Special Senses Flashcards

1
Q

What should IOP (intraocular pressure) be?

A

11-21 mmHg

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2
Q

How is IOP measured

A

with a tonometer

force needed to flatten the corneal surface

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3
Q

What is ocular HTN

A

raised IOP (>21mmHg) without developing the changes of glaucoma.

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4
Q

define the anterior chamber of the eye

A

between the iris and the cornea’s innermost surface, the endothelium.

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5
Q

How is aqueous humour made

A

produced by the ciliary bodies

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6
Q

Describe the passage of aqueous humour through the anterior chamber

A
made in ciliary body
passes posterior to iris, anterior to the lens, and then through pupil
flows out via trabecular meshwork
then canal of Schlemm
then episcleral vessels
then systemic venous circulation

also the uveoscleral route:
instead drains into root of iris/ciliary muscle before draining into scleral vascular system

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7
Q

What is acute angle closure glaucoma

A

there is a junction between the iris and cornea at the periphery of the anterior chamber = the anterior chamber angle.

the iris can become apposed to the trabecular meshwork and so block off the aqueous drainage.

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8
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary angle closure glaucoma

A

primary = as a consequence of the anatomy of the eye: some people’s angles are naturally very narrow which makes the angle more vulnerable to blocking off. Severe hypermetropes, advanced age, asian

secondary = as a result of forces exerted on the iris either anteriorly or posteriorly (eg, the lens bulging forward as a result of swelling) or blockage, as a result of the trabecular meshwork being blocked by matter such as blood (from a hyphaema), blood vessels (from poorly controlled advanced diabetic eye disease) or proteins (as seen in hypertensive uveitis).

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9
Q

Describe the control of aqueous humour production

A

autonomic - adrenergic

alpha 2 - stimulation reduces aqueous production and increases uveoscleral outflow, leading to fall in IOP

beta 2 - stimulation increases aqueous producion adn therefore increases IOP

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

Pain - this is severe and rapidly progressive.
Blurred vision (rapidly progressing to visual loss).
Coloured haloes around lights.
N+V

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11
Q

What situations can precipitate acute angle closure? Why?

A

during a moment of stress or excitement,
whilst watching TV in dim lighting conditions
after topical mydriatics or systemic anticholinergics.

due to pupillary block. - The mid-dilated pupil snags on to the lens, so causing a build-up of aqueous beneath it which further pushes the iris forward, so eventually blocking off the trabecular meshwork.

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12
Q

Give some signs of acute angle closure glaucoma

A

generally unwell.
red eye - more marked around the periphery of the cornea.
There is a hazy cornea
non-reactive (or minimally reactive) mid-dilated pupil.
Globe hard on palpation

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13
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for angle closure glaucoma

A

History of at least 2 of:

Ocular pain.
Nausea/vomiting.
History of intermittent blurring of vision with haloes

AND
at least three of the following signs:
IOP greater than 21 mm Hg (clinically this can mean a stony hard pupil).
Conjunctival injection.
Corneal epithelial oedema.
Mid-dilated non-reactive pupil.
Shallow chamber in the presence of occlusion.

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14
Q

How is angle closure glaucoma managed pharmacologically

A

give all topical glaucoma medications that are not contra-indicated in the patient, together with intravenous acetazolamide. Patients are lain supine.

Topical agents inlude:
Beta-blockers - eg, timolol, cautioned in asthma.
Steroids - prednisolone 15 every 15 minutes for an hour, then hourly.
Pilocarpine 1-2% (in patients with their natural lens).
Phenylephrine 2.5% (in patients who do not have their own lens).
Acetazolamide is given intravenously (500 mg over 10 minutes) and a further 250 mg slow-release tablet after one hour - check for sulfonamide allergy and sickle cell disease/trait.

Offer systemic analgesia ± antiemetics.

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15
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of beta blockers on the eye eg. timolol

A

reduce production of aqueous by ciliary body

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16
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of alpha agonists on the eye eg. apraclonidine

A

reduced production of aqueous by ciliary body

increased outflow via uveoscleral tract

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17
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of prostaglandin analogues on the eye eg. latanoprost

A

increase uveoscleral outflow

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18
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors on the eye eg. acetazolamide

A

decrease production aqueous

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19
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of parasympathomimetics on the eye eg. pilocarpine

A

increases outflow of aqueous by ciliary muscle contraction, opening trabecular network

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20
Q

How is angle closure glaucoma managed surgically

A

Peripheral iridotomy (PI) - this refers to (usually two) holes made in each iris with a laser, usually at around the 11 and 2 o’clock positions. This is to provide a free-flow transit passage for the aqueous. Both eyes are treated, as the fellow eye will be predisposed to an AAC attack too

Surgical iridectomy - this is carried out where PI is not possible.

Lensectomy - one of the few situations where cataract surgery is performed on an urgent basis is when the cataractous lens has swollen to precipitate an attack of AAC. The lens is extracted at the earliest opportunity.

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21
Q

Give some complications of angle closure glaucoma

A

permanent loss of vision,
repetition of the acute attack,
attack in the fellow eye
central retinal artery or vein occlusion

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22
Q

Give some risk factors for open angle glaucoma

A
age >65
Family history 
Race - it is three to four times more common in Afro-Caribbean people
Ocular hypertension
myopia (short-sightedness) 
retinal disease (eg, central retinal vein occlusion, retinal detachment and retinitis pigmentosa)
Diabetes a
systemic hypertension
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23
Q

Describe briefly the pathophysiology of open angle glaucoma

A

The primary problem in glaucoma is disease of the optic nerve.
there is a progressive loss of retinal ganglion cells and their axons. (optic neuropathy)
associated with a raised IOP
flow is reduced through the trabecular meshwork

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24
Q

How does open angle glaucoma present?

A

most people are asymptomatic, because initial visual loss is to peripheral vision and the field of vision is covered by the other eye,

patients do not notice visual loss until severe and permanent damage has occurred, often impacting on central (foveal) vision.

Open-angle glaucoma may be detected on checking the IOPs and visual fields of those with affected relatives.

Suspicion may arise if abnormal discs, IOPs or visual fields are noted.

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25
Q

How is the eye examined for potential open angle glaucoma

A

Gonioscopy - used to measure the angle between the cornea and the iris

Corneal thickness - this influences the IOP reading. If it is thicker than usual, it will take greater force to indent the cornea and an erroneously high reading will be obtained.

Tonometry

Optic disc examination - this is a direct marker of disease progression. Optic disc damage is assessed by looking at the cup:disc ratio: normal is 0.3, although it can be up to 0.7 in some normal people: Glaucoma is suggested by an increase in cupping with time, rather than by cupping alone.

Visual fields

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26
Q

Hoe is the cupping of the optic disc measured?

A
cup = bright bit in middle
disc = dark bit around it

cup radius:disc radius

increased = more than 0.3

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27
Q

Do I need to inform the DVLA if my patient has glaucoma

A

The onus is on the patient to inform the DVLA (and it is important to document that you have advised them of this).

It is the DVLA (and approved opticians) who will assess the visual fields and decide whether a patient can continue to drive.

If you are concerned that the patient should not drive and has not told the DVLA (despite your clear advice to do so), it may be appropriate to inform the DVLA medical advisors

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28
Q

What treatments are available for open angle glaucoma

A

drugs to reduce IOP - beta blockers, alpha agonists, sympathomimetics, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, miotics

laser - Argon laser trabeculoplasty (ALT) (lasering to the trabecular meshwork in the iridocorneal angle, so enhancing aqueous outflow), Selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT)

surgery - trabeculectomy, artificial shunt, canaloplasty

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29
Q

What is AMD

A

age-related macular degeneration
changes, which occur in the central area of the retina (macula) in people aged 55 years and above.
without any other obvious precipitating cause,

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30
Q

What are the key findings on examination of the retina in AMD

A

drusen

dry - hypo/hyperpigmentation of RPE, geographic atropy
wet - neovascularisation

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31
Q

What are drusen

A

lipid and protein deposits beneath the RPE in AMD

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32
Q

How is the severity of AMD classified

A

No AMD: none or a few small drusen.

Early AMD: multiple small or a few intermediate drusen +/- abnormalities of the RPE.

Intermediate AMD: extensive intermediate or one or more large drusen +/- GA not involving the fovea.

Advanced AMD: GA involving the fovea +/- any features of wet AMD.

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33
Q

What are the risk factors for AMD

A

smoking
age
FH/genetics

cardiovascular
obesity

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34
Q

What are the symptoms of AMD

A

may be no symptoms at first if only one eye is affected! - other eye compensates

Painless deterioration or blurring of central vision, typically in a person aged 55 or more.
Metamorphopsia — distortion of vision, where straight lines (such as window blinds) appear crooked, wavy or bent.
Scotoma — the person may describe a black or grey patch affecting their central field of vision.

Light glare.
Loss of (or decreased) contrast sensitivity (the ability to discern between different shades).
Size or colour of objects appearing different with each eye.
Abnormal dark adaptation (difficulty adjusting from bright to dim lighting).
Photopsia — a perception of flickering or flashing lights.
Visual hallucinations (Charles Bonnet syndrome).

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35
Q

Give some differences in the presentation of dry and wet AMD

A

dry:
gradual visual deterioration
difficulty with reading, initially with the smallest sizes of print and then later with larger print.

wet:
visual deterioration can develop quickly.
central vision blurring and distortion
A person may suddenly become unable to read, drive, and see fine detail such as facial expressions and features.

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36
Q

Give some differentials for AMD

A
refractive error
cataracts
open angle glaucoma
retinal detachment
amaurosis fugax
diabetic maculopathy
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37
Q

What investigations should be done in AMD

A

test visual acuity
Amsler grid - distortion
slit lamp

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38
Q

What management is needed for dry AMD

A

urgent referral within one week to specialist services

no specific treatment

stop smoking - reduces risk of progression
multivitamins if intermediate or advanced - reduces risk of progression
visual rehabilitation
treat other visual problems to make vision as good as possible

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39
Q

What management can be given for wet AMD. Why does it work and how is it given

A

anti-VEGF
VEGF acts as a proangiogenic growth factor and stimulates permeability of blood vessels

given by intravitreal injections one a month for 3 months. continued if beneficial

in most people it stops progression. in a few it even improves vision!

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40
Q

Give some examples of anti-VEGF meds

A

ranibizumab

aflibercept

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41
Q

What causes diabetic retinopathy

A

microvascular occlusion leads to retinal ischaemia. leads to formation of AV shunts and neovascularisation

leakage from vessels leads to intraretinal haemorrhage and oedema

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42
Q

What are the key features of DR on visualisation of the retina

A

Microaneurysms
Hard exudates - precipitates of lipoproteins
Haemorrhages
Cotton wool spots - build-up of axonal debris due to poor axonal metabolism at the margins of ischaemic infarcts.
Neovascularisation

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43
Q

Define the stages of diabetic retinopathy

A

Background (mild) non-proliferative DR: at least one microaneurysm.

Moderate non-proliferative DR: microaneurysms or intraretinal haemorrhages ± cotton wool spots, venous beading, intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMAs).

Severe to very severe non-proliferative DR (sometimes referred to as pre-proliferative disease), as above: blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms in 4 quadrants
venous beading in at least 2 quadrants
IRMA in at least 1 quadrant

Non-high-risk proliferative DR: new vessels on the disc (NVD) - or within one disc diameter of it or new vessels elsewhere (NVE).

High-risk proliferative DR: large NVD or NVE (defined by comparing to the optic disc surface area) or presence of pre-retinal haemorrhage. In advanced disease, there may also be an accompanying retinal detachment.

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44
Q

Define the stages of diabetic maculopathy

A

Focal or diffuse macular oedema: areas of leakage which may be well circumscribed or diffuse.

Ischaemic maculopathy: the clinical appearance may be relatively normal but the visual acuity has dropped and ischaemia is seen on fluorescein angiography.

Clinically significant macular oedema (CSMO): there may be thickening of the retina and hard exudates which, when found within a specific distance of the fovea or when found to be above a certain size, define CSMO.

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45
Q

What are the risk factors for DR

A

poor glycaemic control
HTN
renal disease
pregnancy - may cause fast progression

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46
Q

What might a patient with DR notice about their vision

A

asymptomatic
painless gradual deterioration of central vision
dark painless floaters - due to haemorrhages

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47
Q

How should a patient with DR be examined

A

acuity test
slit lamp
dilated fundal photographs

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48
Q

Describe the screening program for diabetic retinopathy

A

visual acuity and fundal photography at diagnosis of T1/T2DM
retested every year
starts at 12 years old

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49
Q

What symptoms in a patient with DR would require an emergency review?

A

Sudden loss of vision.
Rubeosis iridis (formation of abnormal blood vessels on the anterior iris).
Pre-retinal or vitreous haemorrhage.
Retinal detachment

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50
Q

State primary prevention methods for DR

A
glycaemic control - <7%
blood pressure control <140/90 (<130 if DR established)
lipid control
smoking cessation
balanced diet
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51
Q

When might treatment be offered in DR

A

no clear cut lines

proliferative or maculopathy can be offered treatment

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52
Q

What treatments are available for DR

A

laser treatment
intravitreal corticosteroids
anti-VEGF
surgery - vitrectomy if intravitreal bleed

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53
Q

What does laser treatment for DR help with

A

induces regression of new blood vessels
reduces central macular thickening

arrests progression, but does not restore sight

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54
Q

What are some causes of sudden painless loss of vision

A
retinal artery occlusion
retinal vein occlusion
retinal detachment
vitreous haemorrhage
ischaemic optic neuropathy
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55
Q

Describe how retinal vein occlusion leads to the loss of vision

A

vein occluded due to formation of thrombus, external compression or disease of vein wall
leads to ischaemic damage to retina
VEGF leads to neovascularisation and haemorrhages

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56
Q

What is the difference between branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) and central retinal vein occlusion

A

branch - more common. only part of retina affected

central - can be non-ischaemic or ischaemic. affects whole of retina

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57
Q

What are the symptoms of BRVO

A

unilateral painless loss of vision
metamorphopsia - linear objects look curvy or rounded.
visual field defects

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58
Q

What is found on examination in BRVO

A

vascular dilatation
tortuosity of vessels
haemorrhages in one area
no RAPD

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59
Q

What is the management of BRVO

A

urgent r/v with opthalmologist
panretinal photocoagulation laser treatment if macular oedema or neovascularisation
triamciolone

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60
Q

What are the risk factors for retinal vein occlusion

A
age
HTN
hyperlipidaemia
diabetes
smoking
obesity
raised IOP
sarcoidosis
hyperviscosity
thrombophilia
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61
Q

What is the diffrence between non-ischaemic and ischaemic CRVO in terms of outcome

A
non-ischaemic = milder and more common. most resolve fully. 
ischaemic = severe. can end up with painful eye and severe visual impairment
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62
Q

What are the symptoms of CRVO

A

sudden unilateral painless loss of vusion or blurred vision

often on waking

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63
Q

What is found on examination of CRVO

A

non-ischaemic - mild or absent RAPD, dot blot and flame haemorrhages everywhere

ischaemic - severe visual impairment, marked RAPD, disc oedema, haemorrhages!

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64
Q

What is a RAPD and how is it seen

A

relative afferent pupillary defect

if left eye affected:
light shone in right eye, both pupils constrict
light shone in left eye, both pupils dilate
light shone in right eye, both pupils constrict

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65
Q

What can cause a retinal artery occlusion

A

most commonly:
embolism - from AF or carotids
vasoobliteration
vascular compression

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66
Q

Where is the occlusion in CRAO? What defect does this cause?

A

in the central retinal artery before it branches as it emerges from the optic nerve
affects whole of retina
macula can be preserved due to blood supply from choroid

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67
Q

What is found on examination in CRAO

A
unilateral acute painless loss of vision
history of amaurosis fugax
RAPD
pale retina
attenuation of vessel
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68
Q

What systemic examination needs to be done in CRAO

A

pulse - AF
BP
carotid bruits
heart murmurs

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69
Q

What is the management of CRAO

A

nothing is proven to improve!

firm ocular massage
reduce IOP
dilation of artery

also: reduce RF, carotid endarterctomy, low vision aid clinics, notify DVLA

70
Q

What is branch retinal artery occlusion

A

only one branch of the retinal artery affected

leads to segmental loss of vision

71
Q

What is retinal detachment

A

separation of inner neurosensory retina from underlying RPE (retinal pigment epithelium)
therefore fluid can accumulate in the subretinal spae

72
Q

What types of retinal detachment are there

A

rhegmatogenous
exudative
tractional

73
Q

Describe the cause of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

A
age related shrinking of vitreous leads to posterior vitreous detachment
causes traction on retina
retinal tear
fluid vitreous seeps under retina
leads to detachment
74
Q

Describe the cause of exudative retinal detachment

A

leakage of fluid into subretinal space due to inflammation or malignancy

75
Q

Describe the cause of tractional retinal detachment

A

abnormal vasculature (eg due to proliferative diabetic retinopathy) leads to contraction of vitreous, so retina is pulled away. there is no retinal break.

76
Q

What are the symptoms of retinal detachment

A

floaters and flashes
sudden onset painless progressive visual loss
dark curtain or shadow starts peripherally and moves centrally

77
Q

What is found on examination in retinal detachment

A

RAPD
altered red reflex - grey/folded appearance
reduced acuity - if macula involved
visual field defects
can see the detached retina on fundal examination

78
Q

What is the management of retinal detachment

A

URGENT if macula on as sight can be preserved.

cryotherapy/laser photocoagulation for retinal ters and holes
surgery toclose any retinal tears or holes, reduce vitreous traction, and reattach the retina: vitrectomy, Scleral buckling, Pneumatic retinopexy

79
Q

What is a vitreous haemorrhage

A

bleeding into the vitreous humour

80
Q

What are the most common causes of vitreous haemorrhage

A

proliferatve diabetic retinopathy
posterior vitreous detachment
ocular trauma

81
Q

What are the symptoms of vitreous haemorrhage

A

sudden painless visual loss or haze
red hue
floaters
worse in the morning - due to blood settling on the macula during sleep

82
Q

What is giant cell arteritis

A

also known as temporal arteritis
medium and large vessel vasculitis
granulomatous inflammation of extracranial branches of carotid artery and opthalmic artery

83
Q

Which disease is associated with giant cell arteritis

A

polymylagia rheumatica - bilateral upper arm stiffness, aching, and tenderness; pelvic girdle pain

84
Q

What are the risk factors for GCA

A

european
>50
genetics

85
Q

What are the symptoms of GCA

A
temporal headache
myalgia
malaise
fever
scalp tenderness
intermittent jaw claudication
sudden painless loss of vision in eye
double vision
visual field defects
86
Q

What can be seen on fundoscopy in GCA if the eye is affected

A

pallor and oedema of optic disc
cotton wool spots
small haemorrhages

87
Q

What can be felt on examination of the temporal artery in GCA

A

prominent
beaded
tender on palpation
pulseless

88
Q

What investigations should be done in GCA

A

ESR FBC LFT

biopsy of temporal artery

89
Q

What are the likely blood test results in GCA

A

raised ESR >50
normocytic normochromic anaemia
raised platelets
raised ALP

90
Q

What is seen on biopsy in GCA

A

predominance of mononuclear cell infiltration or granulomatous inflammation, usually with multinucleated giant cells.

91
Q

What is the management of GCA

A

urgent referral to specialist

40mg prednisolone PO
60mg if jaw claudiation
IV methyprednisolone if eye involvement
low dose aspirin + PPI

92
Q

What is the long term management of GCA

A

reduced steroids gradually, check response
consider osteoporosis prophyaxis
blue steroid card
monitor symptoms and ESR/CRP, and blood pressure and glucose every 3m

93
Q

What is a cataract

A

an opacity (cloudy area) that forms within the lens of an eye which can reduce the transparency of the lens

opacity is due to deposition of aggregated proteins or yellow/brown pigment of ageing

94
Q

State the different locations of cataracts

A

Nuclear cataracts - in the central (nuclear) part of the lens.
Cortical cataracts - in the outer (cortical) layer of the lens.
Subcapsular cataracts -directly under the lens capsule and can be anterior or posterior.

95
Q

What is the difference between a congenital and developmental cataract

A

congenital = at birth or <1yr

developmental - after infancy

96
Q

What are the risk factors for cataracts

A

DM
systemic steroids
smoking

ageing
trauma
atopic dermatitis
UVB exposure
malnutrition
97
Q

What are the risk factors for congenital cataracts

A
heriditary
rubella
VZV
CMV
HSV
Down's syndrome
Edward's syndrome
98
Q

What are the symptoms of cataracts

A
gradual and painless reduction in visual acuity.
gradual difficulty in:
Reading.
Recognizing faces.
Watching television.

glare (difficulty seeing in the presence of bright light).
Gradual reduction in perception of colour intensity.
Frequent changes of spectacle prescription caused by refractive changes due to cataracts developing.
Double vision in one eye (monocular diplopia).

99
Q

What are the signs of cataracts

A

reduction in acuity
opacity visible in lens
dark defects in red reflex

100
Q

What are the signs of a congenital cataract

A
opacity visible in lens
dark defects in red reflex
white/grey pupil
nystagmus
strabismus
sensitivity to light
101
Q

How are cataracts managed?

A

surgery!

extracapsular lens extraction and phacoemulsification of lens

102
Q

What is strabismus?

A

misalignment of the visual axes - both eyes are not directed at an object at the same time.

103
Q

What is the difference between a manifest and latent squint

A

A manifest squint (a ‘tropia’): present when the eyes are open and being used so that when one eye views the object of interest, the other eye is deviated.

A latent squint (a ‘phoria’): a squint that is present only when the use of the two eyes together is interrupted (‘dissociated’). For example, by covering one eye.

104
Q

What is the difference between an esotropia and an exotropia

A

esotropia = convergent squint, towards midline

exotropia = divergent squint, away from midline

105
Q

What is the difference between a concomitant and an incomitant squint

A

concomitant = direction of gaze does not alter size of the deviation

incomitant = direction of gaze does affect the size, or indeed presence, of the squint. due to paralysis of ocular muscles

106
Q

What are the potential causes of strabismus

A
idiopathic
refractive errots
retinoblastoma
amblyopia
cerebral palsy
CN palsies
107
Q

What is amblyopia

A

decrease of vision arising from dysfunctional processing of visual information
due to degradation of the retinal image during a sensitive period of visual development.

108
Q

What can cause amblyopia

A

strabismus (squint) results in amblyopia because the images at the fovea are different.

bilateral moderate-to-high refractive errors

differences in refraction cause one image to be more blurred than the other, leading to amblyopia on that side.

uncorrected astigmatism in one eye

deprivation or physical obstruction of the image (for example, by a cataract or marked ptosis

109
Q

How can a manifest squint be detected on examination

A

cover test

look at object.
cover unaffected eye
affected eye moves to look at object

110
Q

How can a latent squint be detected on examination

A

cover uncover test

look at object
cover the affected eye for 3 secs
uncover eye and look for movement
affected eye will move back to look at object if latent squint

111
Q

What examination should be done when assessing a aquint

A

cover/uncover
red reflex
eye movement - concomitant or incomitant
acuity test

112
Q

How is strabismus managed

A

corrective glasses
occlusion or penalisation therapy of good eye - encourages use of ambliopic eye
surgery to correct

113
Q

What is acute otitis media

A

presence of inflammation in the middle ear,

associated with an effusion and accompanied by the rapid onset of symptoms and signs of an ear infection

114
Q

What causes acute otitis media

A
Bacteria:
Haemophilus influenzae, 
Streptococcus pneumoniae, 
Moraxella catarrhalis
Streptococcus pyogenes 
Viral:
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), 
rhinovirus, 
adenovirus, 
influenza virus,
parainfluenza virus
115
Q

What are the symptoms of acute otitis media

A

Acute onset
earache.
holding, tugging, or rubbing of the ear
non-specific: fever, crying, poor feeding, restlessness, behavioural changes, cough, or rhinorrhoea.

116
Q

What are the signs on examination of acute otitis media

A

red, yellow, or cloudy tympanic membrane.
bulging of the tympanic membrane, with loss of normal landmarks
an air-fluid level behind the tympanic membrane (indicates effusion)
Perforation of the tympanic membrane and/or discharge in the external auditory canal.

117
Q

How is acute otitis media managed

A

adequate pain relief

if antibiotics required:
5–7 day course of amoxicillin.

118
Q

When are antibiotics required for acute otitis media

A

otorrhoea - discharge from ear

<2 years with bilateral infection

119
Q

What are some potential complications of acute otitis media

A

Persistent otitis media with effusion.
Recurrence of infection.
Hearing loss (usually conductive and temporary).
Tympanic membrane perforation.
Labyrinthitis.
Rarely, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.

120
Q

What is otitis media with effusion

A

collection of fluid within the middle ear space without signs of acute inflammation.

121
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis media with effusion

A

Hearing loss causing:
Mishearing,
difficulty with communication in a group,
listening to the TV at excessively high volumes
needing things to be repeated.

Lack of concentration, withdrawal.
Impaired speech and language development.
Impaired school progress.
Mild intermittent ear pain with fullness or popping.

There may be a history of recurrent ear infection, upper respiratory tract infections or nasal obstruction.

122
Q

What are the causes of otitis media with effusion in children

A

Impaired eustachian tube function causing poor aeration of the middle ear.
Low-grade viral or bacterial infection.
Persistent local inflammatory reaction.
Adenoidal infection or hypertrophy.

123
Q

What are the signs of otitis media with effusion

A

Opacification of the drum (other than due to scarring).
There are usually no signs of inflammation or discharge on examination.
Loss of the light reflex, or a more diffused light reflex.
Indrawn, retracted, or concave drum.
Presence of bubbles or fluid level.
Yellow or amber colour change to the drum.

conductive hearing loss

124
Q

What can cause otitis media with effusion in adults

A

unilateral is suspicious!!!

Due to Eustachian tube dysfunction or blockage:
Severe sinusitits
Severe or chronic allergy
Severe nasal septal deviation
enlarged tonsils and adenoids
A nasopharyngeal tumour near Eustachian tube openings.
Radiation to the head and neck following cancer treatments.
Secondary inflammation from allergic rhinitis.
Frequent upper respiratory infection.
Trauma (usually barotrauma - eg, after a dive or flight).

125
Q

What are the management options for otitis media with effusion

A

watch and wait - most spontaneously resolve

surgery - grommets, adenoidectomy if recurrent upper respiratory tract symptoms
hearing aids

126
Q

Which children is surgical management of otitis media with effusion recommended for

A

Persistent bilateral OME lasting three or more months.
A hearing loss in the best ear of 25-30 dB or worse
Children with better hearing but who have social, educational or developmental difficulties may exceptionally also benefit from surgical treatment.

127
Q

Which conditions increase the risk of otitis media with effusion

A

Cleft palate (causing impaired function of the eustachian tube).
Down’s syndrome (impaired immunity and mucosal abnormality increasing susceptibility to infection).
Primary ciliary dyskinesia.
Allergic rhinitis.

128
Q

What is chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)

A

a chronic inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid cavity, which presents with recurrent ear discharges (otorrhoea) through a tympanic perforation

occurs when persistent tympanic membrane perforation leads to recurrent middle ear infection and chronic inflammation.

129
Q

What are the most common causes of CSOM

A
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (most common).
Staphylococcus aureus.
Proteus species.
Aspergillus species.
Candida albicans.
130
Q

What are the symptoms of CSOM

A

Ear discharge persisting for more than 2 weeks, without ear pain or fever.
Hearing loss in the affected ear.
Tinnitus and/or a sensation of pressure in the ear may also be present.

A history of acute otitis media (AOM), ear trauma, or glue ear and grommet insertion
A history of allergy, atopy, and/or upper respiratory tract infection.

131
Q

What is seen on examination in CSOM

A

perforated tympanic membrane
oedematous external auditory canal
discharge - fetid, purulent and cheese-like or clear and serous.

Granulation tissue is often seen in the medial canal or middle ear space.
The middle ear mucosa seen through the perforation may be oedematous or even polypoid, pale, or erythematous.

132
Q

How is CSOM managed

A

An appropriate antibiotic, usually given topically.
Regular intensive aural toilet (microsuction) to remove debris.
Control of granulation tissue - topical steroids

surgery if cholesteatoma present

133
Q

What are the potential complications of CSOM

A

Intratemporal complications include:
Petrositis
Facial paralysis
Labyrinthitis

Intracranial complications include:
Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
Meningitis
Intracranial abscess

Sequelae include:
Hearing loss
Tympanosclerosis

134
Q

What is a cholesteatoma

A

abnormal sac of keratinizing squamous epithelium and accumulation of keratin within the middle ear or mastoid air cell spaces
can become infected and also erode neighbouring structures

135
Q

Which areas can be affected by a cholesteatoma

A
incus
stapes. 
facial nerve, 
cochlea, 
semi-circular canals, 
mastoid bone
roof of the middle ear
136
Q

Describe the pathophysiology causing a cholesteatoma

A

chronic negative middle-ear pressure due to a dysfunction of the Eustachian tube causes the tympanic membrane to be ‘sucked back’ and retract.

As this process continues, there is erosion of part of the tympanic membrane producing a slowly expanding defect.

A pocket lined by squamous, non-keratinising epithelium is thus formed.

137
Q

What are the symptoms of cholesteatoma

A

progressive conductive hearing loss

vertigo
headache
facial nerve palsy

138
Q

What can be seen on examination of a cholesteatoma

A

A deep retraction pocket in the tympanic membrane, with or without granulation tissue and skin debris.

A crust-like lesion, often yellow or brown in colour, usually in the upper part of the tympanic membrane

often surrounded by pus, and sometimes associated with a perforation of the adjacent tympanic membrane.

139
Q

What investigations need to be done in choleastoma

A

CT head - to assess extent of lesion and bony defects

140
Q

What is the management of cholesteatoma

A

surgery to remove it

141
Q

What is BPPV

A

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

a disorder of the inner ear characterized by repeated episodes of positional vertigo

142
Q

What causes BPPV

A

loose calcium carbonate debris (otoconia) in the semi-circular canals of the inner ear (canalithiasis).
When the head moves, otoconia move in the semi-circular canals, causing motion of the fluid of the inner ear (endolymph) which induces the symptom of vertigo

143
Q

What are the symptoms of B dependent ear with the vertical component towaPPV

A

Symptoms are brought on by specific movements and positions of the head relative to gravity

Vertigo <1 minute, precipitated by positional change
asymptomatic between attacks.
N+V
Light-headedness and imbalance - can persist for longer than the vertigo episode.

no hearing loss of tinnitus

144
Q

What test should be done on examination in BPPV?

How is this done?

A

Dix- Hallpike manoeuvre

Ask the person to keep their eyes open throughout the manoeuvre and to look straight ahead.
Ask the person to sit upright on the couch with their head turned 45 degrees to one side.
From this position, lie the person down rapidly (over 2 seconds), supporting their head and neck, until their head is extended 20–30 degrees over the end of the couch with the chin pointing slightly upwards and the test ear downwards. Support the head to maintain this position for at least 30 seconds.
Observe their eyes closely for up to 30 seconds for the development of nystagmus. If nystagmus is present, maintain the position for its duration (maximum 2 minutes if persistent) and note its duration, type, direction, and latency.
Support the head in position and slowly sit the person up.

Repeat with the head rotated 45 degrees to the other side.

145
Q

What is found on Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre in BPPV

A

vertigo
+
torsional (rotatory) upbeating nystagmus (the upper pole of the eye beats towards the dependent ear with the vertical component towards the forehead when looking straight ahead).

Left ear BPPV has a clockwise torsional nystagmus, right ear BPPV nystagmus rotates anti-clockwise.

There is a latent period (usually of 5 to 20 seconds) between completing the manoeuvre and onset of vertigo and nystagmus.

146
Q

How is BPPV managed

A

watch and wait - spontaenous resolution

Epley manoeuvre

147
Q

How is the epley manoeuvre performed

A

Stand at the side or behind the person to guide head movements.
Maintain each head position for at least 30 seconds. If vertigo continues, wait until it has subsided.

Start with the person sitting upright with their head turned 45 degrees to the affected side, then lie them back (with their head still turned 45 degrees) until the head is dependent 30 degrees over the edge of the couch (as if performing the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre). Wait for at least 30 seconds. Then:
With the face upwards, but still tilted backwards by 30 degrees, rotate the head through 90 degrees to the opposite side.
Hold the head in this position for about 20 seconds and ask the person to roll onto the same side as they are facing.
Rotate the person’s head so that they are facing obliquely downward with their nose 45 degrees below the horizontal.
Sit the person up sideways while the head remains rotated and tilted to the side.
Rotate the head to the central position and move the chin downwards by 45 degrees.

148
Q

What causes Meniere’s disease

A

idiopathic!
abnormal endolymph production and/or absorption is associated with Meniere’s disease
The volume of endolymph in the membranous labyrinth increases and the volume of perilymph filling the bony labyrinth and around the membranous labyrinth decreases (endolymphatic hydrops)

149
Q

What are the symptoms of Meniere’s disease

A

spontaneous vertigo, described as spinning or rocking, N+V
Unsteadiness can persist for several days after the acute attack of vertigo.

Tinnitus, usually described as ‘roaring’. Initially, this appears during attacks, but later becomes permanent and may significantly affect quality of life.

Fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss, initially in low frequencies (usually unilateral). Eventually, as the disease progresses, hearing loss becomes permanent and does not fluctuate.

Aural fullness (a sensation of pressure in the ear, or ear discomfort), which often occurs in advance of a vertigo attack — may also be present during the episode.

150
Q

Describe an acute attack of Meniere’s disease

A

May be preceded by a change in tinnitus, increased hearing loss, or a sensation of aural fullness shortly before the onset of vertigo.

Are present for at least 20 minutes, but typically last a few hours (no more than 24 hours).

Can occur in clusters over a few weeks, although months or years of remission can also occur.

Can involve mainly aural symptoms, predominantly vertigo, or both.

151
Q

What might be seen on examination in Meniere’s disease

A

fall over on Romberg’s test
unable to walk heel to toe in a straight line.

If asked to march on the spot with their eyes closed, the person may be unable to maintain their position and will turn to the affected side (Unterberger’s test).

unidirectional, horizontal-torsional nystagmus may be seen during an episode of vertigo

152
Q

How is Meniere’s disease managed?

A

Alleviate acute attacks - prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, cyclizine, or promethazine toreduce N+V

Reduce severity and frequency of attacks - Low-salt diet and avoiding caffeine, chocolate, alcohol and tobacco are often advised. trial of betahistine (initially 16 mg three times a day) to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks.

Improve hearing and reduce the impact of tinnitus - Hearing aids, masking devices

153
Q

What is the difference between vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis

A

‘vestibular neuritis’ = only the vestibular nerve is involved,
‘labyrinthitis’ the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth are affected.

154
Q

What can cause vestibular neuronitis

A

inflammation due to reactivation of HSV type 1
autoimmune
microvascular ischemic insults

155
Q

What are the symptoms of vestibular neuronitis

A

VERTIGO
Rotational vertigo occurs spontaneously, may be sudden, develop on waking, or may worsen over the course of the day.
It is exacerbated by changes of head position, but is initially constant even when the head is still. (not triggered by movement)
Acute symptoms usually settle in a few days and gradual recovery occurs over 2–6 weeks.

N+V - often with malaise, pallor, and sweating.
Balance - unsteady and veer to the affected side.

NO hearing loss and tinnitus

Recent viral illness.

156
Q

What are the symptoms of labyrinthitis

A

VERTIGO
Rotational vertigo occurs spontaneously, may be sudden, develop on waking, or may worsen over the course of the day.
It is exacerbated by changes of head position, but is initially constant even when the head is still. (not triggered by movement)

N+V

hearing loss - unilateral or bilateral, mild or profound.

tinnitus

157
Q

Which diagnoses need to be considered in acute onset of vertigo

A
BPPV
Vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis
Meniere's disease.
vestibular ototoxicity, (for example drug-related damage), 
Migraine 
Stroke and transient ischaemic attack, 
cerebellar tumour, 
acoustic neuroma,
multiple sclerosis
158
Q

What are the signs on examination of vestibular neuronitis

A

Nystagmus - fine horizontal but may be mixed horizontal-torsional with the fast phase away from the affected ear.
head impulse test
Skew test

159
Q

How are vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthis managed?

A

symptoms will usually settle over several weeks, even if no treatment is given.

Advise that bed rest may be necessary if symptoms are particularly severe during the acute phase, but that activity should be resumed as soon as possible

Prochlorperazine or antihistamines for vertigo, nausea and vomiting

do not drive if dizzy, or if they are likely to experience an episode of vertigo while driving.

160
Q

What is the difference between localised and diffuse otitis externa

A

Localized otitis externa — folliculitis (infection of a hair follicle) that can progress to become a furuncle (boil) in the ear canal.

Diffuse otitis externa — is widespread inflammation of the skin and subdermis of the external ear canal, which can extend to the external ear and the tympanic membrane

161
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic otitis externa

A

Acute if it has lasted for 3 weeks or less.

Chronic if it has lasted for longer than 3 months.

162
Q

What is malignant otitis externa

A

also known as necrotizing otitis.

an aggressive infection that predominantly affects people who are immunocompromised, or have diabetes mellitus, or the elderly.
spreads into mastoid and temporal bones

163
Q

What can cause localised otitis externa

A

infection of a hair root by Staphylococcus aureus.

164
Q

What can cause diffuse otitis externa

A

Bacterial infection:
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus aureus

Fungal infections
Aspergillus species,
Candida albicans.

Seborrhoeic dermatitis — this may affect the ears in isolation, or be associated with one or more of the following: dandruff, eyebrow scaling, blepharitis, or facial redness and scaling.

Contact dermatitis - irritant or allergic

Trauma — caused by scratching, aggressive cleaning, ear syringing, foreign objects in the ear, and the use of cotton buds, hearing aids or ear plugs.

Environmental factors — high temperature and/or high humidity, perspiration, swimming (especially in polluted water

165
Q

What causes chronic otitis externa

A
Allergic contact dermatitis.
Irritant contact dermatitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis. 
Fungal infection
Bacterial infection
166
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis externa

A

Itch
Severe ear pain, disproportionate to the size of the lesion
Pain made worse when the tragus or pinna is moved, or when an otoscope is inserted
Tenderness on moving the jaw

Tender regional lymphadenitis
Sudden relief of pain if the furuncle in localized otitis externa bursts
Loss of hearing if there is sufficient swelling to occlude the ear canal

167
Q

What are the symptoms of chronic otitis externa

A

Constant itch in the ear.
Mild discomfort.
Pain, if present, is usually mild.

168
Q

What are the symptoms of malignant otitis externa

A

Pain and headache, more severe than clinical signs would suggest.
Vertigo.
Profound hearing loss.

169
Q

What is seen on examination in acute, chronic and malignant otitis externa

A

The ear canal or external ear, or both, are red, swollen, or eczematous with shedding of the scaly skin.
Swelling in the ear canal is typical of an early presentation of localized otitis externa; later the swelling has a white or yellow centre filled with pus;
Discharge (serous or purulent) may be present in the ear canal.
Inflamed eardrum, which may be difficult to visualize if the ear canal is narrowed or filled with debris

if chronic:
Lack of earwax in the external ear canal.
Dry hypertrophic skin
Pain on manipulation of the external ear canal and auricle.

if malignant:
Granulation tissue at bone–cartilage junction of ear canal; exposed bone in the ear canal.
Facial nerve palsy (drooping face on the side of the lesion).
Temperature over 39°C.

170
Q

How is acute localised otitis externa managed

A

Analgesia

Antibiotic - oral flucloxacillin for 7 days if spreads to pinna, neck, or face, systemic infection or increased risk of severe infection (such as diabetes mellitus, or compromised immunity).

171
Q

How is diffuse otitis externa managed

A

analgesia

topical steroid and/or Abx 7-14 days

172
Q

How is chronic otitis externa managed

A

If fungal infection:
topical antifungal preparation eg. Clotrimazole 1% solution or Clioquinol and a corticosteroid (for example Locorten–Vioform®).

If irritant, or allergic dermatitis:
avoid contact with the irritant or allergen
topical corticosteroid.

If no cause is evident:
7-day course of a topical corticosteroid
Consider co-prescribing an acetic acid spray.