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OPT 112 > Special CT - cartilage and bone (M2) > Flashcards

Special CT - cartilage and bone (M2) Flashcards

1
Q

2 types of cells in connective tissue

A

resident and wandering

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2
Q

what do resident cells include

A

fibroblasts
adipocytes
mesenchymal stem cells
fixed macrophages

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3
Q

what do wandering cells include

A

mast cells
plasma cells
free macrophages
other leukocytes (WBCs)

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4
Q

what is extracellular matrix (ECM) secreted by

A

resident cells

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5
Q

what makes up extracellular matrix

A

protein fibers:
- collagen fibers
- elastic fibers
- reticular fibers
ground substance:
- water
- glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
- glycoproteins
- ions

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6
Q

what are resident cells derived from

A

mesenchymal stem cells

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7
Q

skin resident cells

A

fibroblasts

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8
Q

cartilage resident cells

A

chondroblasts, chondrocytes

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9
Q

bone resident cells

A

osteoblasts, osteocytes

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10
Q

fat resident cells

A

adipocytes

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11
Q

what are wandering cells part of and derived from

A

part of immune system.
derived from hematopoietic stem cells (blood), and respond to harmful agents and inflammation

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12
Q

types of wandering cells

A

mast cells
monocytes and macrophages
neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
plasma cells
osteoclasts (bone)

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13
Q

what does collagen provide in the ECM

A

tensile strength to the tissue and anchoring of epithelial tissue

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14
Q

where is collagen synthesized and from what

A

Synthesized within resident cells - fibroblasts, chondroblasts, osteoblasts, etc.
Golgi complex packages into vesicles as procollagen and expels from cell via exocytosis.
procollagen –> collagen via enzymatic action

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15
Q

how many collagen types are there and what do they differ by

A

28 types.
differ by morphology and amino acid sequences

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16
Q

what are the 2 physical properties of collagen fibers

A

fibrillar - structural support - builds tissues.
non-fibrillar - anchors - maintains tissues.

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17
Q

about 90% of all collagen fibers in the human body are comprised of what types of collagen

A

types 1, 2, and 3 (fibrous collagen)

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18
Q

where is type 1 collagen found

A

dermis of skin, ligaments, bone, cornea

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19
Q

where is type 2 collagen found

A

assoc. with hyaline cartilage.
ex. articulating surfaces of bones, nose, trachea

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20
Q

what is type 3 collagen and where is it found

A

reticular collagen.
assoc. with highly cellular organs including liver, spleen, kidney

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21
Q

what are collagen type 4 and 7 assoc. with

A

epithelial basement membranes:
- type 4: basal lamina - mesh-like appearance of fibers.
- type 7: basement membrane anchoring fibrils

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22
Q

where is elastin secreted from and as what

A

secreted from resident cells of elastogenic tissues (ex. fibroblasts) as tropoelastin (soluble)

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23
Q

what does elastin provide for

A

increased flexibility of connective tissue

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24
Q
A
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25
Q

what do microfibrils provide

A

structural scaffold for deposition of tropoelastin (protein)

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26
Q

osmotic properties of ground substance

A

very high osmotic pressure (about 60 mmHg) of ECM contributes to high viscosity.
- viscous fluid (blood) –> gel/semisolid –> solid (bone).
- high viscosity restricts movement of pathogens throughout tissue

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27
Q

does ground substance have a high or low compressibility and why

A

low compressibility as GAGs molecules repel each other due to their opposing overall negative charge of the molecules, along with the high osmotic pressure (resists edema)

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28
Q

what 2 things does ground substance influence

A

fluid transport
metabolic exchange

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29
Q

proteoglycan aggregate

A
  1. hyaluronan base
  2. proteoglycan = protein + GAG
    - proteins: core proteins bind to GAGs and linker proteins bind proteoglycan to hyaluronan base.
    - common GAGs: heparan/heparan sulfate, dermatan/chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate
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30
Q

what is the perichondrium vital for

A

cartilage growth and maintenance

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31
Q

outer fibrous layer of perichondrium

A

contains dense connective tissue (+ fibroblasts).
+/- elastic fibers.
blood vessels allow for nourishment of cartilage and inner perichondral layer.

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32
Q

chondrogenic ‘cellular’ layer (inner) of perichondrium

A

membranous layer that is the thinner of the 2 layers.
contains chondrogenic cells that produce cartilage proper.
cartilage proper is internal and contains chrondroblasts that produce and secrete semisolid ECM.
lacunae are cavities within ECM that contain chrondrocytes

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33
Q

what are chrondrocytes

A

transformed chrondroblasts that become encapsulated within ECM.
deep in ECM.
larger than chrondroblasts

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34
Q

what are the 2 types of hyaline cartilage growth

A

interstitial growth
appositional growth

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35
Q

where does interstitial growth start from

A

center.
limited capacity

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36
Q

where does appositional growth start from

A

edge.
primary mech. of cartilage growth

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37
Q

3 types of cartilage

A

hyaline
elastic
fibrous/fibrocartilage

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38
Q

hyaline cartilage

A

most commonly found.
+ perichondrium (except on articulating bone surfaces).
found in tracheal bands, articulating bone surfaces, forming bone, ex. ribcage and trachea

39
Q

elastic cartilage

A

+ perichondrium.
hyaline cartilage with elastic fibers.
found in external ear (pinna), epiglottis.

40
Q

fibrous/fibrocartilage

A

no perichondrium –> not much growth.
more of a CT proper.
found in intervertebral discs and some symphyses, ex. hip bones and openings in skull

41
Q

what can fibrocartilage withstand and what does it keep bones from doing

A

can withstand compression
keeps bones from fusing

42
Q

qualities of long bones

A

greater in length than width and are most common in human.
found in upper and lower limbs.
load bearing

43
Q

qualities of short bones

A

nearly equal width and length.
found in hands and feets.

44
Q

how are bones classified

A

based on size and shape secondary to their function

45
Q

qualities of flat bones

A

thin with smooth surface.
form many bones of the skull - frontal, parietal, occipital, lacrimal, nasal, vomer.
form scapula in shoulder, kneecaps, breastbones, and ribs.

46
Q

qualities of irregular bones

A

complex shape.
form vertebrae, hip bones and some skull bones - temporal, zygomatic, maxilla, mandible, sphenoid, ethmoid, palatine, and inferior nasal concha.

47
Q

3 regions of long bone

A

epiphysis
metaphysis
diaphysis

48
Q

where is the epiphysis and what does it contain/is covered by

A

proximal and distal ends.
contains spongy bone and resists stress.
covered externally by thin layer of hyaline cartilage, ex. articular cartilage.

49
Q

where is the metaphysis and what does it contain/is covered by

A

lies between epiphysis and diaphysis.
initially contains thin layer of hyaline cartilage, epiphyseal growth plate, that is eventually replaced by thin line of compact bone (epiphyseal line)

50
Q

where is the diaphysis and what does it contain/is covered by

A

cylindrical shaft; middle section.
provides for majority of weight support and leverage.

51
Q

what makes up compact (cortical) bone

A

dense with organic ground substance and inorganic salts that contain lacunae

52
Q

what makes up cancellous (trabecular/spongy) bone

A

less dense and more porous than compact bone and contains bone marrow

53
Q

osteoblasts

A

build bone.
derived from mesenchymal stem cells

54
Q

osteocytes

A

maintenance.
derived from osteoblasts

55
Q

osteoclasts

A

cleave bone.
derived from hematopoietic stem cells

56
Q

osteoid

A

ECM of bone.
provides structural support.
has mixture of organic and inorganic components

57
Q

organic components of osteoid

A

mainly comprised of collagen and proteoglycans - provides tensile strength and some flexibility.
supplied by osteoblasts

58
Q

inorganic components of osteoid

A

comprised of calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide that interact to form crystalline hydroxyapatite - provides for bone rigidity –> osteoid is mineralized after this process

59
Q

functions of bone

A

protection from trauma.
movement via skeletal muscle attachment.
blood cell production (hematopoiesis) (red bone marrow in adults).
storage for mineral and energy reserves:
- calcium for muscle contraction, neurotransmitter release, clotting of blood, etc.
- phosphate for energy (ATP), phospholipids for cell membranes, DNA/RNA, etc.

60
Q

what is periosteum and what is it connected to

A

tough, fibrous, outer connective tissue bilayer.
anchors blood vessels, nerves to bone surface and serves as attachment for ligaments
- outer fibrous
- inner osteogenic (cellular)

61
Q

what are the sharpey (penetrating) fibers and what are they connected to

A

anchor periosteum to underlying bone

62
Q

why is periosteum not found on articulating bone surfaces

A

don’t want growth of tissue / excessive tissue in joints

63
Q

compact bone components

A

osteon (haversian system) is basic structural and functional unit that contains:
- haversian (central) canal
- concentric lamellae
- osteocytes
- lacunae
- canaliculi
non-osteon structures:
- volkmann (perforating) canals)
- circumferential lamellae
- interstitial lamellae

64
Q

location of spongy bone compared to deep bone

A

deep

65
Q

what are the parallel lamellae and trabecular lined with

A

thin endosteum and osteoblasts

66
Q

where are lacunae and what do they contain

A

between parallel lamellae.
contain osteoclasts

67
Q

what does the medullary cavity contain

A

bone marrow

68
Q

intramembranous ossification

A

bone growth within membrane.
formation of flat and irregular bones .
derived from mesenchymal tissue

69
Q

endochondral ossification

A

formation of long and short bones.
derived from hyaline cartilage

70
Q

major events of endochondral ossification

A
  1. hyaline cartilage develops
  2. cartilage calcifies and bone collar forms
  3. primary ossification center forms in bone shaft (diaphysis) - blood vessels start to invade cartilage model
  4. secondary ossification center forms at ends of long bone (epiphyses)
  5. bone replaces cartilages except in articular area and epiphyseal plate (growth plate)
  6. interstitial growth continues into adolescence when epiphyseal plate ossifies (growth plate closes)
71
Q

what is growth plate critical for

A

interstitial growth of long and short bones

72
Q

what are the 5, distinct zones of the epiphyseal (growth) plate

A
  1. reserve (resting) cartilage
  2. proliferation
  3. maturation
  4. hypertrophy
  5. degeneration/calcified cartilage
  6. ossification
73
Q

reserve (resting) cartilage zone

A

most distal from diaphysis.
contains healthy hyaline cartilage

74
Q

proliferation zone

A

cartilage cells undergo mitotic division to form ‘stacks’ of cells secreting ECM.
easily stains with alcian blue (stains GAGs)

75
Q

maturation zone

A

cessation of mitotic activty

76
Q

hypertrophy zone

A

enlargement of chondrocytes

77
Q

degeneration/calcified cartilage zone

A

ECM calcifies

78
Q

ossification zone

A

zone closest to diaphysis where bone formation occurs.
zone invaded by blood vessels and osteogenic cells that secrete osteoid.

79
Q

where and when does appositional growth of long bone occur

A

within the inner layer of the periosteum as osteoblasts secrete collagen and ECM that forms external circumferential lamellae
lifetime growth

80
Q

what do osteoclasts do at the same time as appositional growth of long bone

A

reabsorb bone within medullary cavity –> widening it

81
Q

steps of bone repair

A
  1. hematoma transforms into a connective tissue procallus containing fibroblasts that produce collagen that will reconnect the broken ends of the bone while regenerated blood vessels invade hematoma
  2. chondroblasts in the connective tissue assist to form a fibrocartilaginous (soft) callus
  3. osteoprogenitor cells invade this callus and replace it with bone (hard callus)
  4. osteoclasts remove any excess bone during remodeling to leave only a slight thickening in area of the fracture… trying to go back to the way it was pre-fracture
82
Q

what is calcitonin

A

peptide hormone synthesized and secreted by thyroid gland parafollicular cells (“C” cells)

83
Q

what does calcitonin cause

A

increased Ca2+ plasma levels –> inhibition of bone resorption (breakdown of bone).
- osteoclast activity decreased
- Ca2+ deposition in bone increased

84
Q

what is parathyroid hormone (PTH) secreted by and in response to what

A

secreted by chief cells in parathyroid glands in response to decreased plasma Ca2+ levels

85
Q

major actions of parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A
  1. increased Ca2+ reabsorption from urine in the kidneys (promote bone growth)
  2. formation of calcitriol hormone in the kidneys via enzymatic action, which stimulates Ca2+ (& Mg2+ and phosphate) absorption in the small intestine
  3. Ca2+ resorption from bone via increased osteoclast activity
86
Q

what is calcitriol hormone

A

active form of vitamin D3

87
Q

2 ways to acquire vitamin D3

A

dietary intake.
conversion of cholesterol derivative by UV light within keratinocytes

88
Q

what happens to cholecalciferol in the liver

A

enzymatic action converts cholecalciferol to a pre-active form of vitamin D3

89
Q

what does formation of calcitriol hormone stimulate

A

stimulates Ca2+ (& Mg2+ and phosphate) absorption in the small intestine

90
Q

PTH and calcitriol effects on bone health

A

PTH and calcitriol potentiate each other on bone reabsorption.
calcitriol helps in remineralization of bone

91
Q

how are plasma PTH levels affected by plasma Ca2+ levels

A

low plasma Ca2+ levels –> elevated plasma PTH levels.
increased plasma Ca2+ levels –> drop in plasma PTH levels.

92
Q

how are plasma calcitonin levels affected by plasma Ca2+ levels

A

plasma calcitonin rise in response to increasing plasma Ca2+ levels

93
Q

aging affects on bone

A

osteopenia vs. osteoporosis.
decreasing osteoblast activity and loss of vital minerals required for healthy bone.
decrease in certain hormones (ex. growth hormone, estrogen/testosterone, and vitamin D) (more pronounced in females).
osteoporosis management with bisphosphonates as it blocks osteoclast activity:
- alendronate
- ibandronate
- risedronate
- pamidronate
- bisphosphonate derivative: zoledronic acid

OPT 112 (9 decks)

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