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part 2 > stats i get wrong (obs) > Flashcards

stats i get wrong (obs) Flashcards

1
Q

PET: risk of any HTN in future pregnancy

A

20%

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2
Q

PET: risk of PET if birth 28-34 weeks

A

33% (1 in 3)

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3
Q

PET: risk of PET if birth 34-37 weeks

A

23% (1 in 4)

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4
Q

PET: risk of gestational HTN

A

6-12%

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5
Q

PIH: risk of any HTN in future pregnancy

A

22% (1 in 5)

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6
Q

PIH: risk of PET

A

7% (1 in 14)

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7
Q

PIH: risk of PIH again

A

11-15%

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8
Q

PET: risk of chronic HTN

A

2% (1 in 50)

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9
Q

PIH: risk of chronic HTN

A

3%

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10
Q

statistic:

Success planned VBAC overall

A

72-75%

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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11
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC with previous VBAC

A

85-90%

Previous NVD (especially VBAC), is the single best predictor of success

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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12
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for fetal malpresentation

A

84%

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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13
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for fetal distress

A

73%

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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14
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for labour dystocia

A

64%

Successful VBAC appears to be more likely if dystocia at 8cm or more

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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15
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for failed instrumental

A

61%

RF for failure: OP and prolonged 2nd stage as indication for instrument

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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16
Q

Incidence accreta with previa and previous C/S x1

A

11%

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17
Q

Incidence Previa without C/S

A

1/400

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18
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x1

A

1/160 (0.60%)

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19
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x2

A

1/60 (1.6%)

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20
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x3

A

1/30 (3.3%)

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21
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x4

A

1/10 (10%)

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22
Q

Incidence accreta with Previa and previous C/S x2

A

40%

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23
Q

Incidence accreta with previa and previous C/S x3

A

61%

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24
Q

Incidence accreta with Previa and previous C/S x4

A

67%

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25
Risk of further laparotomy after C/S: normal vs. previa
5/1000 vs 75/1000
26
Risk of VTE in C/S : normal vs. previa
4-16/10 000 vs 3/100
27
Risk bladder injury in C/S: normal vs. previa
1/1000 vs 6/100
28
Risk future previa after c/s for previa
23/1000 | 4-8/1000 risk of future placental abnormality in normal ELCS
29
Risk of hysterectomy in c/s: normal vs. previa
7-8/1000 vs 11/100 (27/100 if previous c/s)
30
Risk of ureteric injury in C/S (normal)
3/10 000
31
Risk of infxn in C/S (normal)
6%
32
Upper medial thigh sensory loss | Weakness leg adduction
Obturator nerve
33
Foot and anterolateral leg sensory loss Foot drop Loss of ant compartment extensors
Common peroneal nerve
34
Lateral thigh sensory loss
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
35
Anterior thigh and knee sensory loss Loss of knee jerk reflex Quadriceps weakness
Femoral nerve
36
face presentation
submentobregmatic 9.5cm
37
brow presentation
mentovertical 13.5-14cm
38
deflexed OP
occipitofrontal 11.4cm
39
vertex presentation
suboccipitobregmatic 9.5cm
40
fetal loss in simple appendicitis
1.5%
41
fetal loss in appendicitis with peritonitis
6%
42
fetal loss with perforated appendix
36%
43
rate of SB 25-29yo
4.6/1000 maternities (1/217)
44
rate of SB 30-34yo
4.7/1000 maternities (1/213)
45
rate of SB 35-39yo
5.5/1000 maternities (1/182)
46
rate of SB >40yo
7.6/1000 maternities (1/132)
47
rate of NND 25-29yo
2.9/1000 live births (1/345)
48
rate of NND 30-34yo
2.6/1000 live births (1/385)
49
rate of NND 35-39yo
2.9/1000 live births (1/345)
50
rate of NND >40yo
3.8/1000 live births (1/263)
51
RR of NND for women >40 compared to 25-29yo
1.3x
52
recurrence of OASIS
7.2%
53
untreated antiphospholipid syndrome - how many will progress to PIH/PET
30-50%
54
peurperal genital hematoma incidence
1/700 | 1/1000 requiring surgical intervention
55
% OASIS with fecal incontinence at 12 months
30%
56
C/S for breech if:
- hyperextended neck on USS - LGA>3.8kg - SGA<10% - footling - fetal compromise
57
incidence of postpartum psychosis
1-2/1000
58
rubella - spontaneous miscarriage in 1st trimester
20%
59
congenital rubella if in <11/40
90%
60
congenital rubella if in 11-16/40
20%
61
incidence of CMV
0.2-2.2% live births
62
risk of congenital CMV if primary infections
30-40% | primary infection only 1% of pregnancies
63
risk of congenital CMV if recurrent infection
1-2%
64
congenital CMV - what % will have signs at birth
10-15%
65
congenital CMV - what % will develop symptoms later on
10-15%
66
congenital CMV - what % will have SNHL
6%
67
severe congenital CMV - % neuro impairment
80%
68
severe congenital CMV - % deafness
50%
69
severe congenital CMV - % defective teeth
40%
70
moderate/mild congenital CMV - most common symptoms
hearing loss 20%
71
CMV - when to investigate
CMV PCR via amniocentesis 6-8 weeks after infection, after 20/40
72
chlamydia in pregnancy - what % neonates will develop ophthalmia
50%
73
chlamydia in pregnancy - what % of those delivering vaginal will develop puerperal sepsis/infection
34%
74
chlamydia in pregnancy - when to do test of cure
5-6 weeks
75
management of acute MI in pregnancy
- avoid nifedipine - delay IOL 2-3 weeks if possible - delivery in high risk unit
76
most common cause of cardiac death if no risk factors
dissection, 14%
77
heart valve associated with rheumatic heart disease
mitral stenosis
78
eisenmeiger syndrome - risk of maternal mortality
20-40%; advise against pregnancy
79
incidence of asthma in pregnancy
4-12%
80
SB at term in mat age <35
1/1000
81
SB at term in mat age >40
2/1000
82
postmortem after SB, can provide info regarding cause of death in ___%
46% autopsy alone, or 51% if combined with other tests
83
postmortem after SB can provide info regarding risk of recurrence in ___%
40%
84
SB - what % will labour spontaneously
85% within 3 weeks; | - 90% achieve NVD within 24h of IOL
85
risk of death from hemorrhage in jehovahs witness
44x increased
86
how much FFP to transfuse
12-15ml/kg (4 units) for every 6 units RBC; aim PT/APTT <1.5x
87
how much cryo to transfuse
2x5 unit pools, if fibrinogen <1.0, for target >1.5
88
when to start platelet transfusion in hemorrhage
when PLT<75, but target >50
89
if Rh+ PLTs given to Rh- woman?
give 250units anti-D, will be good enough to cover 6 pools
90
if Rh+ Cryo or FFP given to Rh- woman?
do nothing
91
when to use cell salvage
if EBL expected to induce anemia, or >20% of total blood volume
92
adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis
1:1000 | 500mcg, 0.5ml IM
93
incidence of MOH/collapse
6/1000
94
incidence of AFE
1.7/100 000
95
survival of AFE
81%
96
incidence of anaphylaxis
1-3.5/100 000
97
mortality of anaphylaxis
1%
98
criteria for diagnosis of anaphylaxis
1. sudden onset and rapid progression 2. life threatening airway and circulation problems 3. skin+/- mucosal changes
99
when to measure mast cell tryptase in anaphylaxis
1. at start of CPR 2. at 1-2h 3. at 24h
100
adjunctive treatment/doses for anaphylaxis
chlorphenamine 10mg, | hydrocortisone 200mg IM or IV
101
cardiac arrest in pregnancy incidence and fatality
1/36 000 | - 42% fatality
102
aortocaval compression decreases cardiac output by how much
30-40%
103
at term, uterus receives how much of cardiac output
10%
104
above what BMI is GDM screening necessary
>30
105
above what BMI are serial growth scans necessary
>35
106
above what BMI is anaesthetic review required
>40
107
above what BMI IV access required intrapartum
>40
108
bariatric surgery increases what risks
FETAL: - SGA, PTL, NICU MATERNAL: - anemia, low B12, ADEK deficiency
109
thromboprophylaxis for obesity
- antenatal: BMI>30 scores 1 | - postnatal: all women with BMI>40 should get 10/7 LMWH

part 2 (21 decks)

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