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Sensing And Seeing > Ss 2 > Flashcards

Ss 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define infection
Disease
Clinical disease
Serology

A

Organism ID without lesions = infection
•Organism ID + lesion = disease (clinical or subclinical)
•Organism ID + lesion + clinical signs = clinical disease
•Serology = gives a history of exposure but says nothing about disease status

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2
Q

Spinal Shock

A

T3 -L3 - flaccid below the level of spinal lesion
Loss of reflexes below the lesion

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3
Q

Which ones are more susceptible to injury: large myelinated fibers for proprioception or small, unmyelinated fibers for nociception

A

The large myelinated fibers

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4
Q

Intervertebral disc extrusion

A

Degeneration of the nucleus proposes, mostly genetic

FGF4 retrogene
-CFA12 is gene for short and disc degen w/ chondroid Metaplasia
Cartilaginous nucleus pulposus that push’s tear the annulus → compression

-CFA18 short legs

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5
Q

Secondary progressive myelomalacia occurs w

A

Ivde
What is the loss of pelvic reflexes followed by perennial and annual tone
Also loss of thoracic, limb function, Horner syndrome, and respiratory pattern
When this happens euthanasia

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6
Q

Fibrocartilaginous embolism (FCE)

A

Piece of fibrocartilage disc that embolizes the spinal cord vasculature
- forces on ventral column to break off
- blocks arterial supply to spinal cord

No compression

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7
Q

Hydrated nucleus pulposus extrusion

A
  • yes compression possibly
    Non painful
    Partially hydrated disc material in spinal cord
    Hyper-intense disc material on MRI
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8
Q

Compressive vs contusion

A

Contusion is caused by acute non-compressive nucleus pulposus extrusion
- it is inflammation associated with pressure to the spinal cord

Compression is when the canal is narrowed
-IVDE, IVDP, poS HNPE

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9
Q

Intradural/Intramedullary Intervertebral disc extrusion (IIVDE)and Traumatic Disc

A

IIvde: version of acute non-compressive nucleus pilposus extrusion where the disc material penetrates the dura and the spinal cord up into the parenchyma

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10
Q

Intramedullary hypointensity ventral to spinal cord

A

ANNpe

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11
Q

Degenerative lumbosacral stenosis

A

Bony proliferation or transitional vert or OCD lesion that DISTURBS LUMBOSACRAL NERVE ROOTS @L7-S1

Electrodiagnostics

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12
Q

Degenerative myelopathy

A

SOD1 mutation cause axon degeneration and loss of myelin sheath if homozygous
T3 to L3, asymmetric non-painful progresses, caudally
In the late stage, it is in the thoracic limb

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13
Q

Most common Primary Brain tumors

A

Meningioma
60% cats 18 days survival
50% dog 2 months survival with surgery it’s 10 months
**cats do better and live longer w surgery resection

It is extra axial because it comes from the meninges, but it also has a lot of contract with the brain causing central vestibular signs

Definitive=biopsy

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14
Q

Most common secondary tumor that causes focal brain signs

A

Pituitary tumor that is hyperadrenocortism -> increase acth -> inc adrenal gland -> Cushing bc endogenous steroid

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15
Q

What extends into supraorbital fossa

A

Corporate process of mandible

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16
Q

The orbital fissure contains

A

CN III [oculomotor]
CN IV [trochlear]
CNV1 [ophthalmic of trigeminal]
CN VI [abducens]

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17
Q

What is bony orbital rim?

A

Pterygopalatine fossa which is the eye
And supraorbital fossa is different with coronoid process of mandible

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18
Q

space between the two eyelids when the eye is at least partially open

A

Palpebral fissure

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19
Q

levator palpebrae superioris

A

Occulomotor
Raises upper lid when the eye looks up

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20
Q

3rd eyelid is

A

Cartilage surrounded by connective tissue and anchored in median canthus → lymphoid tissue
Under sympathetic tone so when eye is
Retracted back 3rd eyelid comes

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21
Q

Tears move

A

From dorsolateral lacrimal duct → medial canthus →lacrimal caruncle ->
Lacrimal punta/ canaliculi → nasolacrimal duct

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22
Q

Abocens innovates

A

Lateral rictus

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23
Q

Occulomoter

A

Dorsal rictus
Medial rictus
Ventral oblique
Ventral rictus

levator palpebrae superioris - elevates upper lid
part of retractor bulbi

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24
Q

Eye blood

A

Maxillary a _
external ophthalmic a

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25
Q

Auriculopalpebras nerve

A

Facial n that is for orbicularis oculi

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26
Q

extend from ciliary processes to the lens, suspending it and functioning in accommodation of the lens (“focusing”)

A

Zonular fibers
When zonular fibers don’t attach the lens falls

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27
Q

What has eye color

A

Iris from ciliary body and sclera

Smooth muscle = autonomic control

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28
Q

Unpigmented part of choroid is

A

Tapedum lucidum

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29
Q

Fundus

A

The fundus is the internal portion of the globe visible through the pupil via an ophthalmoscope. Note the optic disc and the retinal vessels.

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30
Q

the junction of the visual and non-visual retina caused by the sudden thinning of the tissue as rods and cones are lost

A

Ora serrata

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31
Q

What chamber is posterior to lens

A

Vitreous chamber the is avascular

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32
Q

Movement of aqueous humor made by the ciliary epithelium
Clogging causes

A

Posterior chamber → anterior chamber → returns to venous circulation via spaces of Fontana at iridocorneal angle

Clogging causes glaucoma

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33
Q

Nervous tunic is

A

Nervous tunic
– pars optica retinae only visual part
– pars ceca retinae
(posterior epithelium on iris and ciliary body)
– direct outgrowth
of developing brain

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34
Q

Most common vertebral anomalies are in

A

T7 - t 12
In pugs+ bulldogs

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35
Q

Spina bifida : Meningocele vs myelomeningolocele

A

Meningocele: the meninges protrude
Myelomeningolocele: the spinal cord and the neural structures protrude with the meninges

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36
Q

Caudal articular process dysplasia

A

Happens in the T 13 to T 10 region on the coddle aspect, where it is hypo, plastic or a plastic

BEST ON CT
There are other associated diseases that you can treat, but you can’t treat caudal articular process dysplasia

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37
Q

Malformation of the skull and craniocervical Junction

A

Chari like malformation (skull flattens cerebellum and makes it herniate) and syringomyelia (dilated spinal cord that is hyperintense)
The bone is abnormal in the sphenoid and basisphenoid

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38
Q

Meningomyelitis

A

Meningitis - affects meninges
Myelitis affect spinal cord

Usually not infectious-
- inflammatory

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39
Q

Classic side for steroid, responsive, meningitis arteritis

A

Nucleophilic, pleocytosis
Non-degenerative. Neutrophils.
In the CSF

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40
Q

Which small animal myelopathy will do well even without deep pain sensation

A

Sacrocaudal luxation in cats treated with rest and analgesia or tail amputation

Where they may be paralyzed, or have decreased anal tone incontinence

Often outdoor cats

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41
Q

The third eyelid is held in retraction, because of the smooth muscle, and sympathetic control of

A

Orbitalis

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42
Q

4 things to assess with large animal neuro exam

A

Gait
Sensorium
-Mentation= ARAS -ASCENDING RETICULAR ACTIVATING SYSTEM or -behavior =forebrain
CN
Postural reaction

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43
Q

Lip tone vs Jaw tone
Open eye vs close eye

A

Lip tone is CN 7 and jaw tone is CN5
Open eye CN 3
Close eye with CN 7

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44
Q

CSF collection in

A

Lumbosacral junction or Atlantoaxial junction

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45
Q

What do use for meningeal worm treatment?

A

Dewormers would be ivermectin and fenbemdazole

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46
Q

Most common Calving paralysis

A

Sciatic syndrome

Damage of ventral nerve roots in the lumbosacral plexus

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47
Q

Thoracolumbar spinal cord compression vs. Lumbosacral compression in epidural space

A

Thoracolumbar spinal cord compression causes knuckling in the pelvic limbs

Lumbosacral compression in epidural space causes paresis in the pelvic looms

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48
Q

Do does blood work and systemic diagnostics help identify focal brain disease

A

No, you have to identify a brain disease that is focal with imaging and CSF

Unless it is a focal bacterial brain infection when there might be fever

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49
Q

Primary brain tumors can be ones that arise within the brain. They are focal and neoplastic.

A

Meningiomas are extra axial,
Intra-axial gliomas, choroid plexus tumors

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50
Q

Forebrain tumors cause
Brainstem tumors cause

A

Forebrain tumors cause seizures and behavioral
Brainstem tumors cause vestibular signs

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51
Q

Pigs only have

A

The dorsal lacrimal puncta and caruncle
They also dont have a tapetum lucidum which is the unpigmented reflective layer

52
Q

Why do we have to keep the corneal stroma dehydrated

A

Because the cornea is a modified skin that only remains transperant if it is dehydrated

This is kept by corneal epithelium which has tight junctions and the corneal endothelium that pumps out the fluid from stroma to anterior chamber

Keratoconjuctivitis seca is when the eyes get too dry wo protection to cornea epithelium—> opaque cornea

53
Q

External/fibrous tunic: Cornea and sclera made of

A

Cornea is make of modified skin
Sclera is made of collagen fibers
- episcelera is what connects the eyeball to the capsule

The switch is the limbus

54
Q

What is the retina nourished by

A

Choroid and vitreous humor

55
Q

Layers of the eye

A

The external tunic has the cornea, the limbus, and sclera

The vascular tunic or uvea has the
- iris with anterior surface (with fibroblast and melanocytes) and posterior surface (w pigmented epithelial cell),
-ciliary body,
-filtration angle [bw cornea and iris],
-choroid
- tapetum lucidum [not in pig]

Internal tunic
- Visual retina is the the optic disc @optic nerve till ora ciliaris (where the ciliary body in the vascular tunic begins)
- Non-visual is from the ora ciliaris retinae to the tip of posterior iris

56
Q

A short wavelength or high frequency is

A

High energy

57
Q

The eye is derived from the

A

The neurectoderm/brain is the nerves and the retina
The uvea/vascular tunic and the external tunic both come from mesoderm

58
Q

Even if its neuralgic must have

A

Rabies on differential

59
Q

3 forms of rabies

A

Dumb form
Furious form
Paralytic form

They change over time

60
Q

Most common Equine foal encephalopathy - behavioral disorder

A

Most common is neonatal encephalopathy non-infectious near signs

61
Q

In a photoreceptor (primary receptor that is a modified bipolar neuron)

A

There is the outer segment that has the photo pigment hitch is different in rods and 3 in cones [It has retinol and the opsinin which is a transmembrane protein ]
Inner segment with mitochondria
Nucleus
And synaptic body that releases glutamate to bipolar cells

62
Q

Ganglion cells get it:

A

It goes to the inner plexiform where it is the ganglion cells, bipolar cells and amacrine
The the inner nuclear which is the bipolar cells, amacrine and horizontal cells
The the outer plexiform which is the bipolar cells, horizontal cells, and the photoreceptor.
1st :The the outer nuclear layer which is the rods and cones [pass to the outer plexiform] by change in opsin which sends signal to close Na channels → depolarized and release glutamine
→ activate the outer plexiform

63
Q

Sympathetic to the eye

A

Cervical spinal nerve

Parasymparheic: is occulomotor nerve

Sensory: trigeminal

64
Q

Lateral rectus.

A

Cn 6

65
Q

Eyes are located in front of head for

A

Predators _ better depth

66
Q

In predator the lateral/peripheral view is in_______ retina

A

Nasal retina and it does cross over so acut@ optic chasm means no peripheral predator vision

But for prey it means no vision

67
Q

Cut in optic nerve on left side means

A

Predator - a bit from the right and left visual field is lost
Prey - all of the left field is lost

68
Q

5 core horse vaccine

A

West nile virus
Eastern equine encephalitis
western equine encephalitis
Venezuelan equine encephalitis
Rabies

69
Q

Small ruminant lentivirus

A

Causes arthritis in old goat
Encephalitis in young goats
Pneumonia in sheep

70
Q

Absorbable suture

A

Loss of tensile strength 60-90 days
Phagocytoses by macrophages

71
Q

Absorbable suture

A

Multi more absorbent in this than mono

72
Q

Multi -absorbable

A

Multi:
IF dont need tensile strength to last long- mucosa
- Catgut (not uniform ; pig gut - very reactive to tissue)
- Chromic gut (reduce tissue inflam)

73
Q

Braided multifilament and soft

A

Vicryl polyglactin 910

74
Q

Non absorbable suture :>60 days tensile strength

A

Silk -braided , high tissue reactivity

Nylon (polyamide)!!!!-monofilamnt
- Ethilon ; natural suture material
- synthetic

Prolene (polypropylene) -monofilament, tendon ligament, thick tissue and not reactive!
- a lot of memory so not good handling

75
Q

Where is needle attached to suture?

A

Swage End

76
Q

For thick and tough tissue which needle suture to use

A

The reverse cutting- less drag and less fatigue
- with multiple sides of blade

77
Q

Synopthalmia

A

Duplication of interocular structure

78
Q

Keratomalacia

A

Corneal alter is secondarily infected

79
Q

Cerebrovascular diseases
What is the most common in dog and cat

A

It s when there is change in blood supply (ie. FCE or rheologic syndrome for viscosity) Most common is stroke which signs persist over 24 hrs but dont get worse

80
Q

Stroke vs transient ischemic attack

A

Stoke signs persist but dont worsen after 24 hrs

TIA - signs get better in under 24 hrs

81
Q

5 territorial arteries in brain: which is the most common for infarct with abberant cuterebra

A

The middle cerebral artery for feline ischemic encephalopathy

82
Q

Meningoencephalitis most common cause in small animal is

A

Immune mediated
Ie.

83
Q

How not to diagnose vs not to:

Focal brain disease (like PBT, Brain abscess, crypto, Cerebrovascular diseases)

Multifocal Inflammatory

A

Focal Brain : Use advanced imaging (CT/MRI/CSF) no systemic signs

Multifocal brain disease (meningoencephalitis -infectious and immune): Must use more than normal imaging & CSF to rule out inflammatory or neurodegenerative dx : use MRI, CSF, serology, genetic

84
Q

Amphotericin and fuconazole and flucytosine are treatments for

A

Fungal cryptococcus :
- ocular/dermal/lymphatic and resp signs before CNS signs
Gelatinous psuedo cyst with crypt in brain or intraparenchymal granauloma meningitis

85
Q

Most common cause of feline neurological disease

A

Feline infectious peritonitis

86
Q

Most fractures in horse head is a

A

Open fracture basinus
Bg
and less blood supply to bone

87
Q

With oral fracture there is a LOT of salivation: horses vs cattle

A

Electrolyceloss
horses lose Cl&raquo_space; alkalosis
cattle lose Na and bicarb&raquo_space; acidosis

88
Q

In a horse which type of fracture is more common

A

Mandible over maxilla
Usually only one ramus/unilateral
Incisors are involved

89
Q

Fractures in a horse head

A

Fractures in a horse rostral to the premolars are better
Open fractures usually
Foals heal better

90
Q

Most common anomaly associated with brain disease clinical signs

A

Congenital hydrocephalus
-mesencephalic aquaduct in small animal

91
Q

Phototransduction

A

Opsin absorbs the photon -> G protein activates inside the shelf -> signal CLOSES Na channel and hyper-polarization -> no glutamate release

RATE OF ACTION POTENTIAL GOES DOWN WHEN LIGHT HITS

92
Q

Rule of thirds for MUE

A

1/3 die in month
1/3 have near prob but clinical sign improve
1/3 a lot -improve

93
Q

Are idiopathic cranial neuropathy safe?

A

 yes none are life threatening
Self limiting

94
Q

Bilateral jaw drop and inability to close mouth With unilateral temporalis atrophy

Unilateral jaw/facial droop + dry lacrimal

Bilateral temporalis atrophy and cant open mouth

A

Bilateral jaw drop and inability to close mouth (mouth is open) With unilateral temporalis atrophy - trigeminal neuritis

Unilateral jaw/facial droop + dry lacrimal - facial nerve

Bilateral temporalis atrophy and cant open mouth - mastication myositis 2M

95
Q

Most common cause of
Inflammatory spinal cord disease in dogs

A

Steroid responsive meningitis arteritis -younge large

96
Q

Seizure goal

A

One every a 2 months

97
Q

Cluster seizure

A

Morethan one seizure a day

98
Q

Behavior modification for horses

A

No phenothiazine : Chlorpromazine and Fluphenazine and Reserpine - NEVER IN HORSES

Only Fluoxitine SSRI and Trazodone SARI

99
Q

Collie Eye Anomaly

A

Due to posterior coloboma
Choroid hypopigmentation and hypoplasia
Retinal detachment
Microopthalmia

100
Q

Canine Cornea disease keratitis

A

Canine ulcerative keratitis - when there is haired skin irritating, entropion, KCS (KCS also in pugs)
Canine persistent ulcer- the epithelium doesn’t attach to stroma

Canine pannus keratitis - Pan moves from Linus to the center of the cornea —> bilateral bc immune ; immunosuppressive

101
Q

Pink eye in bovine

A

Moraxella bovis- infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (more serious necrosis aka corneal ulcer causes bigger prob) which causes keratomalacia -CORNEA

Infectious bovine Rhinotracheitis - because of herpes virus and organs affected W CONJUCTIVA

102
Q

What feline disease can cause corneal and episcelera infections

A

Feline herpes virus -chlamydophila
Keratitis and conjunctivitis

103
Q

Habronemiasis

A

Is a parasite that is deposit in the conjuctiva of a horse

104
Q

Placoclastic uveitis vs phacolytic uveitis

A

Phacolytic= is when the lens fluid leaks which is highly antigenic bc cataracts

Phacoclastic= is when there is a rupture and the fluid leaks due to diabetic cataracts or trauma

105
Q

NGE

A

Modular Granduloma Episcleritis
Int the conjuctiva and episcelera (outer ) and with macrophage/lymphocytes/fibroblast/ plasma

106
Q

Blindness in the horses commonly

A

Equine recurrent Uveitis

107
Q

Most common reason for enucleation in dog and cat is when there is disruption in flow of aqueous humor

A

Glaucoma
Dog>cat> horses
Caused by lens luxation

108
Q

Nuclear sclerosis vs Cataract

A

Both lose lens opacity but
Cataract is the degeneration of the lens fibers [existing ones mess up] ie swelling due to diabetics

Nuclear sclerosis is when the lens epithelium becomes the lens fibers at equator and too much lens fibers are there with age

109
Q

Define this:
Peridial fibrovascular membrane
Goniodysgenesis
Buphthalmos
Pupillary block

A

Define this:
Peridial fibrovascular membrane- causes 2ndary glaucoma by blocking the filtration angle as a trabecular occlusion

Goniodysgenesis - lack of the trabecular mesh work at the angle - primary glaucoma

Buphthalmos - when the eye protrudes out bc of pressure of the aqueous humor - cause KCS

Pupillary block - secondary glaucoma because of anterior lens luxation or putter of the lens (phacoclastic)

110
Q

Primary occular sarcoma

A

A malignant tumor in the cat intraocular where the epithelial lens becomes mesenchymal cells due to trauma

111
Q

Hypoglycemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia

A

Hypoglycemia - not enough glucose for NA/K pump
Hyponatremia - intracellular NA relatively more bring in water and is depolarized
Hypocalcemia - Na channel stays open because not along with Calcium
Mycotoxin - act like glutamate which opens up the calcium or sodium channels
Organophosphates - inhibit the inhibitor of Acetylcholine so open Na channel (Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
Pyrethrin - bind to the Na inactivation gate before it close and fix it in open

112
Q

Things that cause too little inhibition channels that cause seizures

A

4 -Aminopyridine - block the Potassium channel and not let out K +

Strychnine- (Inhibits the inhibitors) doesn’t allow Inhibitor glycine to bind the chloride receptors
Bicuculline- (competitively binds the channels and opens chloride) binds to chloride channels associated with gaba

113
Q

Stuctural epilepsy signalment

A

Very young and very old
With neurologic deficits
Cluster seizures more common in structural

114
Q

If dog 6mo to 6 years old with a normal inter-ictal exam with single seizires >24 hrs apart

A

Idiopathic Epilepsy at Tier 1
Most common neuro disease in dogs
Dont need brain MRI

115
Q

Phenobarbital can induce

A

Hepatic failure and blood changes
It may also lead to superficial necrolytic dermatitis - which is when the liver not produce aminoacids-ultrasound nodules
It can cause induction when liver metabolize more via CYP450 in 3 month recheck

Add KBr or Switch ONLY if maxed out the drug
DONT give if liver issues
- use impeiton if liver or kidney issues

116
Q

Anti Seizure Drug that doesn’t use GABA

A

Levetiracetam- long acting
- sure for idiopathic if clusters
For structural its better

Zonisamide -bind to na channel on axon and made it hard for NA in
- also hard for CA in by binding to channel

117
Q

Propofol > Benzidiazepems

A

If 3 rounds
If liver fail
If toxin seizure

118
Q

If cluster seizure that is ideopathic:

A

Intranasal midazolam or rectal diazepam
Then ASD like Levetiracetam at a pulse therapy if cluster seizures >2 mo apart

119
Q

Preictal

A

Prodrome- where there is motor or sensory behavior change
Aura - sensation that precedes where EEG is weird

If EEG taken w spike and MRI and age range and bile acids ->Tier 3

120
Q

Prognosis for traumatic brain injury that affects consciousness

A

Forebrain and cerebellar injury better than other areas
With DAILY MONITOR • SACS of 8 at admission associated with 50%
probability of survival at 48 hours of survival
• Post-traumatic epilepsy possible secondary complication complication

Start wl ↑cbf with fluids
The ↓ icp and ich with decompressive craniotomy and pi’s mannitol/furosemide or
Supportive tx

121
Q

Subfalcine herniation

A

Happen bc the lesion cross falx cerebri that divides the brain sides

122
Q

Ich when the ICP really high

A

CBP =mABP -ICP

123
Q

Clomipramine

A

TCA

124
Q

Cats and benzodiazepam

A

No oral diazepam bc hepatic necrosis

125
Q

Ruminant brain disease cardinal signs : blindness, Mental depression, seizures, dementia

A

Blindness: Lesions located in the thalamus, occipital cortex or internal capsule. Contralateral loss of menace (important to rule out other causes)
§ Mental depression: dullness, stupor and on occasion coma can be caused by diffuse cerebral or serious frontal, temporal lobe lesions
§ Seizures: abnormal spontaneous discharges from the forebrain that cause paroxysmal involuntary movements
§ Dementia: subtle behavioral changes (not recognizing owner, unable to perform regular routines as walking on a halter) to more grave behaviors like compulsive licking, walking, fear, hypersensitivity, aggression and vocalization derive from temporal, frontal lobe lesions (if signs are asymmetric such as walking to one side it is usually to the side of the lesion)

126
Q

Cranial Abscessation Syndrome

A

Arcanobacterium pyogenes Loss of fear and coordination- blind weak

Sensing And Seeing (6 decks)

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