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part 2 > stats i get wrong (obs) > Flashcards

stats i get wrong (obs) Flashcards

1
Q

PET: risk of any HTN in future pregnancy

A

20%

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2
Q

PET: risk of PET if birth 28-34 weeks

A

33% (1 in 3)

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3
Q

PET: risk of PET if birth 34-37 weeks

A

23% (1 in 4)

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4
Q

PET: risk of gestational HTN

A

6-12%

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5
Q

PIH: risk of any HTN in future pregnancy

A

22% (1 in 5)

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6
Q

PIH: risk of PET

A

7% (1 in 14)

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7
Q

PIH: risk of PIH again

A

11-15%

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8
Q

PET: risk of chronic HTN

A

2% (1 in 50)

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9
Q

PIH: risk of chronic HTN

A

3%

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10
Q

statistic:

Success planned VBAC overall

A

72-75%

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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11
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC with previous VBAC

A

85-90%

Previous NVD (especially VBAC), is the single best predictor of success

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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12
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for fetal malpresentation

A

84%

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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13
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for fetal distress

A

73%

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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14
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for labour dystocia

A

64%

Successful VBAC appears to be more likely if dystocia at 8cm or more

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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15
Q

Statistic:

Success VBAC if previous C/S for failed instrumental

A

61%

RF for failure: OP and prolonged 2nd stage as indication for instrument

RCOG. Green-top Guideline No.45: Birth after previous caesarean birth. October 2015.

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16
Q

Incidence accreta with previa and previous C/S x1

A

11%

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17
Q

Incidence Previa without C/S

A

1/400

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18
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x1

A

1/160 (0.60%)

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19
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x2

A

1/60 (1.6%)

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20
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x3

A

1/30 (3.3%)

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21
Q

Incidence previa with Previous C/S x4

A

1/10 (10%)

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22
Q

Incidence accreta with Previa and previous C/S x2

A

40%

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23
Q

Incidence accreta with previa and previous C/S x3

A

61%

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24
Q

Incidence accreta with Previa and previous C/S x4

A

67%

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25
Q

Risk of further laparotomy after C/S: normal vs. previa

A

5/1000
vs
75/1000

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26
Q

Risk of VTE in C/S : normal vs. previa

A

4-16/10 000
vs
3/100

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27
Q

Risk bladder injury in C/S: normal vs. previa

A

1/1000
vs
6/100

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28
Q

Risk future previa after c/s for previa

A

23/1000

4-8/1000 risk of future placental abnormality in normal ELCS

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29
Q

Risk of hysterectomy in c/s: normal vs. previa

A

7-8/1000
vs
11/100 (27/100 if previous c/s)

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30
Q

Risk of ureteric injury in C/S (normal)

A

3/10 000

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31
Q

Risk of infxn in C/S (normal)

A

6%

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32
Q

Upper medial thigh sensory loss

Weakness leg adduction

A

Obturator nerve

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33
Q

Foot and anterolateral leg sensory loss
Foot drop
Loss of ant compartment extensors

A

Common peroneal nerve

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34
Q

Lateral thigh sensory loss

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

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35
Q

Anterior thigh and knee sensory loss
Loss of knee jerk reflex
Quadriceps weakness

A

Femoral nerve

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36
Q

face presentation

A

submentobregmatic 9.5cm

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37
Q

brow presentation

A

mentovertical 13.5-14cm

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38
Q

deflexed OP

A

occipitofrontal 11.4cm

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39
Q

vertex presentation

A

suboccipitobregmatic 9.5cm

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40
Q

fetal loss in simple appendicitis

A

1.5%

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41
Q

fetal loss in appendicitis with peritonitis

A

6%

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42
Q

fetal loss with perforated appendix

A

36%

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43
Q

rate of SB 25-29yo

A

4.6/1000 maternities (1/217)

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44
Q

rate of SB 30-34yo

A

4.7/1000 maternities (1/213)

45
Q

rate of SB 35-39yo

A

5.5/1000 maternities (1/182)

46
Q

rate of SB >40yo

A

7.6/1000 maternities (1/132)

47
Q

rate of NND 25-29yo

A

2.9/1000 live births (1/345)

48
Q

rate of NND 30-34yo

A

2.6/1000 live births (1/385)

49
Q

rate of NND 35-39yo

A

2.9/1000 live births (1/345)

50
Q

rate of NND >40yo

A

3.8/1000 live births (1/263)

51
Q

RR of NND for women >40 compared to 25-29yo

A

1.3x

52
Q

recurrence of OASIS

A

7.2%

53
Q

untreated antiphospholipid syndrome - how many will progress to PIH/PET

A

30-50%

54
Q

peurperal genital hematoma incidence

A

1/700

1/1000 requiring surgical intervention

55
Q

% OASIS with fecal incontinence at 12 months

A

30%

56
Q

C/S for breech if:

A
  • hyperextended neck on USS
  • LGA>3.8kg
  • SGA<10%
  • footling
  • fetal compromise
57
Q

incidence of postpartum psychosis

A

1-2/1000

58
Q

rubella - spontaneous miscarriage in 1st trimester

A

20%

59
Q

congenital rubella if in <11/40

A

90%

60
Q

congenital rubella if in 11-16/40

A

20%

61
Q

incidence of CMV

A

0.2-2.2% live births

62
Q

risk of congenital CMV if primary infections

A

30-40%

primary infection only 1% of pregnancies

63
Q

risk of congenital CMV if recurrent infection

A

1-2%

64
Q

congenital CMV - what % will have signs at birth

A

10-15%

65
Q

congenital CMV - what % will develop symptoms later on

A

10-15%

66
Q

congenital CMV - what % will have SNHL

A

6%

67
Q

severe congenital CMV - % neuro impairment

A

80%

68
Q

severe congenital CMV - % deafness

A

50%

69
Q

severe congenital CMV - % defective teeth

A

40%

70
Q

moderate/mild congenital CMV - most common symptoms

A

hearing loss 20%

71
Q

CMV - when to investigate

A

CMV PCR via amniocentesis 6-8 weeks after infection, after 20/40

72
Q

chlamydia in pregnancy - what % neonates will develop ophthalmia

A

50%

73
Q

chlamydia in pregnancy - what % of those delivering vaginal will develop puerperal sepsis/infection

A

34%

74
Q

chlamydia in pregnancy - when to do test of cure

A

5-6 weeks

75
Q

management of acute MI in pregnancy

A
  • avoid nifedipine
  • delay IOL 2-3 weeks if possible
  • delivery in high risk unit
76
Q

most common cause of cardiac death if no risk factors

A

dissection, 14%

77
Q

heart valve associated with rheumatic heart disease

A

mitral stenosis

78
Q

eisenmeiger syndrome - risk of maternal mortality

A

20-40%; advise against pregnancy

79
Q

incidence of asthma in pregnancy

A

4-12%

80
Q

SB at term in mat age <35

A

1/1000

81
Q

SB at term in mat age >40

A

2/1000

82
Q

postmortem after SB, can provide info regarding cause of death in ___%

A

46% autopsy alone, or 51% if combined with other tests

83
Q

postmortem after SB can provide info regarding risk of recurrence in ___%

A

40%

84
Q

SB - what % will labour spontaneously

A

85% within 3 weeks;

- 90% achieve NVD within 24h of IOL

85
Q

risk of death from hemorrhage in jehovahs witness

A

44x increased

86
Q

how much FFP to transfuse

A

12-15ml/kg (4 units) for every 6 units RBC; aim PT/APTT <1.5x

87
Q

how much cryo to transfuse

A

2x5 unit pools, if fibrinogen <1.0, for target >1.5

88
Q

when to start platelet transfusion in hemorrhage

A

when PLT<75, but target >50

89
Q

if Rh+ PLTs given to Rh- woman?

A

give 250units anti-D, will be good enough to cover 6 pools

90
Q

if Rh+ Cryo or FFP given to Rh- woman?

A

do nothing

91
Q

when to use cell salvage

A

if EBL expected to induce anemia, or >20% of total blood volume

92
Q

adrenaline dose for anaphylaxis

A

1:1000

500mcg, 0.5ml IM

93
Q

incidence of MOH/collapse

A

6/1000

94
Q

incidence of AFE

A

1.7/100 000

95
Q

survival of AFE

A

81%

96
Q

incidence of anaphylaxis

A

1-3.5/100 000

97
Q

mortality of anaphylaxis

A

1%

98
Q

criteria for diagnosis of anaphylaxis

A
  1. sudden onset and rapid progression
  2. life threatening airway and circulation problems
  3. skin+/- mucosal changes
99
Q

when to measure mast cell tryptase in anaphylaxis

A
  1. at start of CPR
  2. at 1-2h
  3. at 24h
100
Q

adjunctive treatment/doses for anaphylaxis

A

chlorphenamine 10mg,

hydrocortisone 200mg IM or IV

101
Q

cardiac arrest in pregnancy incidence and fatality

A

1/36 000

- 42% fatality

102
Q

aortocaval compression decreases cardiac output by how much

A

30-40%

103
Q

at term, uterus receives how much of cardiac output

A

10%

104
Q

above what BMI is GDM screening necessary

A

> 30

105
Q

above what BMI are serial growth scans necessary

A

> 35

106
Q

above what BMI is anaesthetic review required

A

> 40

107
Q

above what BMI IV access required intrapartum

A

> 40

108
Q

bariatric surgery increases what risks

A

FETAL:
- SGA, PTL, NICU
MATERNAL:
- anemia, low B12, ADEK deficiency

109
Q

thromboprophylaxis for obesity

A
  • antenatal: BMI>30 scores 1

- postnatal: all women with BMI>40 should get 10/7 LMWH

part 2 (21 decks)

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