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Finals > Obstetrics > Flashcards

Obstetrics Flashcards

1
Q

How should a low risk woman be monitored during labour?

A

intermittent fetal heart rate auscultation with Doppler or Pinnard
once every 15 minutes for a whole minute
After a contraction
Listen for rate, accelerations and deceleration

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2
Q

When could continuous CTG monitoring be indicated during labour?

A

maternal pulse over 120 beats/minute on 2 occasions 30 minutes apart
temperature of 38°C or above on a single reading, or 37.5°C or above on 2 consecutive occasions 1 hour apart
suspected chorioamnionitis or sepsis
pain reported by the woman that differs from the pain normally associated with contractions
the presence of significant meconium (as defined in ongoing assessment)
fresh vaginal bleeding that develops in labour
severe hypertension: a single reading of either systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg or more or diastolic blood pressure of 110 mmHg or more, measured between contractions
hypertension: either systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg or more or diastolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or more on 2 consecutive readings taken 30 minutes apart, measured between contractions
a reading of 2+ of protein on urinalysis and a single reading of either raised systolic blood pressure (140 mmHg or more) or raised diastolic blood pressure (90 mmHg or more)
confirmed delay in the first or second stage of labour
contractions that last longer than 60 seconds (hypertonus), or more than 5 contractions in 10 minutes (tachysystole)
oxytocin use.

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3
Q

When is someone ‘in labour’

A

> =4cm dilation

regular contractions

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4
Q

What is defined as delay in teh first stage of labour

A

less than 2cm dilation in 4 hours
wing in the progress of labour for multip
changes in the strength, duration and frequency of uterine contractions

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5
Q

What is defined as delay in the second stage of labour

A

For a nulliparous woman:
diagnose delay in the active second stage when it has lasted 2 hours
suspect delay if progress (in terms of rotation and/or descent of the presenting part) is inadequate after 1 hour of active second stage

For a multiparous woman:
diagnose delay in the active second stage when it has lasted 1 hour
suspect delay if progress (in terms of rotation and/or descent of the presenting part) is inadequate after 30 minutes of active second stage.

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6
Q

What do you look for when assessing a CTG trace?

A

baseline HR
variability
deceleration
acceleration

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7
Q

What would be reassuring, non-reassuring or abnormal for a baseline heart rate on a CTG

A

reassuring - = 110-160 bpm
non-reassuring - 100-109 or 161-180
abnormal = <100

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8
Q

What would be reassuring, non-reassuring or abnormal for variability on a CTG

A

reassuring - = 5-25

non-reassuring = less than 5 beats/minute for 30 to 50 minutes
more than 25 beats/minute for 15 to 25 minutes

abnormal = less than 5 beats/minute for more than 50 minutes
more than 25 beats/minute for more than 25 minutes
sinusoidal.

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9
Q

What would be reassuring for decelerations on a CTG

A

reassuring:
no decelerations
early decelerations
variable decelerations with no concerning characteristics (see below) for less than 90 minutes

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10
Q

What makes a CTG normal?

A

all reassuring features

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11
Q

What makes a CTG suspicious?

A

one non-reassuring feature, two reassuring

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12
Q

What makes a CTG pathological?

A

one abnormal or two non-reassuring

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13
Q

What should be done if a CTG is pathological?

A

exclude acute events - cord prolapse, placental abruption, uterine rupture
conservative measure - mobilise, IV fluids
senior review
digital fetal scalp stimulation

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14
Q

What is expected to happen to the fetal heart rate with fetal scalp stimulation

A

it is expected to increase! Shows that the baby is healthy

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15
Q

If fetal scalp stimulation does not increase the baseline fetal heart rate, what should be done

A

senior!!!
fetal blood sample
expediate delivery

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16
Q

How should a fetal blood sample be taken

A

woman lies in left laterla position

do not take during or immediately after a decerlation

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17
Q

What are the normal, borderline and abnormal parameters for fetal pH on fetal blood sampling

A

normal - >=7.25
borderline 7.21-7.24
abnormal <=7.20

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18
Q

What are the normal, borderline and abnormal parameters for fetal lactate on fetal blood sampling

A

normal - <=4.1
borderline 4.2-4.8
abnormal >=4.9

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19
Q

What should be done if a fetal blood sample is abnormal?

A

expediate delivery!

caesarean or instrumental delivery

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20
Q

What should be done if a fetal blood sample is normal?

A

If no accelerations in response to fetal scalp stimulation,
consider taking a second fetal blood sample no more than 1 hour later
if this is still indicated by the cardiotocograph trace.

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21
Q

What should be done if a fetal blood sample is borderline?

A

If no accelerations in response to fetal scalp stimulation,
consider taking a second fetal blood sample no more than 30 minutes later
if this is still indicated by the cardiotocograph trace.

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22
Q

What is fetal distress

A

compromise of fetus due to inadequate oxygen or nutrient supply due to uteroplacental insufficiency

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23
Q

What are the pathophysiological reasons for fetal distress

A 
uteroplacental vascular disease
decreased uterine perfusion
intrauterine sepsis
decreased fetal reserves
cord compression
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24
Q

What are the risk factors for fetal distress

A 
history of Stillbirth.
Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
Oligohydramnios or polyhydramnios.
Multiple pregnancy.
Rhesus sensitisation.
Hypertension.
Obesity.
Smoking.
Diabetes and other chronic diseases.
Pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Decreased fetal movements.
Recurrent antepartum haemorrhage.
Post-term pregnancy.
Maternal age over 35 years, and particularly over 40,
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25
Q

What are the features of fetal distress

A

decreased fetal movements
slowing or stop of growth of serial symphysis fundal height
abnormal USS parameters - IUGR, macrosomia
doppler USS abnormality <34w
abnormal antenatal or intrapartum CTG
fetal scalp sampling - raised lactate, acidic pH
meconium stained liquor

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26
Q

How is suspected fetal distress managed?

A

antenatal - induction/c-section/defer delivery. weight up risks of preterm delivery

during delivery - expediate delivery within 30 minutes if risk to life.

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27
Q

how is HTN during pregnancy defined?

A

diastolic >=90 mmHg or on two occasions more than 4 hours apart,
and/or
diastolic >110 mmHg

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28
Q

What are the parameters for mild, moderate and severe HTN in pregnancy

A

mild: >=140/90
moderate >= 150/100
severe >= 160/110

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29
Q

what is chronic hypertension in pregnancy

A

present at <20 weeks

As blood pressure tends to fall during the first and second trimesters, a woman with a high blood pressure before weeks’ gestation can be assumed to have pre-existing hypertension.

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30
Q

what is gestational HTN

A

new HTN at >20 weeks

WITHOUT proteinuria

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31
Q

Define pre-eclampsia

A

> 20 weeks gestation
+ HTN
+ proteinuria - >300mg in 24hrs or >30 mg/mmol in a urinary protein/creatinine sample

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32
Q

Define eclampsia

A

seizures/convulsions on top of a background of pre-eclampsia

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33
Q

What does HELLP stand for?

A

haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

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34
Q

What puts a woman at high risk of pre-eclampsia

A 
one of:
hypertensive disease during a previous pregnancy.
CKD
Autoimmune disease
Type 1 or type 2 diabetes.
Chronic hypertension.
Thrombophilia.
two of:
first pregnancy.
>= 40 years
Pregnancy interval of more than 10 years.
BMI >= 35
Family history of pre-eclampsia.
Multiple pregnancy.
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35
Q

How are women at high risk of pre-eclampsia managed

A

75mg aspirin from 12 weeks until birth
dipstick urine and check BP at each visit
give info on symptoms of pre-clampsia and who to contact if they develop

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36
Q

What is the pathophysiology of pre-eclampsia

A

placental insufficiency due to incomplete remodelling of the spiral arteries
leads to high resistance low flow uteroplacental circulation
leads to maternal inflammatory response and maternal vascular endothelial dysfunction
causes hyper permeability, thrombophilia and hypertension (compensation for poor uteroplacental flow)

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37
Q

What are the symptoms of pre-eclampsia

A 
asymptomatic!
headache - severe frontal
visual problems - blurring, double vision, halos, flashing lights
breathing difficulties - due to pulmonary oedema
epigastric/RUQ pain
vomiting
reduced fetal movements
oedema
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38
Q

Why do women get epigastric/RUQ pain in pre-eclampsia

A

due to hepatic capsule distension or infarction

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39
Q

What defines severe pre-eclampsia

A

BP > 160/110 + proteinuria > 0.5 g/ day
or

BP > 140/90 mmHg + proteinuria + symptoms.

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40
Q

When should a woman be admitted to hospital with pre-eclampsia

A

Raised BP (≥ 140/90 mm Hg) with proteinuria ≥+1.
Systolic BP ≥160 mm Hg.
Diastolic BP ≥100 mm Hg.
Any clinical symptoms or signs of pre-eclampsia.

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41
Q

What are the maternal complications of pre-eclampsia or eclampsia

A 
haemorrhagic stroke
ARDS
pulmonary oedema
HELLP
AKI
DIC
death

increased risk of HTN in future

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42
Q

What are the fetal complications of pre-eclampsia

A 
prematurity
IUGR
intrauterine death
placental abruption
IRDS
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43
Q

What investigations need to be done in suspected pre-eclampsia

A

urine dip, BP
FBC, U+E, LFT, clotting
24 hour urine protein, P:Cr ratio
ultrasound assessment of fetal growth and the volume of amniotic fluid, and Doppler velocimetry of umbilical arteries.
CT/MRI head if any focal neurology or coma

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44
Q

How should a women with pre-eclampsia be monitored and treated?

A

mild: BP QDS. FBC, U+Es, LFTs twice a week
moderate: BP QDS. FBC, U+Es, LFTs three times a week, labetalol

severe, BP >QDS, labetalol, FBC, U+Es, LFTs three times a week

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45
Q

What needs to be monitored in a woman with pre-eclampsia

A 
BP
protein in urine
FBC 
U+E
LFT
clotting
USS fetus
CTG
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46
Q

Which antihypertensives are used in pre-eclampsia

A

labetalol - first line
nifedipine
methyl-dopa

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47
Q

What class of drug is labetalol? What are the side effects?

A

Beta-blocker.

Postural hypotension, fatigue, headache, nausea and vomiting, epigastric pain.

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48
Q

What class of drug is nifedipine? What are the side effects?

A

Calcium channel blocker.

Peripheral oedema, dizziness, flushing, headache, constipation.

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49
Q

What class of drug is methyl-dopa? What are the side effects?

A

Alpha-agonist.

Drowsiness, headache, oedema, GI disturbances, dry mouth, postural hypotension, bradycardia, hepatotoxicity.

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50
Q

What is the target BP in treatment of pre-eclampsia

A

<150/100

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51
Q

What is the definitive management of pre-eclampsia

A

delivery of the placenta

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52
Q

how is the third stage of labour managed in pre-eclampsia? What should not be used?

A

give syntocinon

syntometrine and ergometrine should not be used as they increase BP

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53
Q

When are women no longer at risk of developing eclampsia?

A

five days after delivery

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54
Q

What are the features of eclampsia

A

generalised tonic-clonic seizure
lasts 60-75 seconds
in presence of pre-eclampsia

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55
Q

What are the risks to the fetus during eclampsia

A

fetal distress

fetal bradycardia

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56
Q

What is the differntial diagnosis for a seizure occuring in pregnancy

A 
eclampsia
hypoglycaemia
epilepsy
stroke - haemorrhagic or ischaemic
meningitis
head trauma
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57
Q

What are the five principles in the management of eclampsia and what do they involve?

A
  1. resuscitation - A to E, lie in left lateral position
  2. stop seizures - use magnesium sulphate. continue for 24 hours after delivery. CTG MONITORING
  3. BP control - IV labetalol or hydralazine. CTG MONITORING
  4. delivery - only when BP, seizures and hypoxia in mum are stabilised, no matter the level of fetal distess. Mum needs to be in HDU for at least 24 hours after delivery
  5. fluid balance - be careful to prevent pulmonary oedema or AKI
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58
Q

How should a mother be cared for post delivery if pre-eclampsia was present

A

BP QDS and ask about any symptoms of pre-eclampsia
FBC, U+E, LFTs 72 hours after birth
discharge to community midwives when BP <150/100
reduce antihypertensives when BP <130/80
monitor BP in community
BP and urine dip at 6 weeks

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59
Q

How is PPH defined?

A

loss of >500ml of blood after delivery

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60
Q

What is teh difference between primary and secondary PPH

A 
primary = within 24 hours of delivery
secondary = >24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery
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61
Q

What is the difference between minor primary PPH and major primary PPH

A 
minor = <1000ml
major = >1000ml
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62
Q

What are the four broad causes of primary PPH

A

trauma
tone
tissue
thrombin

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63
Q

What types of trauma can cause primary PPH

A

damage to the reproductive tract during delivery

forceps/ventouse
episiotomy
C section

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64
Q

What problem with tone can cause primary PPH

A

uterine atony

= failure to contract adequately due to lack of tone

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65
Q

What are the risk factors for uterine atony

A

maternal:
>40y
BMI >35
asian

uterine overdistension:
multiple pregnancy
polyhydraminos
fetal macrosomia

labour:
induction
prolonged

placental:
praevia
prev PPH
placental abruption

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66
Q

What problem with tissue can cause primary PPH

A

retained placental tissue

prevents the uterus contracting

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67
Q

What are the features of a women with primary PPH

A

bleeding!
dizziness, palpitations, SOB
increased RR, increased HR, low BP, increased cap refill

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68
Q

What might you look for on examination of a women with primary PPH

A

abdomen - ?uterine rupture
speculum - sites of local trauma
placenta - any parts missing

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69
Q

What are the four main principles of management of primary PPH

A

communication
resuscitation
monitoring
stop bleeding!

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70
Q

What aspects of communication need to be considered when managing primary PPH

A

SENIOR HELP
contact senior obstetrics, senior midwife, anaesthetist
contact blood bank
MAJOT HAEMORRHAGE PROTOCOL

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71
Q

What aspects of resuscitation need to be done when managing primary PPH

A 
A-E
2x 14G cannulae
crystalloid - 2 litres warmed Hartmann's until blood arrives
o neg or cross matched blood
recombinant factor VIIa
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72
Q

What aspects of monitoring need to be done when managing primary PPH

A

minor:
BP and pulse every 15 mins
FBC, G+S, coag

major:
continuous monitoring
FBC, G+S, coag, crossmatch four units, U+E, LFTs
?arterial line and ITU

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73
Q

What can be done to stop primary PPH due to uterine atony

A

bimanual compression
syntocinon/oxytocin 5 units IV slowly
ergometrine (unless HTN)
misoprostol

balloon tamponade
haemostatic brace suturing, 
ligation uterine arteries
ligation internal iliacs
selective embolisation
hysterectomy
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74
Q

What can be done to stop primary PPH due to trauma

A

repair laceration

repair uterine rupture

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75
Q

What can be done to stop primary PPH due to retianed placenta

A

manual removal of placenta
IV oxytocinon after removal
prophylactic Abx

76
Q

How can primary PPH be prevented?

A

active management of the third stage of labour
5-10 units of IM oxytocin if vaginal delivery
5 units IV oxytocin if c section

77
Q

What are some causes of secondary PPH

A

endometritis
retained placental tissue
abnormal involution of the placental site - inadequate closure and sloughing of spiral arteries
trophoblastic disease

78
Q

What are the features of endometritis

A 
PV bleed
fever
pain
offensive lochia
dyspareunia
dysuria
malaise
suprapubic tenderness
tender adnexae
79
Q

What are the features of retained placental tissue

A

PV bleed
pain
elevated fundus - feels boggy

80
Q

What investigations need to be done in secondary PPH

A

FBC U+E CRP coag G+S
blood culture, high vaginal swabs
USS - for placental tissue

81
Q

How should secondary PPH be managed

A

?sepsis needs admission
antibiotics - piperacillin and tazobactam if severe, coamoxiclav or metronidazole if less severe

if retained placental tissue, contact obstetrician for curretage

82
Q

What is an antepartum haemorrhage

A

PV bleed from >24 weeks gestation up to when the second stage of labour is completed

83
Q

What could cause an antepartum haemorrhage

A

placenta praevia
placental abruption

vasa praevia
trauma
domestic violence
uterine rupture
infection eg, candida, chlamydia, BV
marginal placental bleed
local lesions - ectropion, polyps
84
Q

What is vasa praevia

A

fetal blood vessels run near the internal cervical os in the fetal membranes
ROM leads to rupture of the umbilical cord vessels
leads to PV bleed and fetal compromise

85
Q

What happens in placental abruption

A

rupture of the maternal vessels within basal layer of endometrium
blood accumulates and splits placental attachment from basal layer
part or all of the placenta separates from the wall of the uterus prematurely
detached portion of placenta is unable to function
leads to fetal compromise

86
Q

What is the difference between revealed and concealed placental abruption

A

revealed = bleeding tracks down and drains through cervix. PV bleed

concealed - blood remains within the uterus. clot forms retroplacentally. can still causes systemic shock!

87
Q

What are the risk factors for placental abruption

A 
*previous placental abruption
pre eclampsia
HTN
abnormal fetal lie
polyhydraminos
abdominal trauma - RTA, DV, ECV
smoking
drugs
bleeding in first trimester
thrombopilia
multiple pregnancy
88
Q

What are the key features of placental abruption

A 
PV BLEED!
constantly painful uterus
woody, hard uterus on palpation
painful on palpation of uterus
shock
fetal distress
89
Q

What investigations should be done in antepartum haemorrhage

A

CTG
FBC U+E LFT clotting G+S cross match 4 units
Kleihauer test
USS

90
Q

What is the Kleihauer test?

A

blood test to determine the amount of feto-maternal haemorrhage and therefore the dose of anti-D needed

91
Q

What is the management of placental abruption

A

A - AIRWAY
B - high flow o2

C 
two large bore cannulae,
bloods
warmed crystalloid fluids until blood arrives
cross matched blood
?FFP, cryoprecpitate

Decide on delivery!
C section if maternal compromise or fetal distress
ROM and vaginal delivery if fetal death occurs
if bleeding settles, delivery is not imminent. Can give steroids for fetal surfactant

92
Q

What is placenta praevia

A

placenta fully or partially attached to the lower uterine segment

93
Q

What is the difference between minor and major placenta praevia

A

minor - low lying but does not cover internal os

major - lies over the internal os

94
Q

What are the risk factors for placenta praevia

A 
previous C section
high parity
>40
multiple prgnancy
prev placenta praevia
endometritis
prev curettage - miscarriage/termination
95
Q

What are the features of placenta praevia

A

painless PV bleed - ranges from spotting to major haemorrhage
not tender on palpation

96
Q

How is minor placenta praevia managed?

A

may be able to deilver vaginally

if <2cm distance from the os, c section recommended

97
Q

How is major placenta praevia managed?

A

c section at 38 weeks
no penetrative sex
no vaginal or speculum examinations

admission from 34 weeks as such high risk of haemorrhage in vaginal birth
can stay at home if live nearby and have constant companion must come into hospital immediately if pain, contractions or bleeding

98
Q

What is placenta accreta? What are the risk factors? and what problems does it cause?

A

placenta is morbidly attached ot uterine wall

risk factors: praevia, prev c section

increased risk of retained placenta and PPH

99
Q

What is uterine rupture?

A

full thickness disruption of the uterine muscles and overlying serosa

100
Q

What is the difference between incomplete and complete uterine rupture

A

incomplete - peritoneum overlying uterus still intact. uterine contents remain within uterus

complete = peritoneum is torn. uterine contents enter abdominal cavity!

101
Q

What are the risk factors for uterine rupture

A

anything that makes the uterus weaker!

prev c section
prev uterine urgery
induction
obstruction of labour
multiple pregnancy
multiparity
102
Q

What are the features of uterine ruptire

A 
PV bleed
abdominal pain - sudden, severe, persists between contractions
shoulder tip pain 
regression of presenting part
palpable fetal parts in abdominal cavity
shock
fetal distress
103
Q

What is the management of uterine rupture

A

A - AIRWAY
B - high flow o2

C 
two large bore cannulae,
bloods
up to 2L warmed crystalloid fluids until blood arrives
cross matched blood - 4 units
?FFP, cryoprecpitate

Decide on delivery!
C section
repair or hysterectomy of uterus

104
Q

What are the complications of uterine rupture

A 
post operative infection
amniotic embolus
pituitary failure - Sheehan's syndrome
ureter damage
DIC
105
Q

what questions are important to ask when taking a history in antepartum haemorrhage

A 
how much blood?
red/brown
mucus?
post coital?
abdominal pain?
fetal movements

RISK FACTORS

106
Q

What should be examined in antepartum haemorrhage

A

signs of shock

abdo - tender, woody, contractions, fetal parts

speculum (if praevia ruled out) - dilation, rupture of membranes, clots

107
Q

Describe the different categories of C section

A

1 Immediate threat to the life of the woman or fetus
2 Maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening
3 No maternal or fetal compromise but needs early delivery
4 Elective – delivery timed to suit woman or staff

108
Q

Give some indications for a c section

A

Breech presentation (at term)

Other malpresentations – e.g. unstable lie (a presentation that fluctuates from oblique, cephalic, transverse etc.), transverse lie or oblique lie.

Twin pregnancy – when the first twin is not a cephalic presentation.

Maternal medical conditions (e.g. cardiomyopathy) – where labour would be dangerous for the mother.

Fetal compromise – where it is thought the fetus would not cope with labour.

Transmissible disease (e.g. poorly controlled HIV).

Primary genital herpes (herpes simplex virus) in the third trimester – as there has been no time for the development and transmission of maternal antibodies to HSV to cross the placenta and protect the baby.

Placenta praevia

Maternal diabetes with a baby estimated to have a fetal weight >4.5 kg.

Previous major shoulder dystocia.

Previous 3rd/4th perineal tear where the patient is symptomatic

Maternal request – after a multidisciplinary approach including counselling by a specialist midwife.

109
Q

When are elective c sections normally planned for?

A

after 39 weeks gestation

reduces risk of TTN - respiratory distress in newborn

110
Q

What management needs to take place prior to a c section

A

FBC
G+S

H2-receptor antagonist (risk of Mendelson’s syndrome - aspiration of gastric contents into the lunG, leading to a chemical pneumonitis. This is because of pressure applied by the gravid uterus on the gastric contents)

Calculate VTE risk and prescribe Anti-thromboembolic stockings +/- LMWH as appropriate.

111
Q

How is the woman prepared for a c section in the operating theatre

A

left lateral tilt of 15° – to reduce the risk of supine hypotension due to aortocaval compression.

indwelling Foley’s catheter is inserted when the anaesthetic is ready - to drain the bladder and to reduce the risk of bladder injury during the procedure.

112
Q

Give the steps in the c section procedure

A

Skin incision - Pfannenstiel or Joel-Cohen

Sharp or blunt dissection into the abdomen is made through several layers:
The skin,
Camper’s fascia (superficial fatty layer of subcutaneous tissue)
Scarpa’s fascia, (deep membranous layer of subcutaneous tissue)
Rectus sheath, (anterior and posterior leaves laterally, that merge medially)
Rectus muscle,
Abdominal peritoneum (parietal)
to reveal the gravid uterus.

The visceral peritoneum covering the lower segment of the uterus is then incised and pushed down to reflect the bladder, which is retracted by the Doyen retractor.

Uterine incision is made on the lower uterine segment beneath the line of peritoneal reflection. This is a transverse curvilinear incision which is digitally extended.

The baby is then delivered cephalic/breech with fundal pressure from the assistant.

Oxytocin 5iu is given intravenously by the anaesthetist to aid delivery of the placenta by controlled cord traction by the surgeon.

The uterine cavity is ensured empty, then closed with two layers. The rectus sheath is then closed and then the skin (either with continuous/interrupted sutures or staples).

113
Q

Give the layers that need to be cut through in order to reach the uterus

A

The skin,
Camper’s fascia (superficial fatty layer of subcutaneous tissue)
Scarpa’s fascia, (deep membranous layer of subcutaneous tissue)
Rectus sheath, (anterior and posterior leaves laterally, that merge medially)
Rectus muscle,
Abdominal peritoneum (parietal)
visceral peritoneum

114
Q

What does a primary c section reduce the risk of (when compared to VB)

A 
perineal trauma and pain, 
urinary and anal incontinence, 
uterovaginal prolapse, 
late stillbirth
early neonatal infection
115
Q

What are the immediate risks of c section

A 
Major Postpartum haemorrhage 
Wound haematoma (increased in patient with large BMI/diabetes/immunosupressed)
Intra-abdominal haemorrhage
Bladder/bowel trauma (more common in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery)

Neonatal:
transient tachypnoea of the newborn
fetal lacerations (1-2% risk, higher with previous membrane rupture)

116
Q

What are the intermediate risks of c section

A

Infection:
urinary tract infection
endometritis
respiratory (higher risk if general aneasthetic used)

Venous thromboembolism

117
Q

What are the late risks of c section

A

Urinary tract trauma (fistula)
Subfertility (there is a delay in conceiving compared to women who have had vaginal deliveries)
Regret and other negative psychological sequelae
Rupture/dehiscence of scar at next labour (VBAC)
Placenta praevia/accrete
Caesarean scar ectopic pregnancy

118
Q

What are the benefits and risks of VBAC compared to planned elective repeat c section

A

benefits:
shorter recovery
less risk maternal dearh
less risk resp problems in neonate

risks:
uterine rupture,
anal sphinchter injury
HIE to neonate
still birth
119
Q

What do guidelines say needs to be done in VBAC to ensure a safe delivery

A

deliver in a hospital setting with facilities for emergency caesarean and advanced neonatal resuscitation.

There should be continuous CTG monitoring.

Avoid induction where possible and be cautious with augmentation (increased risk of uterine scar rupture)

Any decisions about both induction and augmentation require input from a senior obstetrician.

After 39 weeks an elective repeat caesarean is recommended delivery method.

120
Q

What methods of induction are appropriate in VBAC

A

using mechanical techniques (e.g. amniotomy)

better than induction with prostaglandins.

121
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to a VBAC

A

classical caesarean scar,
previous uterine rupture
and any other contraindications for vaginal birth that apply to the clinical scenario (for example placenta praevia).

122
Q

What are relative contraindications to a VBAC

A

complex uterine scars

>2 prior lower segment Caesarean sections.

123
Q

How many minutes should a category 1 c section be delivered within

A

the baby should be born within 30 minutes

124
Q

How many minutes should a category 2 c section be delivered within

A

not a universally accepted time,

usual audit standards are between 60-75 minutes.

125
Q

What can initiate labour?

A

show - cervical plug falls out

ROM

126
Q

Describe the first stage of labour.

talk about the contractions, dilation and effacement

A 
early/latent:
irregular contractions
0-3cm dilation, 30% effacement
every 5-30mins
last for 30 seconds
THEN
regular contractions
3-6cm dilation, 80% effacement
every 3-5mins
last for >=1 minute
active:
intense contractions 
6-10 cm dilation, 100% effacement
every 0.5-2mins
last for 60-90 seconds
ROM if not already
127
Q

Describe the second stage of labour

A

cardinal movements!

descent
engagement
flexion
internal rotation
extension
delivery of head
restitution - external rotation
expulsion - ant shoulder, posterior shoulder, rest of body
128
Q

What is the fetal station

A 
the relationship of the presenting part to the ischial spines.
 At 0 (the level of the ischial spines), the fetus is engaged.
129
Q

What is the lie of the fetus

A

the relationship between the long axis of the fetus and the mother

130
Q

Describe the difference between longitudinal, transverse and oblique lie

A

longitudinal - head or bottom down. vertical
transverse - horizontal
oblique - at an angle. neither horizontal or vertical

131
Q

What is the presentation of a fetus

A

fetal part that first enters the maternal pelvis.

132
Q

What is the most common fetal presentation

A

Cephalic vertex

133
Q

What different kinds of fetal presentation are there

A 
cephalic
breech
shoulder
face
brow
134
Q

What is the position of a fetus

A

position of the fetal head as it exits the birth canal.

135
Q

What are the types of fetal position. Which is best?

A

occipito-anterior position (the fetal occiput facing anteriorly, anterior fontanelle felt posteriorly) – this is ideal for birth
occipito-posterio
occipito-transverse.

136
Q

How is fetal position assessed?

A

vaginal examination during labour

137
Q

What are the risk factors for fetal malpresentation

A 
prematurity
multiple pregnancy
uterine abnormalities
fetal abnormalities
placenta praevia
primparity
138
Q

What can lead to a occipito-posterior position of the fetus

A

flat sacrum
poorly flexed head
weak uterine contractions

139
Q

What investigations should be done in suspected malpresentation

A

USS to confirm and identify uterine or fetal abnormalities

140
Q

What are the potential management options in fetal malpresentation

A

ECV
c section
vaginal delivery - high risk

141
Q

How successful is ECV

A

50% in primips

60% in multips

142
Q

What are the complications of ECV

A

fetal distress
RPOM
antepartum haemorrhage
placental abruption

143
Q

Give the contraindications for ECV

A

recent APH
ruptured membranes
uterine abnormalities
prev C section

144
Q

How is a shoulder presentation managed at delivery

A

C section

145
Q

How is a brow presentation managed at delivery

A

C section

146
Q

How is a face presentation managed at delivery

A

if chin anterior, vaginal delivery is possible. but it will be long and c section may still be required

if chin posterior, c section

147
Q

How is a transverse presentation managed at delivery

A

C section

148
Q

How is a occipitoposterior position managed at delivery

A

it will be a long labour - give adequate pain relief

may require forceps or c section

149
Q

How is a occipitotransvese presentation managed at delivery

A

vaginal delivery - needs rotation with Kielland’s manoeuvre or ventouse
can end up with c section

150
Q

What is breech?

A

fetus presents ‘bottom-down’ in the uterus.

151
Q

Describe the different kinds of breech presentation

A

frank - hips flexed, knees extended. most common
complete - fully flexed legs
incomplete/footling - one or both thighs extended

152
Q

What are the risk factors for breech presentation

A 
Maternal:	
Multiparity - lax uterus
Uterine malformations (e.g. septate uterus)
Fibroids
Placenta praevia
smoking
diabetes
prev breech
Fetal:
Prematurity
Macrosomia
Polyhydramnios (raised amniotic fluid index)
Twin pregnancy (or higher order)
Abnormality (e.g. anencephaly)
153
Q

Give some differentials for breech presentation

A

oblique
transverse
unstable lie - more common in poyhydraminos, multiparity

154
Q

When is breech presentation considered a problem?

A

beyond 32 weeks

before then, fetus will commonly turn

155
Q

How can breech presentation be identified?

A

Subcostal tenderness.
Ballottable head in the fundal area.
Softer irregular mass in the pelvis.
Fetal heartbeat loudest above the umbilicus.
On VE in labour, the sacrum, anus or foot can be palpated through the fornix.

156
Q

When is ECV given in breech

A

primip - after 36 weeks

multip - after 37 weeks

157
Q

Why is a C section recommened for breech compared to a vaginal breech delivery

A

reduced risk of perinatal death and early neonatal morbidity

158
Q

When is vaginal breech delivery considered unfavourable

A 
placenta praevia
contracted pelvis
footling breech
<2000g or >3800g 
hyperextended fetal neck in labour
no suitably trained clinician available
prev c section
159
Q

What are the potential complications of a breech presentation

A 
cord prolapse!!!
fetal head entrapment
PROM
birth asphyxia - due to delay in delivery
intracranial haemorrhage
cervical spine injuries
DDH
160
Q

What is the difference between monozygotic and dizygotic twins

A

mono - one ovum fertilized, splits

di - two ovum fertilized. each have their own amnion, chorion and placenta

161
Q

What is the result if an embryo splits at 3 days to form twins

A

two placenta, two chorions, two amnions

162
Q

What is the result if an embryo splits at 4-7 days to form twins

A

one placenta. one chorion, two amnions

163
Q

What is the result if an embryo splits at 8-12 days to form twins

A

one placenta. one chorion, one amnion

164
Q

What is the result if an embryo splits at 13d days to form twins

A

conjoined twins

165
Q

What is the risk of having monochorionic twins

A

twin to twin transfusion syndrome

reduced blood supply and therefore growth restriction for one twin

166
Q

How is TTTS managed

A

laser surgeryof intertwin vascular placental anastamoses if <26w
septostomy
amnioreduction
selective feticide

167
Q

What are the risk factors for multiple pragnancy

A 
prev multiple pregnancy
maternal FH of multiple pregnancy
increasing maternal age
race - high in west african
assisted conception
168
Q

How are multiple pregnancies discovered

A 
on USS!
hyperemesis 
exaggerated pregnancy-related symptoms. 
uterus palpated abdominally earlier than 12 weeks of gestation.
large-for-dates uterine size, 
higher than expected weight gain, 
more than two fetal poles on palpation
two or more fetal heart rates heard on auscultation.
169
Q

What antenatal management needs to be considered for multiple pregnancies

A

obstetrician!!
USS - at least fortnightly. check fetal weights for any sing of IUGR
monitor FBC - increased risk of anaemia
BP - increased risk of pre-eclampsia. give aspirin if high

170
Q

How is the delivery of multiple pregnancies managed

A

suggest delivery at:
35w if triplets
36 weeks if monochorionic twins
37w if dichorionic twins

G+S on admission as complications more likely

trial vaginal delivery if first twin cephalic
c section if not

171
Q

Who needs referral to a tertiary centre specialist unit for antenatal care in a multiple pregnancy

A

Monochorionic monoamniotic twin or triplet pregnancies.
Monochorionic diamniotic or Dichorionic diamniotic triplet pregnancies.
Asymmetrical fetal growth.
Fetal anomaly.
Death of one fetus.
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS).

172
Q

What are the risks to the mother in multiple pregnancy

A 
miscarriage
anaemia
pre-eclampsia
APH
PPH
hyperemesis
polyhydraminos
death - 2.5 increased risk
173
Q

What are the risks to the fetus in multiple pregnancy

A 
stillbirth
prem
neonatal mortality and morbidity
TTTS
umbilicial cord entanglement
IUGR
congenital abnormalities
174
Q

Which women are at increased risk of NTDs and therfore should take high dose folic acid

A

Either partner has an NTD, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by an NTD, or they have a family history of an NTD.
The woman is taking anti–epileptic medication.
coeliac disease or other malabsorption state,
diabetes mellitus,
sickle cell anaemia,
thalassaemia.
BMI >30

175
Q

What are the key symptoms of obstetric cholestasis

A

in the third trimester
Intense pruritus ± excoriation, affecting any part of the body but particularly the palms and soles. Worse at night.
Pale stool, dark urine, jaundice.
Malaise and fatigue.

176
Q

What are the risk factors for obstetric cholestasis

A 
Past history of obstetric cholestasis.
Family history of obstetric cholestasis - eg, mother.
Multiple pregnancy.
Presence of gallstones.
Hepatitis C.
177
Q

What blood results are found in obstetric cholestasis

A

abnormal LFTs

particularly AST and ALT elevation

178
Q

Name some other causes of abnormal LFTs in pregnancy

A 
gallstones, 
hepatitis, 
Epstein-Barr virus, 
cytomegalovirus, 
medications, 
autoimmune process 
hyperemesis
pre-eclampsia
HELLP
fatty liver of pregnancy
179
Q

What investigations need to be done if there are abnormal LFTs in pregnancy

A

urine dip, BP
hepatitis antibodies, virology screen, anti-smooth muscle and antimitochondrial antibodies
liver USS

180
Q

How is obstetric cholestasis managed?

A

monitor LFTs weekly
ursodeoxycholic acid - facilitates bile flow through the liver
induction of labour at 37 weeks

181
Q

What are the risks of obstetric cholestasis

A 
Stillbirth
Premature delivery
Fetal distress.
Meconium aspiration.
Vitamin K deficiency in mother and fetus
182
Q

How is cord prolapse managed

A

Displace the presenting part by putting a hand in the vagina; push it back up (towards mother’s head) during contractions.
Knee-to-chest position so that her bottom is higher than her head.
Infuse 500mL saline into bladder via an IVI giving set taped to a catheter
Tocolysis (terbutaline 0.25mg sc) reduces contractions and helps bradycardia
Delivery!!!

183
Q

What is shoulder dystocia

A

a delivery requiring additional obstetric manoeuvres to release the shoulders after gentle downward traction has failed

184
Q

What are the risk factors for shoulder dystocia

A

Large/postmature fetus (but most babies >4800g do not develop it and 48% that do weigh <4000g), maternal BMI >30kg/m2
• Induced or oxytocin augmented labours
• Prolonged 1st or 2nd stage or secondary arrest
• Assisted vaginal delivery
• Previous shoulder dystocia (1–16%). Most occur in women with no risk factors.
• Diabetes mellitus.

185
Q

How is shoulder dystocia managed

A
  • Help: extra midwives, labour ward coordinator, senior obstetrician, neonatologist, anaesthetist and a scribe for timing of manoeuvres.
  • Episiotomy: to give space for internal manoeuvres.
  • Legs: place in McRoberts (hyperflexed lithotomy) position. It is successful in 90%. Abduct, rotate outwards, and flex maternal femora so each thigh touches the abdomen (1 assistant to hold each leg). This straightens the sacrum relative to the lumbar spine and rotates the symphysis superiorly helping the impacted shoulder to enter the pelvis without manipulating the fetus.
  • Suprapubic pressure with flat of hand laterally in the direction baby is facing, and towards mother’s sacrum, continuously or with a rocking motion. Apply steady traction to the fetal head. This aims to displace the anterior shoulder allowing it to enter the pelvis.
  • Enter the pelvis for internal manoeuvres; these aim to rotate the fetal shoulders to the oblique diameter. If this fails, rotation by 180° so posterior shoulder now lies anteriorly may work, as may delivery of the posterior arm.
  • Roll the mother on to all fours if these fail.
  • Check the baby for damage, eg Erb’s palsy or fractured clavicle.
  • Beware PPH or 3rd/4th degree vaginal tears in the mother.

Finals (32 decks)

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