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Year 2 Semester 2 > Clinical Skills > Flashcards

Clinical Skills Flashcards

1
Q

Where would you feel for a pulse when assessing circulation prior to CPR?

A

Femoral artery

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2
Q

Where should chest compressions be applied during CPR in narrow-chested dogs?

A

Directly over the heart

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3
Q

In which recumbency should chest compressions be performed during CPR in barrel-chested dogs?

A

Dorsal recumbency

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4
Q

In which recumbency should chest compressions be performed during CPR in small dogs win compliant chests and most cats?

A

Lateral recumbency

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5
Q

How do you achieve the cardiac pump theory in small dogs with compliant chests/most cats? (2)

A
  1. Wrap fingers of one hand around sternum at level of heart

2. Both hands- one under cat and one around sternum at level of heart

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6
Q

How many chest compressions should be performed during CPR?

A

100-120 per minute

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7
Q

How should ventilation be applied during CPR?

A

10 breaths/minute
10ml/kg tidal volume
Use pure oxygen and a reservoir bag from a breathing circuit

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8
Q

When is the only time you use the thoracic pump theory?

A

Round-chested dogs

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9
Q

In which recumbency should chest compressions be performed during CPR in round and narrow-chested dogs?

A

Lateral recumbency

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10
Q

What are the 4 methods of taking a cytological sample?

A

Fine needle (aspirate) biopsy
Impression smear
Tape strip
Swab

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11
Q

When taking a fine-needly biopsy, when would you use aspiration?

A

For tissues with more structure, eg soft tissue sarcoma

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12
Q

When taking a biopsy, when would you not use aspiration?

A

Vascular or soft tissues eg spleen, lymph node

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13
Q

What are some advantages of using fine-needle biopsy technique?

A

Quick
Cheap
Often no sedation required for superficial tissues

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14
Q

What gauge needle would you use when doing a fine needle biopsy?
Why no bigger?

A

22

May cause haemorrhage

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15
Q

When might aseptic preparation of the patient be used?

When wouldnt it?

A

Would=fine needle aspiration of eg liver

Wouldn’t=surface cytologies eg impression smear of skin, as you would be destroying the changes you wish to examine

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16
Q

What are fine needle biopsies used to obtain?

When might they be inappropriate?

A

Small samples of cells from inside organs or masses. Can be done ‘blind’ or with ultrasound guidance (more accurate).
If the patient has a coagulation defect, or in highly vascular masses.

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17
Q

When would you take an impression smear?

A

Ulcerated masses, burst pustules or from the cut surface of a mass
Most useful for highly exfoliative tissues (eg lymph nodes) rather than ones with rigid architecture eg tumours of fibrous tissues (fibromas)

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18
Q

How would you do an impression smear?

A

Gently blot surface of mass to remove blood contamination
Press the cut surface of the sample on to the face of a clean slide
Allow to air-dry

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19
Q

When doing a tape strip examination, how long should the tape be?

A

2cm longer than microscope slide

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20
Q

When staining a tape strip, which stains do you use?

A

Red and blue components of the Diff-Quik stain, as the fixing solution will melt the glue in the tape

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21
Q

What is the optimal body condition score for a dog?

A

4/5 on a 9 point scale.
Ribs easily palpable with minimal fat covering. Waist observed behind ribs when viewed from above.
Abdominal tuck evident

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22
Q

What is the optimal body condition score for a cat?

A 
5 on a 9 point scale
Well proportioned.
Ribs palpable with slight fat covering.
Can observe waist behind ribs.
Abdominal fat pad minimal.
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23
Q

When performing a clinical exam, what should you look at regarding the head?

A

Check musculature, palpate submandibular lymph nodes. Examine oral cavity (mucous membrane colour, capillary refill time, teeth, tongue, tonsils). Check nose (discharge, condition, airflow in each nostril). Eyes (ophthalmoscopy). Examine ears (otoscopy)

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24
Q

Why should you perform heart auscultation in a dog when its standing as opposed to in lateral or dorsal recumbency?

A

Thoracic structures may displace due to gravity when in dorsal/lateral recumbency

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25
Q

Where is the heart located?

A

Close to the sternum between ribs 3 and 6 (count ribs backwards as it is difficult to identify rib 1 and count forwards due to the thoracic limb and pectoral muscle mass). LHS.
Can also use position of the olecranon-when animal is standing square, the olecranon is at the level of the 5th costo-chondral junction
In order to listen to all areas of the heart, the thoracic limb should be drawn forward to pull the triceps muscle mass out of the way

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26
Q

Where are the heart valves located?

A

Pulmonary: LHS ribspace 3
Aortic: LHS ribspace 4
Left atrio-ventricular (mitral valve): LHS ribspace 5
Right atrio-ventricular (tricuspid valve): RHS ribspace 4

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27
Q

What are the 2 parts of a stethoscope?

What can be heard with each part?

A

Bell (head): low frequency sounds

Diaphragm: high frequency sounds

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28
Q

What is percussion?

What should it sound like over the heart and lungs?

A

The technique of placing one finger on the thoracic wall and tapping with another finger to identify areas of dullness, either with or without the stethoscope
Percussing over the lungs will sounds slightly hollow (tympanic) as they are air-filled, but percussing over the heart will sound slightly dull as it is fluid-filled (area of cardiac dullness).

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29
Q

What can percussion be used for?

A

Over the lungs to identify solid masses (tumours or abscesses) and fluid lines in the case of pneumonia and pleural effusions

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30
Q

What is the normal heart rate in a dog?

A

70-160 bpm

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31
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate of a dog?

A

10-30 bpm

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32
Q

Which organs can you palpate in the abdomen?

A

Liver, intestines, spleen, kidneys, bladder

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33
Q

What would you observe before doing an opthalmoscope examination?

A

Is the facial conformation symmetrical? Are the eyelids (including nictitating membrane) in a normal position? Is blinking at a normal rate?
Any discolouration? Any evidence of strabismus or nystagmus (involuntary movement of eyeball from side to side)? Are the pupils symmetrical and the right size for the level of background light?

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34
Q

How would you do an eye exam?

A

1) Hands on, normal light: examine lids, lacrimal punctae, conjunctiva and nictitating membrane. Pupil size. Corneal reflex (reflection of light by cornea, should reflect a smooth sharp image)
2) Hands on, lights off: use a pen torch to exam the eye systemically eg lens, iris, is cornea clear and smooth?
3) Direct ophthalmoscopy, distant then close:
Distant: stand at arms length, hand under animal’s chin. Set ophthalmoscope to +1 or +2D and look straight into pupils to see tapetal reflex (greenish reflection from tapetum)
Close: used to examine the fundus. Look at optic disc and follow the retinal blood vessels that radiate from it

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35
Q

What is close direct ophthalmoscopy used to examine?

What light setting would you have the ophthalmoscope on?

A

Fundus

Between -1 and +1D

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36
Q

Of the mare and cow, which is more likely to experience rectal tears when performing a rectal exam?

A

Mare

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37
Q

When performing a horse rectal exam, how should you insert your arm?

A

Form hand into a cone shape and insert it gently, as horses are at risk of a rectal tear. Remove any faeces. Insert arm slowly up to shoulder then withdraw it halfway, to allow the mare to relax and reduce the likelihood of her straining excessively

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38
Q

Where is the cervix located in the horse (when performing a rectal exam)?
How should it feel?

A

On the floor of the pelvis mid-line

Should feel soft with minimal tone

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39
Q

How do the uterine horns pass in the horse and cow?

A

Horse: dorsally to each side
Cow: ventrally

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40
Q

How is early pregnancy indicated in a horse?

A

Increased uterine tone and a slight enlargement of one side of the uterine horns

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41
Q

How large are the ovaries in a horse in anoestrus and oestrus?

A

Anoestrus: 2-3 by 3-4 cm
Oestrus: 5-6 by 6-10 cm

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42
Q

Why is it difficult to palpate a corpus luteum in a horse?

A

They don’t protrude from the surface of the ovary

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43
Q

Where is the cervix located in the cow?

How does it feel?

A

On the floor of the pelvis, mid-line

Has a meaty feel to it

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44
Q

How should the uterine horns feel in a non-pregnant mare?

What about a non-pregnant cow?

A

Quite flaccid

Fairly firm tone, equal in size

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45
Q

In a non-pregnant cow, how would you pull the uterus into the pelvis?

A

Gently grasp the cervix and pull it dorsally and caudally to bring the uterine bifurcation into the pelvis.
Pass your hand cranially along the cervix until you reach the bifurcation. You should feel the dorsal inter-cornual ligament (fragile). Use this to locate the ventral inter-cornual ligament. Hook your fingers underneath it and pull the rest of the uterus into the pelvis.

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46
Q

When performing a rectal exam on a non-pregnant cow, what do follicles feel like?

A

Like fluid-filled blisters slightly protruding from the surface

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47
Q

When performing a rectal exam on a non-pregnant cow, what does a corpus luteum feel like?

A

A hard protrusion from the ovary

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48
Q

When performing a rectal exam on a non-pregnant cow, what do cystic ovaries feel like?

A

Abnormally large

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49
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what should you avoid doing and why?

A

Avoid palpating the ovaries and aggressive manipulation of the organs as this could result in abortion

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50
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what would you feel at 6 weeks pregnant?

A

Pregnant horn is bouncy and thin-walled
2” diamtere
Non-pregnant horn has no bounce and is thick-walled

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51
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what would you feel at 7 weeks pregnant?

A

Pregnant horn is bouncy and thin-walled
3” diameter
Non-pregnant horn has no bounce and is thick-walled

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52
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what would you feel at 8 weeks pregnant?

A

Both horns are bouncy and thin-walled

3” diameter

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53
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what would you feel at 9 weeks pregnant?

A

There is a bounce in both horns, with the pregnant horn half the size of a small football
Can lightly ballot calf
No cotyledons

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54
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what would you feel at 10 weeks pregnant?

A

Bounce in both horns with pregnant horn the size of a small football
Can ballot calf
No cotyledons

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55
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what would you feel at 11 weeks pregnant?

A

Bounce in both horns with pregnant horn the size of a large football
Can feel calf
Can just feel small cotyledons

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56
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what is the cotyledon size at 3, 4 and 5 months pregnant?

A

3 months= 20mm
4 months= 25mm
5 months= 30mm

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57
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, what is the uterine artery diameter and activity (on the pregnant side) at 3, 4 and 5 months pregnant?

A

3 months= puny and pulsing
4 months= 2-3mm and thrill
5 month= 7-9mm and thrill

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58
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, from when can you feel cotyledons?

A

11 weeks pregnant

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59
Q

When performing a rectal pregnancy diagnosis on a cow, from when can you lightly ballot the calf?

A

9 weeks pregnant

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60
Q

Explain the cardiac pump theory

A

Ventricles directly compressed between sternum and spine (dorsal recumbency) or between ribs (lateral recumbency)
Blood forced out of heart to lungs and periphery
Relaxation of ventricles returns blood to heart from lungs and periphery

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61
Q

Explain the thoracic pump theory

A

Intra-thoracic pressure increased
This compresses the aorta & collapses the vena cava, leading to blood flow out of the thorax
During elastic recoil of the chest decreased intra-thoracic pressure results in blood flow from the periphery back into the thorax and lungs

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62
Q

When doing CPR, how deep should chest compressions be?

A

1/3 to 1/2 width of the thorax

Should allow full elastic recoil of the chest before the next compression

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63
Q

How would you assess a patient prior to doing CPR?

A

ABC
Airways: ensure airways are clear and insert an endotracheal tube. Tie behind canines over nose and inflate cuff
Breathing: watch chest, feel for exhaled breath (fur displacement). If not breathing, start CPR immediately
Circulation: check for femoral pulse. If no pulse, start CPR immediately

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64
Q

What is the purpose of inflating the cuff on an ET tube?

A

Secures tube in place, prevents leakage of respiratory gases

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65
Q

What should the chest compression: ventilation ratio be when applying mouth-to-snout ventilation?

A

30:2

30 compressions, then 2 quick breaths, then 30 compressions etc

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66
Q

CPR should be performed in uninterrupted cycles of how many minutes?

A

2

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67
Q

What are interposed abdominal compressions?

What is a potential problem with this method?

A

Application of abdominal pressure during elastic recoil phase of chest compressions (i.e. interposed with chest compressions)
Abdominal pressure applied with overlapping hands just cranial to the umbilicus
Hand position, depth, rhythm and rate of abdominal compressions are similar to those of chest compressions
Could lacerate liver/spleen if not performed carefully

68
Q

If a fluid is hypertonic (eg 7.5% saline), where is its net movement?

A

From interstitial space to intravascular space

69
Q

What rate of fluid should be given with the bolus technique of fluid administration?
When is this technique used?

A

10ml/kg over 15-30 mins

Given in cases of shock

70
Q

What must you consider when calculating fluids?

A

Maintenance (2ml/kg/hour)
Deficit: % dehydrated (between 5 and 12%) x bodyweight x 1000
Ongoing losses: from diarrhoea/vomiting. To be safe. multiply by 2

71
Q

What are the clinical signs of dehydration which is 5%, 7%, 10% and 12%?

A

5%: normal globe position, sticky to dry mucous membranes, normal skin turgor
7%: mildly depressed demeanour, dry mucous membranes, normal globe position, mildly decreased skin turgor
10%: moderately decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, slightly sunken globe
12%: can tent the skin, deeply sunken globe, dry mucous membranes

72
Q

What is the usual drip volume when setting up fluids?

A

20 drips/ml

73
Q

How do you set up a drip?

A

Attach fluid bag to drip stand
Note volume of drip (20 drips/ml)
Eliminate air bubbles and get fluid running at an appropriate rate
Stop fluid running until ready to attach to catheter

74
Q

What are the 2 methods of performing a cat spay?

A

Flank

Ventral midline

75
Q

What are the pros and cons of performing a flank cat spay?

A

Pros: short recovery time
Cons: if something goes wrong, can’t sort out so must convert to midline

76
Q

What are the pros and cons of performing a ventral midline cat spay?

A 
Pros= full access to abdomen so can deal with any complications
Cons= longer recovery time
77
Q

How are the ovaries attached to the dorsal body wall?

A

Suspensory and ovarian ligaments

78
Q

What other organs lie around the uterus (cat spay)?

A

Colon is most dorsal, then uterus, then small intestine, then bladder is most ventral

79
Q

How is the uterus located in a ventral midline cat spay?

A

By displacing the bladder caudally and the small intestine cranially

80
Q

Describe a ventral midline cat spay

A

Make incision down linea alba, caudal to umbilicus. Displace bladder caudally and small intestine cranially. Grab first horn with dressing forceps (tissue may puncture organs). Pull horn out until ovary is exteriorised. Ligate ovarian and suspensory ligaments using 3 clamp technique. (Tie ligature into groove left by bottom clamp). Cut ligaments between middle and top clamps. Check for bleeding while holding ovarian pedicle. Repeat for other side.
Pull uterine horns caudally to expose cervix. Double clamp cervix and ligate below clamps with a transfixion ligature. Cut between clamps. Ensure both ovaries are removed. Firmly grasp cervical stump with tissue forceps and release clamp to check for bleeding.

81
Q

How is the first uterine horn located in a flank cat spay?

A

Left horn should be lying immediately below lateral abdominal wall incision.

82
Q

When do carnivores have all their juvenile and adult teeth by?

A

Juvenile: 5 weeks
Adult: 7 months

83
Q

Do carnivores or herbivores have deciduous molars?

A

No

84
Q

When do carnivores get their deciduous canines and incisors?

When do they get their permanent incisors?

A

4 weeks old

3-4 months old

85
Q

What is the carnassial tooth in carnivores?

A

Pre-molar 4

86
Q

What are the deciduous and adult dental formulae for cats?

A

Deciduous: I3/3 C1/1 P3/2

Adult: I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1

87
Q

What are the deciduous and adult dental formulae for dogs?

A

Deciduous: I3/3 C1/1 P3/3

Adult: I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3

88
Q

What is the function of canines, incisors, and premolars and molars in carnivores?

A

Canines: sharp, catching and killing prey
Incisors: nibbling meat off bones
Premolars and molars: slicing meat

89
Q

Which are the only teeth in carnivores to have 3 roots?

A

Dog: 08, 09 maxillary
Cat: 08 maxillary

90
Q

How long should you spend polishing each tooth (carnivore dental)?

A

2-3 seconds

91
Q

How often should a horse have a dental exam?

A

Annually until 12 years, then every 6 months

92
Q

Sharp points are normal on horses teeth if they point which way?

A

Vertically-if horizontally, can cut into horse’s cheek

93
Q

What is the horse dentition formula?

A

I3/3 C1/1 (or 0/0) PM3/3 (or 4/4) M3/3

94
Q

What are tushes? (horse)

Where do they erupt?

A

Canines (not always present)

Erupt halfway along diastema

95
Q

What are wolf teeth (horse)?

A

First pre-molar

Not always present

96
Q

What is meant by anisognathia? (horse)

A

Mandible is narrower than maxilla

97
Q

What are the cups filled with in equine teeth?

A

Cementum

98
Q

Equine incisors become more angular from how old?

A

10 years old

99
Q

What should be done prior to rasping?

A

Mouth should be flushed out with 0.9% saline solution to remove food debris

100
Q

Which aspect of the horse’s mouth should be rasped prior to inserting the gag?
Why?

A

Buccal angle of the upper cheek teeth, to prevent sharp points damaging the buccal mucosa when the cheeks are drawn tight against the teeth

101
Q

Why, when taking blood/inserting a catheter into the forelimb, do you move the vein into midline?

A

The cephalic vein naturally lies slightly laterally, so you move it midline for easier access

102
Q

What does CPR stand for?

A

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

103
Q

What are the 4 parts of a clinical exam?

A 
SOAP
Subjective: history, BCS, demeanour, gait, signalment (breed, age, sex)
Objective: physical examination
Assessment: analyse your findings
Plan: plan what to do next
104
Q

What are the 2 types of breathing circuits?

A

Re-breathing (patient re-breathes expired gas, contains higher levels of CO2 which must be extracted before patient rebreathes expired gas. Economical but high resistance, therefore only suitable for patients over 25kg)
Non re-breathing (expired gas is flushed out of circuit uneconomical but low resistance, therefore suitable for patients under 25kg)

105
Q

What are the 2 non-rebreathing circuit modifications and which mapleson circuits are they modifications of?

A 
Parallel lack (Mapleson A, 2 parallel tubes)
Co-axial Bain (Mapleson D, fresh gas tube is within expired gas tube)
106
Q

What is minute volume? (anaesthetic equipment)

What is a good approximation of this?

A

Volume of gas expired per minute

200ml/kg/min

107
Q

What is a consequence of having a flow rate that’s too high?

A

Wasteful- fresh gas is wasted

108
Q

What is a consequence of having a flow rate that’s very/too low?

A

Alveolar gas is not flushed out, dangerous to breathe back in

109
Q

What is a consequence of having a flow rate that’s slightly low?

A

There is some dead space gas, but this is acceptable

110
Q

By how many times must flow rate exceed minute volume? (Mapleson A, D, F)

A

A: 1 x minute volume
D: 2 to 2.5 x minute volume
F: 2.5 to 3 x minute volume

111
Q

In terms of anaesthesia, why is an inhalational agent safer than an intravenous agent?

A

Intravenous agents require metabolism (usually by liver) to deactivate the agent and allow the animal to regain consciousness.
However, with an inhalational agent, just stopping delivery of the inhalational agent allows the animal to regain consciousness

112
Q

Rebreathing circuits are only suitable for patients weighing how much? Why?

A

Over 25kg

High resistance in circuit

113
Q

Parallel lack is a modification of which non-rebreathing circuit?

A

Mapleson A

114
Q

What are the 5 principal components of an anaesthetic machine?

A
  1. Fresh gas supply (oxygen)
  2. Flow meter with bypass valve (to deliver fresh oxygen without inhalational agent direct to the patient in case of emergency)
  3. A vaporiser (mixes an appropriate controlled level of inhalational agent with oxygen to maintain general anaesthesia)
  4. A breathing circuit with a pressure relief valve (interface between patient and anaesthetic machine)
  5. A scavenging system to remove exhaled gases away from the vet’s environment
115
Q

What removes CO2 from expired gas so it is safe to be re-breathed?

A

Soda-lime cannister

116
Q

What are the 5 principle components of a breathing circuit?

A
  1. Adapter that connects to an endotracheal tube
  2. Expiratory valve (Adjustable Pressure-Limiting valve)
  3. Reservoir bag to allow for intermittent positive pressure ventilation should the patient stop breathing
  4. Fresh gas tubing
  5. Expired gas tubing
117
Q

How are the lungs bordered?

A 
Dorsally by the vertebral column
Ventrally by the sternum
Cranially by the thoracic limb
Caudally by the diaphragm
Laterally by the ribcage
118
Q

Explain the 2 heart sound: ‘lubb’ ‘dupp’

A

‘Lubb’: S1. Just after the AV valves close, blood rebounds off the closed valves and ventricular walls, and accelerates into the aorta and pulmonary artery. Ventricular systole.
‘Dupp’: S2. Pulmonary and aortic valves close and blood reverberates in the great vessels. Ventricular diastole follows.

119
Q

Which respiratory sound has a louder, higher-pitched expiratory sound?

A

Tracheal (normal)

120
Q

Which respiratory sound can be described as wind rustling through trees, with a louder and higher-pitched inspiratory sound?

A

Vesicular (normal)

Emanates from the alveoli.

121
Q

What is the normal temperature for a dog or cat?

A

100-101 degrees F

122
Q

Name the peripheral lymph nodes you can palpate?

A

Parotid, retropharyngeal, mandibular, prescapular, accessory axillary, popliteal

123
Q

When doing an ear exam, what should you do to the pinna?

A

Extend it to straighten the ben in the ear canal

Ideally the tympanic membrane should be visualised (not always possible in conscious patients)

124
Q

How does atrial fibrillation sound on a heart exam?

A

Irregular

125
Q

What kins of teeth do horses and rabbits have?

A

Hypsodont-erupt continuously

126
Q

What do deciduous horse incisors look like?

A

Small and white with small ridges on the labial surface

127
Q

When are wolf teeth shed?

A

About 2.5 years old

128
Q

What are the layers of an incisor tooth of a horse?

A

Cementum (outer), then enamel and dentine surrounding a central depression filled with cementum (infundibulum)
When the infundibulum is empty, it is referred to as a cup. When it is filled in, it is known as a mark.

129
Q

When do cups and marks disappear in equine incisors?

A

Cups disappear Marks disappear
Incisor 1 6-7 yrs 15 yrs
Incisor 2 7-11 yrs 16 yrs
Incisor 3 9-15 yrs 17 yrs

130
Q

Where is a dental star found?

A

Labial aspect of the tooth
Begins fairly linear then becomes more round and central as wear progresses. After a few years, a white spot appears in the middle.

131
Q

When do dental stars and white spots appear in equine incisors?

A

Dental star White spot
Incisor 1 5 yrs 8 yrs
Incisor 2 6 yrs 9 yrs
Incisor 3 7 yrs 9-15 yrs

132
Q

When does Galvayne’s groove appear and where?

A

Incisor 3, from 11 years

133
Q

Where is the buccal curve widest?

A

Tooth 9/10

134
Q

How many roots do horse maxillary and mandibular teeth have?

A

Maxillary: 3 roots
Mandibular: 2 roots

135
Q

What do the following symbols mean in a dental chart: # black rectangle C A GR X RT P

A 
# = fractured 
black rectangle = missing 
C = cavity 
A = abscess 
GR = gingival recession
X = extracted tooth
RT = retained temporary tooth
P = periodontal pocket
136
Q

How should a horse be examined prior to having a dental?

A

Examined for facial symmetry, the inter-mandibular space should be palpated for swelling, parotid salivary glands and submandibular lymph nodes should be palpated for swelling, cheeks palpated over teeth for any discomfort, and the lateral movement of the mandible assessed.

137
Q

What should be done to the bars (diastemata) of the horses mouth when doing a dental exam?

A

Palpate them for any discomfort, ulcers, or any unerupted teeth (canines or wolf teeth)

138
Q

How would you do a horse dental exam?

A

Examine all teeth and soft tissues visually and manually. Use a dental mirror to examine all surfaces. Check for cavities and open pulp with a probe. Examine periodontal pockets with a graded probe and record depth. Asses mobility of teeth. Assess upper cheek teeth manually to ensure all sharp points have been removed.

139
Q

What should you do after finishing a horse dental exam?

A

Flush mouth with dilute chlorhexidine solution to remove dental dust

140
Q

What should you do regarding contractions if you have your hand inside a mare or cow?

A

Mare: If contraction occurs, withdraw hand with the contraction
Cow: Wait for contraction to pass before continuing

141
Q

What must you do before you insert your hand into a horse?

A

Move tail to one side. In practice you would apply a tail bandage to keep it clean.

142
Q

Why might the vet examine cytology samples in-house rather than send them away externally?

A 
Finances (client may not have much money)
Time pressure (may want an immediate diagnosis) 
May also do in-house as well as external examination, to assess the quality of the specimen before sending it away
143
Q

What sized syringe would you use when doing a fine-needle biopsy?

A

5ml

144
Q

Where on a blood smear is the area of the smear where the cells are best preserved?

A

Zone of morphology (between the body and tail of the smear)

145
Q

How much O2 should be given during anaesthetic:
Until animal is stable
Maintenance

A

Until animal is stable: 2-3l/min

Maintenance: 0.5-1l/min

146
Q

Where should chest compressions be applied in round-chested dogs?

A

Over widest portion of chest

Thoracic pump theory

147
Q

The Suspensory ligament of the ovary contains what?

A

Ovarian artery and vein

148
Q

Why is the left ovary usually removed before the right during a cat spay?

A

The left kidney is more caudal, so the left ovary is easier to access

149
Q

The Suspensory ligament attaches the ovary to what?

A

Dorsal abdominal cavity

Spans from the ovary to the ribcage

150
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

The volume of gas inspired or expired in a single breath during regular breathing/at rest

151
Q

A positive tracheal pinch test is suggestive of what?

A

Irritation or compression of the large airways

152
Q

What is the purpose of the subcutaneous suture layer?

A

To appose skin edges together so that skin sutures will be under minimal tension
To close dead space, by incorporating subcutaneous tissue and fat

153
Q

What is a supernumerary tooth?

A

An additional tooth

154
Q

What is the dental formula for a rabbit?

A

I2/1 C0/0 PM3/2 M3/3

155
Q

What kind of teeth do horses and rabbits have?

A

Hypsodont (erupt continuously)

156
Q

What do deciduous horse incisors look like?

A

Small and white with ridges on the labial surface

157
Q

When are horse wolf teeth shed?

A

2.5 years old

158
Q

In horse teeth, why does the pulp cavity produce secondary dentine?

A

To prevent exposure of the sensitive pulp

Creates a dental star

159
Q

What colour is the dental star usually?

A

Brown due to discolouration with food pigments

After a few years, a white spot appears in the middle due to differently arranged dentine tubules

160
Q

What is a mark?

A

A cup that appears filled in

161
Q

When are marks usually gone by?

A

Late teens

162
Q

When are Galvayne’s grooves completely worm out by?

A

30 years

163
Q

When does the length of a horses incisor equal the width?

A

9 years old, tooth is ‘square’

After 9 years, height is greater than width and tooth is ‘oblong’

164
Q

By when have a horses permanent incisors erupted by?

A

5

165
Q

How old is a horse if there is a dental star on all incisors?

A

At least 8 years old

166
Q

How old is a horse if the dental cup is worn out on all incisors?

A

At least 10 years old

167
Q

What is a quick way to remember foal incisor eruption?

A

666
6 days= incisor 1
6 weeks= incisor 2
6 months= incisor 3

Year 2 Semester 2 (16 decks)

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