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BACTE 1 > Staphylococci > Flashcards

Staphylococci Flashcards

1
Q

catalase-producing, gram-positive
cocci.

A

Staphylococci

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2
Q

catalase-producing, coagulase negative, gram-positive cocci found in the environment and as members of the indigenous
skin microbiota

A

Micrococci

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3
Q

What color of pigment does micrococci produce?

A

yellow pigment

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4
Q

Other gram-positive cocci that are occasionally recovered with staphylococci include

A

Rothia mucilaginosa, Aerococcus, and Alloiococcus
otitis

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5
Q

staphylococci are nonmotile, non–spore-forming, and
aerobic or facultatively anaerobic except for?

A

S. Sacchorolyticus

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6
Q

colonies of staph are produced after how many hours?

A

18-24 hours

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7
Q

what is the appearance of staph?

A

white or gold and buttery looking

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8
Q

what is the most clinically significant species of staph?

A

S. aureus

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9
Q

staphylococci that are coagulase positives are?

A

s. aureus s. intermedius, s. delphinin, and s. lutrae

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10
Q

staphylococcus can grow in what medium?

A

MSA, BAP, and CNA

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11
Q

what test is used to differentiate staphylococcus spp. to streptococcus spp.

A

catalase test

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12
Q

principle of catalase:
catalase + _____ - H2O + O

A

H2O2

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13
Q

used to differentiate S. aureus from other Staphylococci; definitive and most reliable method for
detection of the species

A

coagulase test

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14
Q

it detects bound coagulase/clumping factor?

A

slide coagulase

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15
Q

what kind of plasma is used in slid coagulase?

A

rabbit’s plasma

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16
Q

detects free coagulase/ coagulase reacting factor

A

tube coagulase

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17
Q

latex particles are coated with sheep red cells or human plasma fibrinogen and IgG which will react with clumping factor cells and protein A of S. aureus

A

latex agglutination

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18
Q

what is the inhibitor of MSA

A

7.5%-10% NaCl

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19
Q

What is the indicator of MSA

A

phenol red

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20
Q

s. aureus in MSA (appearance)

A

yellow zone around colonies

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21
Q

s. epidermis in MSA (appearance)

A

red zone around colonies

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22
Q

causes various cutaneous infections and purulent
abscesses that can progress to deeper abscesses
and produce bacteremia and septicemia

A

s. aureus

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23
Q

Staphylococci that do not produce coagulase are
referred to as?

A

CoNS

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24
Q

known to cause various health care-acquired or nosocomial infections

A

s. epidermis

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25
Q

associated mainly with urinary tract infections (UTIs), predominately in adolescent girls and young women

A

s. saprophyticus

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26
Q

is a CoNS occasionally recovered in wounds, septicemia, UTIs, and native valve infection

A

s. haemolyticus

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27
Q

is also a CoNS, but it can
occasionally be confused with S. aureus if
performing only a traditional slide coagulase
method using plasma

A

s. lugdunensis

28
Q

– interferes with opsonization and phagocytosis from neutrophils and activation of complement;
immunogenic; binds to Fc fraction of most IgG

A

protein a

29
Q

resist phagocytosis by neutrophils; enhance organism’s ability to bind to host cells and prosthetic

A

capsular polysaccharide

30
Q

activate complement, enhance neutrophils, chemotaxis, and formation of opsonin; has clumping factor adhesins & collagen-binding protein

A

peptidoglycan & teichoic acid

31
Q

are heat-stable exotoxins that cause various
symptoms, including diarrhea and vomiting

A

enterotoxins

32
Q

enterotoxins are stable at

A

100°C for 30
minutes

33
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning: most
commonly caused by enterotoxins?

A

A B D

34
Q

linked to staphylococcal
pseudomembranous enterocolitis

A

Enterotoxin B

35
Q

causes nearly all cases of menstruating associated TS

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxic 1

36
Q

known to cause staphylococcal SSS,
sometimes referred to as Ritter disease.
▪ also been implicated in bullous impetigo

A

Exfoliative toxin

37
Q

coats neutrophils with fibrin which protects organism from phagocytosis.

A

bound coagulase

38
Q

– lyses and inactivate penicillin through breakdown of B-lactam; resistance to
ampicillin and other antibiotics

A

penincillinase

39
Q

lyses RBC; responsible to B-hemolysis

A

hemolysin

40
Q

– exotoxin which destroys WBC; contributes to the invasiveness of
the organism by suppressing phagocytosis; involved in community acquired MRSA

A

panton-valentine leukocidin

41
Q

CoNS that are hospital acquired and most common cause of UTI and prosthetic valve endocarditis and other prosthetic devices

A

S. epidermis

42
Q

key component that are responsible in pathogenesis and promote adhesion in surfaces

A

biofilm production

43
Q

what CoNS have creamy and white colonies and prose gamma hemolytic which produce slime and adheres to the agar surface

A

S. epidermis

44
Q

cause UTU such as pyelonephritis and cystitis especially in sexually active young women and cause of catheter associated UTI in men and women

A

s. saprophyticus

45
Q

they have the ability to adhere epithelial cells in urinary tract and urethral cells

A

s. saprophyticus

46
Q

white colonies, gamma hemolytic, and resistant to novobiocin

A

s. saprophyticus

47
Q

can be more virulent and can mimic the infections of s. aureus

A

s. lugdunensis

48
Q

s. lugdenensis have the ability to resists oxacillin. what gene does this CoNS have

A

meCA gene

49
Q

pathogen that cause endocarditis, septicemia, and soft tissue infections

A

s. lugdunensis

50
Q

CoNS that have white to large. smooth, glossy edge with slight domes center, unpigmented or cream to yellow orange columns

A

s. lugdunensis

51
Q

enumerate the penicillin resistance of MRSA

A

nafcillin, oxacillin, methicillin, and amoxicillin

52
Q

what is the treatment of choice for MRSA

A

vancomycin

53
Q

MRSA detection that are commercially available and mauve color as their end product

A

chromogenic

54
Q

latest CLSI M100 detection test for MRSA

A

cefoxitin disk screen test

55
Q

what is the gold standard and most sensitive for detection mecA or PBP2a

A

PCR

56
Q

used to differentiate from staphylococcus to micrococcus

A

modified oxidase test

57
Q

if the test result came out in a dark blue color. what is the interpretation?

A

positive and micrococcus

58
Q

if there is no color change in modified oxidase test. what is the interpretation

A

negative and staphylococcus

59
Q

what is the next course of action is the organism is positive and catalase test?

A

coagulase test

60
Q

what is the next course of action if the organism is negative in coagulase test?

A

oxidase test

61
Q

what staph spp. is resistant to novobiocin?

A

s. saprophyticus

62
Q

what is the best inducer of mecA mediated resistance?

A

cefoxitin

63
Q

what is the frequently used in staphylococcal skin infections?

A

Clindamycin

64
Q

most clinically significant and commonly recovered species in the CoNS?

A

s. epidermis and s. saprophyticus

65
Q

s. epidermis is known to cause what kind of infections?

A

nosocomial infections

BACTE 1 (6 decks)

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