State five factors which influence the frequency of monitoring activities?

A

The main factors influencing the frequency of monitoring activities are:
 Suitable intervals to ensure that specific planned milestones are achieved.
 The potential for change in conditions over time.
 The relative importance of the activity or particular precaution relative to the overall control of risk.
 Where inspection and maintenance intervals are prescribed by suppliers/manufacturers.
 Where intervals for monitoring are prescribed by legislation.
 Where there is evidence that there is non-compliance.
 Where there is evidence of compliance

238
Q

Define health and safety auditing?

A

Health and safety auditing is the structured process of collecting independent information on the efficiency, effectiveness and reliability of the total health and safety management system and drawing up plans for corrective action.

239
Q

What is a compliance rating and what does a compliance rating of 54% indicate?

A

A compliance rating indicates the degree to which the organisation is meeting a particular performance standard. A rating of 54% would indicate that compliance is at the minimum acceptable level, probably sufficient only to meet legal requirements.