Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dash 8 Q400 3 KL > SOP > Flashcards

SOP Flashcards

1
Q

Define Wet Runway.

A

A runway is considered as wet when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define “land immediately at the nearest suitable airport”.

A

Land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, that offers sufficient runway landing distance available and if required, emergency services to support the emergency or abnormality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define sterile flight deck policy.

A

Below 10,000 ft. MSL, pilots must comply with the following: 1. Flight Deck conversations are kept to those essential to the flight 2. FMS data input and set up are kept to a minimum 3. No paperwork or duties not related to aircraft operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When can you reset a tripped circuit breaker in flight?

A
  1. It is imperative for the safe completion of the flight. 2. Where a QRH checklist directs resetting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rules for refueling with pax on board

A
  1. FA advised if flight deck crew member leaves 2. Both FAs onboard 3. No Smoking sign on 4. No photographic equipment within 10 feet 5. No oxygen administered 6. L1 and L2 used as unobstructed exits 7. Air stair door remains open 8. Emergency lights armed and fasten belts sign off 9. Use of person electronic devices prohibited 10. No lighting within 5 miles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Nose gear oleo strut extension

A

1 to 3 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Main gear oleo strut extension

A

1.5 to 4.5 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which lights do not illuminate during a caution/advisory light test?

A

Engine select/start lights, pressurization FAULT, and alternate wiper on light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what weather must the captain execute the takeoff?

A

less than 1600 RVR or 1/4 mile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What special things must be done for a lower than standard visibility takeoff?

A
  1. takeoff alternate 2. standing start 3. no turns below 1000 AGL 4. runway localizer used 5. no checklists while taxiing 6. use low vis charts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What visual aids are needed for a touchdown RVR 1600 or 1/4 sm mile visibility takeoff?

A

at least one: HIRL, CL, RCLM, adequate visual reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What RVR is controlling for RVR 1600 or 1/4 sm mile visibility takeoff?

A

touchdown, mid may be substituted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What visual aids are needed for a touchdown RVR 1200 and rollout RVR 1000 takeoff?

A

At least one: CL, HIRL, RCLM (day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What RVR is controlling for touchdown RVR 1200 and rollout RVR 1000 takeoff?

A

touchdown and rollout are controlling, mid may substitute for touchdown or rollout, far end may substitute for rollout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What visual aids are required for a touchdown RVR 600, mid RVR 600, rollout RVR 600 takeoff?

A

all: CL, HIRL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What RVR is controlling for touchdown RVR 600, mid RVR 600, rollout RVR 600 takeoff?

A

only 2 installed: touchdown and rollout are both required and controlling. only 3 installed: touchdown , mid, and rollout are controlling, one can be inop. 4 installed: far end may substitute for rollout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is the only time the immediate return checklist can be used?

A

prior to completing an after takeoff check, otherwise in range checklist must be used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe Type I climb.

A

210 KIAS until 15,000 feet then reduce IAS by 5 kts every 1,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe Type II climb.

A

185 KIAS until 20,000 feet then reduce IAS by 5 kts every 1,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe Type III climb.

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Noise abatement takeoff

A

climb at V2+10 knots (max 20 knots) up to 1,000 ft above airport elevation; at 1,000 ft accelerate to flap retraction speed, retract flaps, and reduce to climb power, fly speed V2+20 knots; at 3,000 ft above airport elevation transition to normal en-route climb speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cruise altimeter readings must be within how many feet?

A

60 ft varied linearly to 180 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Recommended holding speed

A

190 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At what temperature must you utilize the cold temperature compensation in the FMS?

A

-10 degrees celsius or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Stabilized approach criteria
1. constant angle / rate of descent 2. all briefings and checklists complete by 1000' (IFR) or 500' (VFR) 3. proper flight path 4. in landing configuration 5. No less than VREF 6. VREF+20 (1000 ft) and VREF+10 (500 ft) 7. Threshold at VREF to VREF+5 7. GS < 1 dot, LOC < 1 dot 8. No greater than 1000 fpm descent
26
Required visibility for visual approach at night
5 sm
27
Pre takeoff representative surfaces check include:
left and right windshield wiper's arm and blade, visible portion of left and right wing leading edge, visible portion of roll spoilers in the raised position
28
How much frost is acceptable for takeoff?
up to 1/8 inch on lower wing due to cold fuel and/or this hoarfrost on top of fuselage
29
Define dry snow.
Snow with limited water content. Normally flies into a cloud when kicked and dissipates rapidly. OAT is generally below 1C. May become "wet" if exposed to bright sun.
30
Define slush.
Soft and mushy. Water drips off the palm when the palm is placed on the snow and lifted off.
31
Define wet snow.
Snow that has grains which are coated with liquid and bonds together when compacted. Makes a very good snowball.
32
Max water depth for operations
.25 inches
33
Max slush depth for operations
.50 inches
34
Max wet snow depth for operations
.75 inches
35
Max dry snow depth for operations
4.0 inches
36
Minimum plowed width for runways
75 feet
37
Minimum plowed width for taxiways
50 feet
38
Minimum climb speed in icing conditions
Vclimb+20 kts
39
Forward cargo compartment weight limit
910 lbs
40
Total aft cargo compartment limit enhanced weight
2,545 lbs
41
Total aft cargo compartment limit high gross weight
3,765 lbs
42
Aft cargo shelf weight limit
1,000 lbs
43
Definition of child for weight and balance
between ages 2 and 12
44
Average passenger weights, summer
Adult 190 lbs; child 82 lbs
45
Average passenger weights, winter
Adult 195 lbs; child 87 lbs
46
Flight crew average weight
Pilot 210 lbs; FA 180 lbs; ACM 190 lbs
47
What performance does Method 1 planning require?
Engine fails anywhere from V1 to destination: must clear obstructions by 1,000 ft and 5 SM either side of route; must have positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above destination
48
What performance does Method 2 planning require?
Engine fails at cruise altitude: able to drift down with 2,000 ft clearance on 5 SM either side of route; must have positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above destination
49
What is required to list an alternate airport for Method 2 drift down?
C055 alternate wx minimums
50
What restrictions apply to the use of TOLD cards?
1. not for use on contaminated or wet runways 2. zero slopes 3. no tailwind 4. no fluid speeds NOTE: add speeds manually for icing landings
51
Takeoff or landing with a tailwind in excess of 20 kts is not permitted under the following conditions:
1. antiskid inop 2. nose wheel steering inop 3. reduced power takeoff 4. spoilers inop in ground mode 5. bleed "on" takeoff 6. contaminated runways 7. reduced Np landing 8. icing conditions 9. windshear 10. captain not PF 11. high mins captain
52
Reduced power takeoffs are not permitted under the following conditions:
1. tailwinds more than 10 kts 2. antiskid inop 3. bleeds "on" unless per supp 61 4. contaminated runways 5. mtop or up trim disabled 6. windshear 7. special procedure requires full power 8. runway surface unpaved 9. runway slope greater than 2% NOTE: torque must exceed 80%
53
Reduced Np landings are not permitted under the following conditions:
steep approaches, contaminated runways
54
Minimum Flap Speeds
Flaps 0 175 KIAS Flaps 5 160 KIAS Flaps 10 150 KIAS Flaps 15 145 KIAS (may be lower in landing config)
55
What can you do to increase operating safety margin in mountainous terrain?
being on planned route, ice accumulation on unheated surfaces, use of ice protection systems when not planned, flying at optimum speeds, and enroute temp
56
What is M1METW?
max allowable weight at which the aircraft can takeoff and still comply with Method 1
57
What variables does Method 1 take into account?
forecast winds & temps aloft | planned bleed use and ice protection configuration
58
What method is used for takeoff alternate?
method 1
59
What additional factors must be taken into consideration before accepting or requesting off route clearances?
grid MORAs single engine service ceiling driftdown calculations
60
What is the ice protection system "ON" service ceiling hit?
subtracts 4750 feet from single engine service ceiling
61
What is the FAR requirement for depressurization?
that in the event of a sudden depressurization, the airplane must be able to descend to 14,000' or below in 4 minutes or less FAR 121.333
62
When is depressurization escape route not required?
if no terrain along the planned route exceeds 12,000'
63
Dispatch suitability for depressurization escape route alt airport
listed on depressurization plan meets approach plate weather mins has sufficient landing field length NOTAMS still must be checked
64
What do the RED BLOCKS on the depressurization escape route map mean?
contains obstacles higher than 12,000'
65
What do the numbers mean in the red blocks on the depressurization escape route chart?
64 = 16,400 (2000 feet above highest peak)
66
What is the PF set up on MFD for terrain?
40 NM range, DATA (APT), TERR on NAV screen of MFD
67
Flight deck setup for PM for high terrain?
Range as appropriate, weather radar as req, DATA (APT)
68
When is a mountainous terrain briefing required?
When terrain is greater than 10,000'
69
Indications of windshear
10 kts of airspeed 500 fpm vertical speed 5 degrees of pitch 1 dot G/S displacement

Dash 8 Q400 3 KL (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions