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Year 2 Semester 2 > SPOT/OSPE Revision > Flashcards

SPOT/OSPE Revision Flashcards

1
Q

The left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves loop under what when running up towards the neck?

A

Left=aorta

Right=right subclavian artery

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2
Q

Describe the path of the vagus nerve

A

Cranial nerve 10. Arises from brain, then goes to nodose ganglion. Joins with sympathetic trunk (but nothing to do with it) at the cranial cervical ganglion. These split at the middle cervical ganglion. Vagus supplies branches to the heart and lungs before dividing into a dorsal and ventral branch. At around the level of the diaphragm, the left and right dorsal and ventral branches join to give a single dorsal branch (supplies visceral surface of stomach/pylorus) and a single ventral vagal trunk (supplies parietal surface of pylorus and liver) within the abdomen

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3
Q

The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of which nerve?

A

Vagus

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4
Q

Where does the thoracic duct lie?

What does it do?

A

Drains lymph from the gut into the cranial vena cava
Is unpaired
Lies on the left in the thorax
Is found on the oesophagus cranial to the aorta

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5
Q

What passes through the foramen magnum in the skull?

A

Spinal cord

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6
Q

In the cow, the horns are continuous with which sinus?

A

Frontal

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7
Q

Where are the trephine points in a horse?

A

2 over the frontal sinus
1 over the rostral maxillary sinus
1 at the junction between the rostral and caudal maxillary sinus

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8
Q

Which muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?

A 
Levator ani 
Coccygeus
Rectococcygeus 
Internal and external anal sphincters 
Internal obturator
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9
Q

How are muscles moved around/sutured during a herniorrhaphy?

A

The coccygeus is sutured to the external anal sphincter. Next the internal obturator muscle is elevated off the floor of the pelvis, its tendon is incised, and it is reflected dorsomedially and sutured to the external anal sphincter

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10
Q

Which species posses a tracheal bronchus? Which lung lobe does it supply?

A

Pigs and ruminants
Supplies right cranial lobe
Branches off trachea, cranial to the tracheal bifurcation

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11
Q

Tertiary bronchi supply what?

A

Lobules

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12
Q

Which lung lobe is missing in horses?

A

Right middle

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13
Q

What is the epiploic foramen bordered by?

A

Hepatic portal vein, liver and caudal vena cava

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14
Q

What is the function of the platysma?

Which nerve supplies it?

A

Draws the commissure of the lips caudally

Cervical branch of facial nerve

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15
Q

What lies either side of the facial vein?

A

Mandibular lymph nodes (can be easily palpated)

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16
Q

Where do all the structures of the head drain through?

A

Retropharyngeal lymph nodes (just below wing of atlas)

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17
Q

Where does the parotid salivary gland open into?
What is it innervated by?
What type of saliva does it produce?
Where is its duct located?

A

Opens into the mouth on the buccal mucosa, at the level of the 4th upper premolar
Parasympathetic innervation is by glossopharyngeal, but the fibres reach the gland in a branch of the trigeminal
Serous saliva
Runs across the masseter muscle

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18
Q

The mandibular salivary gland lies where?
What sort of saliva does it secret?
Where does its duct run?
What is it innervated by?

A

In the v formed by the linguofacial and maxillary veins
Mixed (serous and mucous)
Its duct passes medioventrally and runs with the sublingual duct
Parasympathetic innervation is by facial nerve fibres passing in the chorda tympani to a branch of trigeminal, then on to the gland

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19
Q

What is the masseter innervated by?

A

Mandibular branch of trigeminal

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20
Q

What are the 2 bellies of digastricus innervated by?

A

Rostral belly: trigeminal

Caudal belly: facial

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21
Q

What is the mylohyoid innervated by?

A

Mylohyoid nerve from mandibular branch of trigeminal

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22
Q

What attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

What are the pair of swellings at the rostral edge of this?

A

Frenulum

Sublingual caruncles-site of orifices of the sublingual and mandibular ducts

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23
Q

What does the great auricular nerve of C2 supply?

A

Caudal ear muscles

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24
Q

The auriculopalpebral nerve is a branch of which nerve?

What does it further divide into?

A

Facial

Rostral auricular nerve (innervates rostral ear muscles) and palpebral nerve (innervates eyelid muscles)

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25
Q

What would be the effect of cutting the palpebral branch of the auriculopalpebral nerve?

A

Would be some drooping of eyelid, but an inability to fully close the eye, as palpebral branch supplies some muscles of upper eyelid: Orbicularis occuli, retractor anguli occuli, superciliaris.
However, the main retractor of the upper eyelid is the Levator Palpebrae Superioris, and as this is innervated by the occulomotor nerve, only a partial closure of the eye is observed

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26
Q

What does the facial nerve innervate?

A

Motor innervation to all superficial head and ear muscles, caudal belly of digastricus, platysma, stylohyoideus
Special visceral afferents (taste) to rostral 2/3 of tongue
General visceral efferents to lacrimal gland, mandibular and sublingual glands, and the nasal, buccal and lingual mucosa glands

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27
Q

What are the 3 main branches of the common carotid artery in the neck?

A

(Caudally to cranially)
Internal carotid artery
Pharyngeal artery
Occipital artery

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28
Q

What are the main branches of the mandibular trigeminal nerve?

A 
Auriculotemporal nerve (sensory to skin of ear and temple)
Mylohyoid nerve (motor to digastricus and mylohyoid muscles, sensory to skin)
Mandibular alveolar nerve (sensory to teeth and lips)
Lingual nerve (sensory to tongue)
Buccal nerve (sensory to cheek mucosa)
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29
Q

Which muscle runs inside the frenulum?

A

Genioglossus

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30
Q

Which muscle depresses the ear?

What is it innervated by?

A

Parotidoauricularis

Facial nerve

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31
Q

What muscles is the femoral triangle made up of?

A

Cranially: sartosius
Caudally: pectineus and adductor
Deeply: iliopsoas

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32
Q

What are the functions of biceps femoris?

A

Hip extensor
Stifle flexor
Hock extensor

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33
Q

The sacrotuberous ligament is in close proximity to which nerve?

A

Ischiatic nerve

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34
Q

What is the function of the tenuissimus?

A

Stifle flexor

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35
Q

Where does the ischiatic nerve run?

A

Between the greater trochanter of the femur and the ischiatic tuberosity of the pelvis

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36
Q

Where does the vastus lateralis head of the quadriceps originate and insert?
What is its action?
What innervates it?

A

O=greater trochanter of femur
I=tibial tuberosity by way of the patellar ligament
A=extends stifle
In=Femoral nerve

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37
Q

Which vessels are within the femoral triangle?

A

Femoral artery
Femoral vein
Femoral nerve

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38
Q

The ischiatic nerve splits into what?

A

Tibial nerve and peroneal (fibular) nerve

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39
Q

The saphenous nerve is a branch of which nerve?

A

Femoral

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40
Q

What does the femoral artery split into at the medial stifle?

A

Popliteal artery and distal caudal femoral artery

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41
Q

Unlike the forelimb, the hindlimb has 2 sets of digital extensor muscles. What are they are where do they originate?

A

Long digital extensors: femur

Short digital extensors: metatarsals

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42
Q

In the hindlimb, where does the superficial digital flexor originate and insert?
What are its actions?
What is it innervated by?

A

O=lateral supracondylar tuberosity of femur
I=bases of middle phalanges of digits 2-5
A=flex the stifle, flex digits 2-5, extend tarsus
In=tibial nerve

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43
Q

The deep digital flexor has how many heads in the hindlimb?

What are they innervated by?

A

2: lateral digital flexor and medial digital flexor

Tibial nerve

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44
Q

In the horse hindlimb, the plantar nerves arise from which nerve?

A

Tibial

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45
Q

What are the palmar/plantar annular ligaments in the horse?

A

Fibrous band that wraps around the flexor tendons as they pass over the fetlock sesamoid bones on the palmar/plantar surface of the limb

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46
Q

Where should you inject when performing a palmar digital nerve block?
How much of the foot does it block?
Which nerves does it affect?

A

1cm above coronary band, 2/3 of the way to palmar aspect (both medial and lateral)
Blocks caudal 1/2 of foot (including navicular bone, distal sesamoid)
Palmar digital nerves

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47
Q

Where should you inject when performing an abaxial sesamoid nerve block?
How much of the foot does it block?
Which nerves does it affect?

A

At the abaxial aspect of the sesamoids (medial and lateral)
Blocks entire foot
Affects palmar digital nerves and dorsal branches

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48
Q

Where should you inject when performing a palmar metacarpal nerve block?
How much of the foot does it block?
Which nerves does it affect?

A

Inject 2cm proximal to sesamoids, at the distal end of the splint bones
Blocks entire digit (fetlock joint and all structures below)
Affects palmar nerves and palmar metacarpal nerves
4-point block (FL), 6-point block (HL)

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49
Q

What does the suspensory ligament join with on the cranial aspect of the hoof?
What is its function?

A

Common digital extensor tendon

Prevents collapse of the metacarpophalangeal joint during weight-bearing

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50
Q

Explain the patellar-locking mechanism in the horse

A

When the stifle is extended, the patella is proximal. To lock it in place, the patella is rotated medially and engages with the horizontal/resting surface of the trochlea of the femur. The tubercle of the medial trochlear ridge is now between the middle and medial patellar ligaments. This locks the joint in extension. No muscle activity is needed to maintain this position. To unlock, the horse shifts its weight to the other limb, and the quadriceps contract, drawing the patella proximally then laterally, back to mid-line.

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51
Q

How would you distinguish between a boar and a stallion’s penis?

A

No sigmoid flexure in stallion

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52
Q

Which blood vessels supply the penis?
What is this a branch of?
What does they continue as?

A

Internal pudendal artery/vein
Branch of the internal iliac
Continues as the dorsal artery of the penis

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53
Q

Which blood vessels supply the skin of the penis (prepuce)?

What also contributes in the horse?

A

Caudal superficial epigastric artery/vein

External pudendal artery/vein

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54
Q

What are the pros and cons of closed castrations?

A

Pros:
Don’t enter peritoneal cavity so less chance of infection
Rapid, easy technique
As the vaginal tunic is not entered, less chance of bleeding from incising it
Tunics and testicles remain intact, so less possibility of seeding local wound with tumour cells
Decreased chance of seromas forming at the incision site (pockets of fluid from blood plasma seeping out from ruptured blood vessels)
Less scrotal swelling

Cons:
If ligaments are not secure, risk of bleeding
No tension must be placed on spermatic cord during clamping and ligation and extra care is required to place secure ligatures since vessels are only indirectly ligated (placed around tunic, not directly on vessels)-chance of ligatures slipping or loosening

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55
Q

What are the pros and cons of open castrations?

A

Pros:
Ligatures can be placed directly onto testicular vessels and ductus deferens, thereby minimising the chance of them slipping or loosening

Cons:
Operating time slightly longer
Indirect opening into peritoneal cavity is created-chance of infection

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56
Q

What is the glans penis made up of?

A

Bulbus glandis covers proximal half of os penis

Pars longa glandis covers distal half of os penis

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57
Q

The crura of the penis are derived from what?

What do they become?

A

Ischium of pelvis

Corpus cavernosum

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58
Q

Where is sperm produced?

A

Seminiferous tubules

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59
Q

What stimulates sperm maturation?

A

Production and release of FSH and testosterone

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60
Q

Where does sperm mature and be stored?

A

Epididymis
Concentrates in the tail
Maturation takes 8-15 days

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61
Q

Explain emission and ejaculation

A

Emission=movement of seminal fluids from accessory sex glands (prostate in dog, also ampulla in other species except pig, vesicular glands except cat/dog, bulbourethral gland except dog) into pelvic urethra, which then mix with spermatozoa

Ejaculation=expulsion of spermatozoa and seminal plasma. Under sympathetic control

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62
Q

How is erection achieved and maintained?

A

Erotogenic stimuli cause sensory nerves to fire and activate ‘reproductive behaviour centre’ in hypothalamus. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves release NO, this causes vasodilation and hence an erection. Dilation of corporal sinusoids, relaxation of retractor penis muscle, restriction of venous outflow, elevated arterial blood flow (internal pudendal artery), elevated intrapenile pressure.
Erection is maintained by contraction of ischiocavernosus and bulbospongiosus muscles-prevent venous outflow, rhythmic contractions increase pressure in corpus cavernosum during erection.

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63
Q

What are the 3 muscles of the penis?

A

Retractor penis muscle=retracts penis back into sheath
Ischiocavernosus and bulbospongiosus muscles=prevent venous drainage of blood during erection, rhythmic contractions increase pressure in corpus cavernosum during erection

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64
Q

Which blood vessels supply the scrotum?

A

External pudendal artery and vein

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65
Q

What are the 2 types of corpus cavernosum?

A

Musculocavernous: smooth muscle with large cavernous spaces (horse and dog)
Fibro-elastic: fibrous and elastic tissue arranged in a sigmoid flexure with small cavernous spaces (bull, ram, boar)

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66
Q

How does the blood supply to the testes ensure that blood reaching them is cooler than core body temperature?

A

The testicular vein is arranged in a mesh encasing the testicular artery, allowing cooling of arterial blood via heat exchange with venous blood from the testes

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67
Q

What do sertoli cells produce?

A

Inhibin-converts testosterone to oestrogen

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68
Q

Which cells produce testosterone?

A

Leydig cells

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69
Q

Why may an animal still show sexual interest/be fertile for a time after being castrated?

A

May be some sperm ‘in storage’ in the spermatic ducts

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70
Q

What are the 3 major branches off the caeliac artery?

A

Hepatic artery
Left gastric artery
Splenic artery

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71
Q

Which spinal nerves make up the peripheral nervous system in the GI tract?
What do the dorsal branches supply?
What do the ventral branches supply?

A

T13 (number of last rib, so T18 in horse) and L1-L5
Dorsal abdominal skin
Ventral:
Medial branch: supplies transverse abdominal, internal oblique, and rectus abdominis
Lateral branch: supplies internal and external obliques
Lateral cutaneous branch: supplies lateral skin

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72
Q

Where do the pre-ganglionics of the major and minor splanchnic nerves synapse in the abdomen?

A

Caeliaco-mesenteric ganglia

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73
Q

Where do the pre-ganglionics of the lumbar splanchnic nerves synapse in the abdomen?

A

Caudal mesenteric ganglion

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74
Q

Where does the pelvic nerve originate?

Where does it pass through?

A

S1-S3

Passes through pelvic plexus then follows arteries to pelvic organs of innervation

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75
Q

What are the 3 major branches off the aorta and what do they innervate?

A

Caeliac artery: cranial abdominal organs
Cranial mesenteric: mid-abdominal organs
Caudal mesenteric: caudal abdominal organs

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76
Q

What are the 3 major branches off the cranial mesenteric artery?

A 
Ileo-colic artery: splits into 5 branches
Caudal pancreatico-duodenal artery (caudal right lobe of pancreas and duodenum)
Jejunal arteries (jejunum)
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77
Q

What are the 5 branches off the ileo-colic artery?

A

Middle colic artery (transverse colon)
Right colic artery (right colic flexure)
Colic branch of ileo-colic (ascending colon)
Caecal branch of ileo-colic (caecum). Branches into anti-mesenteric ileal artery (ileum)
Mesenteric ileal artery (ileum)

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78
Q

All GI organs drain via which vein?

A

Hepatic portal vein

Enables liver to metabolise/detoxify

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79
Q

Venous return from the liver to general circulation is via which veins?
What do they drain into?
What are the 2 exceptions?

A

Hepatic veins draining into caudal vena cava
Except left gastric which drains into splenic not hepatic portal
Except left testicular vein which drains into left renal vein not caudal vena cava

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80
Q

Where do non-GI organs drain?

A

Directly into caudal vena cava

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81
Q

How many caeliac veins are there?

A

None

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82
Q

What is the periople of the hoof?

A

Small band of soft tissue which covers the coronary band, and widens at the heels

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83
Q 
What do the following attach:
Mesentery 
Omentum
Fold
Ligament
A

Mesentery-bowel to body wall
Omentum-stomach to something
Fold-bowel to bowel
Ligament-non-bowel to something

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84
Q

What are the 3 ligaments of the liver?

A

Falciform ligament: liver to ventral body wall
Coronary ligament: liver to diaphragm
Triangular ligament: (R & L) liver to diaphragm

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85
Q

Which muscles are attached to the pterygoid process of the skull?
What do they do?

A

Pterygopharyngeus- constricts and shortens the pharynx

Pterygoid- closes the jaw and allows lateral movement of the mandible with respect to the skull

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86
Q

Which muscle dilates the pharynx?

A

Stylopharyngeus

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87
Q

Which muscles constrict and shorten the pharynx?

A

Palatopharyngeus

Pterygopharyngeus

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88
Q

Which bones make up the hard palate?

A

Incisive, maxilla, palatine bones

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89
Q

What are the 2 large holes in the hard palate?

A

Palatine fissure

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90
Q

What pass through the palatine foramen?

A

Major palatine artery, vein and nerve

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91
Q

Why is the cribriform plate full of holes?

A

Separates cranium from nasal cavity
The numerous foramina transmit blood vessels and olfactory nerves from the olfactory epithelium of the caudal nasal cavity to the olfactory bulbs of the brain

92
Q

In the horse, the frontal sinus communicates with what?

A

Caudal maxillary sinus

93
Q

Does the frontal sinus communicate with the nasal cavity directly?

A

Yes via small openings between the ethmoturbinates in all species EXCEPT THE HORSE

94
Q

Which turbinate is absent in the horse?

A

Ventral

95
Q

Why, in the young horse, are the lateral parts of the maxillary sinus much smaller?

A

Due to unerupted cheek teeth occupying the maxillary space

96
Q

What are the three branches coming off the common carotid artery?

A

Internal carotid artery (caudal)
Pharyngeal artery
Occipital artery (cranial)

97
Q

Where do all sinuses drain into?

A

Middle meatus

98
Q

What is the purpose of trephine points?

A

Give access to teeth and their roots

For draining a sinus

99
Q

What is the horse dental formula?

A

I3/3 C1/1 (or 0/0) PM3/3 (or 4/4) M3/3

100
Q

What is the dental formula of a dog?

A

I3/3 C1/1 PM4/4 M2/3

101
Q

What is the dental formula of a rabbit?

A

I2/1 C0/0 PM3/2 M3/3

102
Q

What is the clinical significance of mandibular lymph nodes?

A

Can be easily palpated

103
Q

What does the parotid lymph node drain?

A

Dorsal structures of the head

104
Q

What are the two main cartilages of the ear?

A 
Auricular cartilage (pinna)
Annular cartilage (at the base)
105
Q

Where does the lacrimal gland lie?

A

Just beneath the orbital ligament

106
Q

What is the function of the dorsal oblique muscle?

What is it innervated by?

A

It rotates the dorsal part of the eyeball medially and ventrally
Trochlear nerve

107
Q

What is the function of the ventral oblique muscle?

What is it innervated by?

A

Moves the ventral part of the eyeball medially and dorsally

Occulomotor nerve

108
Q

What passes through the superficial (external) inguinal ring in the female dog?

A

The vaginal process containing the round ligament of the uterus

109
Q

What is the gastrosplenic ligament?

A

A fold of peritoneum attaching the greater curvature of the stomach o the spleen
Has considerable amounts of fat stored within it

110
Q

How would you identify the ileum from the jejunum?

A

Ileum is the only part of the intestines to have antimesenteric blood vessels (artery and vein)

111
Q

In dogs and cats, which kidney lies more cranially?

A

Right

112
Q

Describe the layout of the bloodvessels in the equine jejunum and ileum

A

Jejunum: branching blood vessels
Ileum: parallel blood vessels

113
Q

Which flexure of the colon lies most caudally in the horse?

A

Pelvic flexure

114
Q

Which muscles originate partly or wholly from the sacrotuberous ligament?

A

Piriformis
Superficial gluteal
Tenuissimus
Biceps femoris

115
Q

Where does the sacrotuberous ligament run?

A

From the sacrum/first coccygeal vertebrae to the ischiatic tuberosity

116
Q

What is the function of tenuissimus?

A

Stifle flexor

117
Q

What is the function of biceps femoris?

A

Hip extensor
Stifle flexor
Hock extensor

118
Q

Which muscles make up the femoral triangle?

A

Cranially: sartorius
Caudally: pectineus
Proximally: iliopsoas

119
Q

What is the saphenous vein associated with on the lateral aspect and medial aspect of the hindlimb?

A

Lateral: nothing
Medial: saphenous nerve (branch of femoral) and saphenous artery

120
Q

In the bovine hoof, which side of the hoof is larger?

A

Lateral, carries the greater share of the hoof

121
Q

What is the function of the frog in the hoof?

A

Anti-concussive

122
Q

What is the function of the walls of the hoof?

A

Weight-bearing

123
Q

What should the angle of the toe to the ground be (in the hoof)?

A

50 degrees

124
Q

What is the white line of the hoof formed from?

A

Horny laminae and also horn produced by the terminal papillae at the distal end of the dermal laminae

125
Q

What is contained within the hoof?

A 
Navicular bone
Navicular bursa
Distal phalanx
Middle phalanx (distal end)
DDFT
Digital cushion
126
Q

How is the hoof wall formed?

A

Dermal papillae produce epidermal tubes of keratin, which extend distally towards the ground. Gaps in between are filled by intertubular horn

127
Q

In birds, what is the function of the Bursa of Fabricius?

Where is it located?

A

B cell development

Located at dorsal wall at end of cloaca

128
Q

What joins the ovary to the oviduct?

A

Proper ligament of ovary

129
Q

Where are the ovarian artery and vein contained?

A

Mesovarium (portion of broad ligament that suspends the ovaries)

130
Q

Where does bulk reabsorption of H2O and Na+ occur?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

131
Q

Dilation of this helps to increase the glomerular filtration rate

A

Afferent arteriole

132
Q

What kind of diuretic can also be used to treat glaucoma?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors eg Acetozolamide

133
Q

What is the difference between volvulus and torsion?

A 
Volvulus= twist around mesenteric root
Torsion= rotation around long axis
134
Q

Where, along the horse colon, is the diaphragmatic flexure located?
What about the pelvic flexure?

A

Diaphragmatic flexure: as left dorsal colon becomes right dorsal colon
Pelvic flexure: as left ventral colon becomes left dorsal colon

135
Q

The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies what?

A

Intrinsic muscles of larynx (except Cricothyroid muscles)

136
Q

What is the function of angiotensin?

A

Causes vasoconstriction and a subsequent increase in blood pressure.
Also stimulates release of aldosterone

137
Q

The middle ear is a cavity located within which bone?

A

Temporal

138
Q

What is the gutteral pouch?

It is split into medial and lateral compartments by which bone?

A

An air-filled ventral diverticulum of the auditory tube
Only found in horses
Split into medial and lateral compartments by stylohyoid bone

139
Q

What is the lateral surgical approach for gaining access to the gutteral pouch?

A

Viborg’s Triangle:
Caudal border formed by tendon of insertion of sternocephalicus
Ventral border formed by linguofacial vein
Cranial border formed by the caudal mandible

140
Q

When does the gutteral pouch of the horse drain?

A

When it swallows

When its head is down

141
Q

What are the 5 signs of inflammation?

A

Redness, increased heat, swelling, pain, loss of function

142
Q

What prevents backward movement of the jaw in dogs?

A

Retroarticular process

143
Q

What joins the ovary to the wall of the pelvis?

A

Suspensory ligament

144
Q

How can you distinguish the small intestine from the large intestine?

A

No mesentery in large intestine (except transverse and sigmoid colon)

145
Q

How does the caudal maxillary sinus communicate with the rostral maxillary sinus?

A

Via the naso-maxillary opening

146
Q

Describe blood supply to the liver

A 
Hepatic artery (branch of caeliac) delivers oxygenated blood
Hepatic portal vein delivers nutrient-rich blood from digestive tract
147
Q

Describe liver innervation

A

Sympathetic supply from peri-arterial plexuses

Parasympathetic supply from ventral vagal trunk

148
Q

What does the nephrosplenic ligament attach?

A

Kidney and spleen

149
Q

What is reabsorbed and secreted in the DCT and collecting duct?

A

Reabsorbed: Na+, Cl-
Secreted: K+
(principal cells)

Intercalated cells: H+ secretion

150
Q

Where does the azygous vein terminate?

A

At the junction between the cranial vena cava and right atrium

151
Q

Where does food pass in the ruminant?

A

Rumen -> reticulum -> omasum -> abomasum (equivalent to simple stomach) -> duodenum

152
Q

What is located on the right side of the ruminant abdomen?

A

Colon, jejunum, omasum, abomasum, liver

153
Q

What is located on the left side of the ruminant abdomen?

A

Rumen, reticulum

154
Q

What do parietal cells produce?

A

HCl

155
Q

What is the role of orbicularis oculi?

A

Close the eye and so sweep tears across the front of the eye, keeping it clean and moist. If this fails to work, corneal ulcers will develop.

156
Q

What is entropian?

What is ectropian?

A

Entropian=inward rolling of the eyelid margin. Can affect upper or lower lids.
Ectropian=eversion of the eyelid margin, typically the lower one.

157
Q

Which nerve supplies the lacrimal gland?

A

Facial

158
Q

Where do secretions from the lacrimal gland drain?

A

Nasal cavity

Lacrimal gland -> lacrimal sac -> naso-lacrimal duct -> nasal cavity

159
Q

Discuss some species differences regarding the tongue

A

Wider at the end in dogs and horses
Pointed in ox, sheep, pig
Ruminants have a torus linguae (mound on caudal part of tongue that pushes food against hard palate)
Soft texture in horse, pig, dog. Rough in cat and ruminant
Dogs have a median sulcus and lyssa (fibrous worm-shaped structure) on ventral tip

160
Q

Which cranial nerves arise from pharyngeal arch 4?

A

Vagus and accessory

161
Q

Which cranial nerve originates from pharyngeal arch 3?

A

Glossopharyngeal

162
Q

What is the function of the geniohyoid muscles?

What innervates them?

A

Paired
Pull the hyoid apparatus and tongue forward
Hypoglossal

163
Q

What is the function of the sternohyoid muscles?

What innervates them?

A

Paired
Pull the hyoid and tongue caudally
Cervical nerves

164
Q

What kind of epithelium lines the tongue?

A

Stratified squamous keratinised

165
Q

Where is the soft palate located?

A

Extends from the caudal edge of the hard palate to the epiglottis

166
Q

What are the 4 major muscles of the soft palate?

A

Palatinus- shortens soft palate
Levator veli palatini- elevates soft palate
Tensor veli palatini- tenses soft palate
Palatopharyngeus- closes pharygopalatine arch and elevates soft palate

167
Q

What are the 2 roles of the larynx?

A 
Primary= protect the lower respiratory tract from foreign bodies
Secondary= phonation (voice production)
168
Q

How many pairs of laryngeal muscles are there?

A

8
7 pairs close the glottis
1 pair opens the glottis

169
Q

What is the function of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis?

A

Abducts the arytenoids and opens the glottis

170
Q

What are the muscles of the larynx innervated by?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve, except cricothyroid muscles (cranial laryngeal nerve)

171
Q

What do you use to block nerves in an equine nerve block?

A

Local anaesthetics eg lidocaine

172
Q

Where does the guttural pouch drain into?

A

Pharnyx

173
Q

Nerve supply to the lungs is via what?

A

Pulmonary plexus within the mediastinum

It consists of sympathetic fibres largely from the stellate ganglion, and parasympathetic fibres from the vagus nerve

174
Q

How does the frontal sinus communicate with the caudal maxillary sinus?

A

Fronto-maxillary opening

175
Q

Which sinus is present in the caudal maxillary sinus?

A

Sphenoid sinus

176
Q

Nociception only becomes pain when it reaches what?

A

Thalamus

177
Q

Where do first order neurones synapse?

A

In the substantia gelatinosa (lamina II) of the grey matter of the spinal cord

178
Q

What would you see with azotaemia?

A

Increased blood urea

Increased blood creatinine

179
Q

What is the primary function of beta blockers?

A

Decrease heart contractility

180
Q

Give the 2 upper respiratory breath sounds

A

Stertor (inspiratory)

Stridor (expiratory)

181
Q

Decreased serotonin leads to increased what?

A

Aggression

182
Q

What is meant by right shift?

A

For a given PO2, the Hb saturation is lower, hence unloading of O2 is more efficient. Lower affinity for O2

183
Q

What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors?

A

Ionotropic: fast, receptor is present on ion channel, ligand-gated eg GABA

Metabotropic: slower, receptor is separate from ion channel, sends second messenger to different receptor on ion channel eg G-protein coupled

184
Q

Which 3 muscles flex the stifle?
What are they innervated by?
Where do they originate?

A 
BSS
Biceps femoris
Semimembranous
Semitendinous 
In= sciatic nerve 
O= tuber ischium
185
Q

Which muscles extend the stifle?

What are they innervated by?

A

Quadriceps (all heads)
Sartorius

In= femoral nerve

186
Q

What is the function of the radial nerve?

A

Extends elbow, flexes shoulder, extends carpus and digits

187
Q

What would happen in the cases of proximal and distal radial nerve damage?

A

Proximal: can’t extend elbow or weight-bear
Distal: can’t extend carpus (would drag paw along ground)

188
Q

How is the olfactory epithelium of the caudal nasal cavity stimulated during sniffing?

A

Quiet breathing: air passes through and below the heat exchanger and is only slightly in contact with olfactory epithelium
During sniffing: air passes above the heat exchanger aswell, reaching all of the olfactory epithelium. Also leads to turbulent airflow, increasing contact between air and olfactory epithelium

189
Q

What is the nasal septum primarily made of?

A

Hyaline cartilage

190
Q

What happens to air once it is inspired?

A

Warmed to body temperature by blood vessels found in the connective tissue layer of the mucous membrane
Mucous secreted by goblet cells moistens the air and traps dust particles
Cilia move the mucous and trapped particles towards the pharynx to be swallowed

191
Q

What does the olfactory epithelium consist of?

A

Olfactory receptor cells (bipolar neurones), support cells (pseudostratified columnar with microvilli) and basal cells (stem cells)
Receptor cells have cilia which are very long and project into the nasal cavity to interact with odour molecules

192
Q

The axons of which cells form CN1 (olfactory nerve)?

A

Receptor cells of olfactory epithelium. Axons pass through the cribriform plate to synapse on neurones within the olfactory bulbs

193
Q

What are the 2 surfaces of the soft palate?

A

1) Respiratory surface, facing nasal pharynx. Columnar ciliated, pseudostratified epithelium with goblet cells
2) Oral surface, facing oral pharynx. Stratified squamous epithelium with rete pegs for anchorage

194
Q

What are the 4 attachments of the ovaries?

A

Ovarian lig: attaches ovary to lateral body wall at caudal pole of kidney. Contains ovarian artery and vein so must be ligated in a spay
Mesosalpinx: attaches ovary to uterine horn (part of broad lig)
Suspensory lig: attaches ovary to lateral body wall at caudal pole of kidney. Must be broken in spay to expose the ovary
Proper lig of ovary: attaches ovary to cranial end of uterine horn

195
Q

How does the uterus attach to the lateral body wall?

A

Broad ligament (mesometrium)

196
Q

The mesentery of the jejunum contains many what?

A

Lymph nodes, situates near the body wall

Associated with the blood vessels that drain the gut

197
Q

What shape is the colon?

A

Question mark

198
Q

Where are the adrenal glands?

A

They lie craniomedially to their respective kidney

199
Q

Taste buds contain which kind of glands?

A

Serous

200
Q

Why do horses have very large transverse processes?

A

To support the large GI tract

201
Q

Where is the zygomatic salivary gland located?

A

Base of the orbit, medial to zygomatic arch

202
Q

What lies within the palatine fissure?

A

Vomeronasal organ

203
Q

What is the chief function of the dorsal, middle and ventral meatus

A

Dorsal: olfaction (leads to caudal dorsal nasal cavity)
Middle: communicates with maxillary sinus (all sinuses drain through here)
Ventral: main route of inspired air to lungs

204
Q

What is a sinus?

A

An air-filled diverticulum of the nasal cavity

205
Q

What part of the brain needs destroying to cause rapid death?

A

Medulla oblongata (cardiovascular and respiratory centre of brain)

206
Q

Which teeth would the rostral maxillary sinus give access to in the horse?

A

Cheek teeth 4 and 5

207
Q

Name 2 features of the maxillary sinus that make it prone to infection?

A

Frontal sinus drains into it
Close association with the upper cheek teeth, so a tooth root infection could break through the alveolar bone into the maxillary sinus

208
Q

Which nerve innervates the lining of the frontal sinus?

A

Ophthalmic branch of Trigeminal

209
Q

What structure passes through the infraorbital canal? (bony tube within the maxilla)
Where does it exit?

A 
Infraorbital nerve (branch of maxillary trigeminal)
Infraorbital foramen
210
Q

What are the 2 components of a vertebral disc?

A 
Nucleus pulposus (soft centre)
Annulus fibrosis (dense fibrous tissue)
211
Q

Where do dorsal structures of the head drain?

A

Parotid lymph node

212
Q

The initial divisions of the airways branch on what kind of system?
What about the divisions of the peripheral airways?

A

Monopodial-parent bronchus gives off a much smaller daughter bronchus while it only diminishes a little in diameter. Leads to only a small increase in total cross-sectional area. Continues for the first 6 divisions.
Peripheral-Branching gives off 2 equal daughter bronchi. Causes the total cross-sectional area to double at each division, meaning the overall area increases vastly

213
Q

What is the purpose of the structural conformation of the trachea (incomplete rings)?

A

Prevents collapse due to traction forces, whilst allowing it to adjust in length and diameter as the neck moves and the diaphragm contracts

214
Q

Describe the epithelium in the trachea and primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar with goblet cells

215
Q

Describe the epithelium in the large bronchioles

A

Simple ciliated columnar with goblet cells

216
Q

Describe the epithelium in the small bronchioles

A

Simple ciliated cuboidal, no goblet cells

217
Q

Describe the epithelium in the terminal bronchioles

A

Non-ciliated simple cuboidal, no goblet cells. Also have macrophages and clara cells

218
Q

Pharyngeal muscles are all innervated by what?

A

Pharyngeal branches of the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves

219
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

A passage located between the oral cavity and oesophagus and is divided into oral, nasal and laryngeal parts

220
Q

Name the muscles of the larynx

State their functions and innervations

A 
Cricothyroid (tenses the vocal fold) (cranial laryngeal nerve)
Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis (opens the glottis) (caudal laryngeal nerve)
Cricoarytenoideus lateralis (closes the glottis) (caudal laryngeal nerve)
Thyroarytenoideus (constricts the glottis) (caudal laryngeal nerve)
221
Q

Which is the only laryngeal muscle to open the glottis?

What is it innervated by?

A

Cricoarytenoideus dorsalis

Caudal laryngeal nerve (from recurrent laryngeal)

222
Q

What kinds of papillae are found on the tongue?

A

Vallate (4 to 6, arranged in a v, circular, taste buds)
Fungiform (taste buds, involved in heat loss via panting)
Conical (caudal 1/3 tongue, no taste buds)
Foliate (found on the caudal lateral margins, appear as a row of parallel grooves, taste buds)
Filiform (prominent in cat, no taste buds)

223
Q

How do ACE inhibitors work?

A

They lower blood pressure by increasing bradykinin (which causes vasodilation)

224
Q

What are the 2 branches off the caudal mesenteric artery and what do they supply?

A 
Cranial rectal (cranial rectum)
Left colic artery (left colic flexure and descending colon)
225
Q

What is the trigone of the bladder?

A

A smooth triangular region of the internal bladder formed by the 2 ureteral orifices, and the internal urethral orifice

Year 2 Semester 2 (16 decks)

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