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Dash 8 Q400 3 KL > SOP > Flashcards

SOP Flashcards

1
Q

Define Wet Runway.

A

A runway is considered as wet when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.

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2
Q

Define “land immediately at the nearest suitable airport”.

A

Land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, that offers sufficient runway landing distance available and if required, emergency services to support the emergency or abnormality.

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3
Q

Define sterile flight deck policy.

A

Below 10,000 ft. MSL, pilots must comply with the following: 1. Flight Deck conversations are kept to those essential to the flight 2. FMS data input and set up are kept to a minimum 3. No paperwork or duties not related to aircraft operation

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4
Q

When can you reset a tripped circuit breaker in flight?

A
  1. It is imperative for the safe completion of the flight. 2. Where a QRH checklist directs resetting
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5
Q

Rules for refueling with pax on board

A
  1. FA advised if flight deck crew member leaves 2. Both FAs onboard 3. No Smoking sign on 4. No photographic equipment within 10 feet 5. No oxygen administered 6. L1 and L2 used as unobstructed exits 7. Air stair door remains open 8. Emergency lights armed and fasten belts sign off 9. Use of person electronic devices prohibited 10. No lighting within 5 miles
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6
Q

Nose gear oleo strut extension

A

1 to 3 inches

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7
Q

Main gear oleo strut extension

A

1.5 to 4.5 inches

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8
Q

Which lights do not illuminate during a caution/advisory light test?

A

Engine select/start lights, pressurization FAULT, and alternate wiper on light

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9
Q

At what weather must the captain execute the takeoff?

A

less than 1600 RVR or 1/4 mile

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10
Q

What special things must be done for a lower than standard visibility takeoff?

A
  1. takeoff alternate 2. standing start 3. no turns below 1000 AGL 4. runway localizer used 5. no checklists while taxiing 6. use low vis charts
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11
Q

What visual aids are needed for a touchdown RVR 1600 or 1/4 sm mile visibility takeoff?

A

at least one: HIRL, CL, RCLM, adequate visual reference

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12
Q

What RVR is controlling for RVR 1600 or 1/4 sm mile visibility takeoff?

A

touchdown, mid may be substituted

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13
Q

What visual aids are needed for a touchdown RVR 1200 and rollout RVR 1000 takeoff?

A

At least one: CL, HIRL, RCLM (day)

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14
Q

What RVR is controlling for touchdown RVR 1200 and rollout RVR 1000 takeoff?

A

touchdown and rollout are controlling, mid may substitute for touchdown or rollout, far end may substitute for rollout

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15
Q

What visual aids are required for a touchdown RVR 600, mid RVR 600, rollout RVR 600 takeoff?

A

all: CL, HIRL

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16
Q

What RVR is controlling for touchdown RVR 600, mid RVR 600, rollout RVR 600 takeoff?

A

only 2 installed: touchdown and rollout are both required and controlling. only 3 installed: touchdown , mid, and rollout are controlling, one can be inop. 4 installed: far end may substitute for rollout

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17
Q

When is the only time the immediate return checklist can be used?

A

prior to completing an after takeoff check, otherwise in range checklist must be used

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18
Q

Describe Type I climb.

A

210 KIAS until 15,000 feet then reduce IAS by 5 kts every 1,000 ft

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19
Q

Describe Type II climb.

A

185 KIAS until 20,000 feet then reduce IAS by 5 kts every 1,000 ft

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20
Q

Describe Type III climb.

A

160 KIAS

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21
Q

Noise abatement takeoff

A

climb at V2+10 knots (max 20 knots) up to 1,000 ft above airport elevation; at 1,000 ft accelerate to flap retraction speed, retract flaps, and reduce to climb power, fly speed V2+20 knots; at 3,000 ft above airport elevation transition to normal en-route climb speed

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22
Q

Cruise altimeter readings must be within how many feet?

A

60 ft varied linearly to 180 ft

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23
Q

Recommended holding speed

A

190 KIAS

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24
Q

At what temperature must you utilize the cold temperature compensation in the FMS?

A

-10 degrees celsius or below

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25
Q

Stabilized approach criteria

A
  1. constant angle / rate of descent 2. all briefings and checklists complete by 1000’ (IFR) or 500’ (VFR) 3. proper flight path 4. in landing configuration 5. No less than VREF 6. VREF+20 (1000 ft) and VREF+10 (500 ft) 7. Threshold at VREF to VREF+5 7. GS < 1 dot, LOC < 1 dot 8. No greater than 1000 fpm descent
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26
Q

Required visibility for visual approach at night

A

5 sm

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27
Q

Pre takeoff representative surfaces check include:

A

left and right windshield wiper’s arm and blade, visible portion of left and right wing leading edge, visible portion of roll spoilers in the raised position

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28
Q

How much frost is acceptable for takeoff?

A

up to 1/8 inch on lower wing due to cold fuel and/or this hoarfrost on top of fuselage

29
Q

Define dry snow.

A

Snow with limited water content. Normally flies into a cloud when kicked and dissipates rapidly. OAT is generally below 1C. May become “wet” if exposed to bright sun.

30
Q

Define slush.

A

Soft and mushy. Water drips off the palm when the palm is placed on the snow and lifted off.

31
Q

Define wet snow.

A

Snow that has grains which are coated with liquid and bonds together when compacted. Makes a very good snowball.

32
Q

Max water depth for operations

A

.25 inches

33
Q

Max slush depth for operations

A

.50 inches

34
Q

Max wet snow depth for operations

A

.75 inches

35
Q

Max dry snow depth for operations

A

4.0 inches

36
Q

Minimum plowed width for runways

A

75 feet

37
Q

Minimum plowed width for taxiways

A

50 feet

38
Q

Minimum climb speed in icing conditions

A

Vclimb+20 kts

39
Q

Forward cargo compartment weight limit

A

910 lbs

40
Q

Total aft cargo compartment limit enhanced weight

A

2,545 lbs

41
Q

Total aft cargo compartment limit high gross weight

A

3,765 lbs

42
Q

Aft cargo shelf weight limit

A

1,000 lbs

43
Q

Definition of child for weight and balance

A

between ages 2 and 12

44
Q

Average passenger weights, summer

A

Adult 190 lbs; child 82 lbs

45
Q

Average passenger weights, winter

A

Adult 195 lbs; child 87 lbs

46
Q

Flight crew average weight

A

Pilot 210 lbs; FA 180 lbs; ACM 190 lbs

47
Q

What performance does Method 1 planning require?

A

Engine fails anywhere from V1 to destination: must clear obstructions by 1,000 ft and 5 SM either side of route; must have positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above destination

48
Q

What performance does Method 2 planning require?

A

Engine fails at cruise altitude: able to drift down with 2,000 ft clearance on 5 SM either side of route; must have positive net gradient at 1,500 feet above destination

49
Q

What is required to list an alternate airport for Method 2 drift down?

A

C055 alternate wx minimums

50
Q

What restrictions apply to the use of TOLD cards?

A
  1. not for use on contaminated or wet runways 2. zero slopes 3. no tailwind 4. no fluid speeds NOTE: add speeds manually for icing landings
51
Q

Takeoff or landing with a tailwind in excess of 20 kts is not permitted under the following conditions:

A
  1. antiskid inop 2. nose wheel steering inop 3. reduced power takeoff 4. spoilers inop in ground mode 5. bleed “on” takeoff 6. contaminated runways 7. reduced Np landing 8. icing conditions 9. windshear 10. captain not PF 11. high mins captain
52
Q

Reduced power takeoffs are not permitted under the following conditions:

A
  1. tailwinds more than 10 kts 2. antiskid inop 3. bleeds “on” unless per supp 61 4. contaminated runways 5. mtop or up trim disabled 6. windshear 7. special procedure requires full power 8. runway surface unpaved 9. runway slope greater than 2% NOTE: torque must exceed 80%
53
Q

Reduced Np landings are not permitted under the following conditions:

A

steep approaches, contaminated runways

54
Q

Minimum Flap Speeds

A

Flaps 0 175 KIAS
Flaps 5 160 KIAS
Flaps 10 150 KIAS
Flaps 15 145 KIAS (may be lower in landing config)

55
Q

What can you do to increase operating safety margin in mountainous terrain?

A

being on planned route, ice accumulation on unheated surfaces, use of ice protection systems when not planned, flying at optimum speeds, and enroute temp

56
Q

What is M1METW?

A

max allowable weight at which the aircraft can takeoff and still comply with Method 1

57
Q

What variables does Method 1 take into account?

A

forecast winds & temps aloft

planned bleed use and ice protection configuration

58
Q

What method is used for takeoff alternate?

A

method 1

59
Q

What additional factors must be taken into consideration before accepting or requesting off route clearances?

A

grid MORAs
single engine service ceiling
driftdown calculations

60
Q

What is the ice protection system “ON” service ceiling hit?

A

subtracts 4750 feet from single engine service ceiling

61
Q

What is the FAR requirement for depressurization?

A

that in the event of a sudden depressurization, the airplane must be able to descend to 14,000’ or below in 4 minutes or less

FAR 121.333

62
Q

When is depressurization escape route not required?

A

if no terrain along the planned route exceeds 12,000’

63
Q

Dispatch suitability for depressurization escape route alt airport

A

listed on depressurization plan
meets approach plate weather mins
has sufficient landing field length
NOTAMS still must be checked

64
Q

What do the RED BLOCKS on the depressurization escape route map mean?

A

contains obstacles higher than 12,000’

65
Q

What do the numbers mean in the red blocks on the depressurization escape route chart?

A

64 = 16,400 (2000 feet above highest peak)

66
Q

What is the PF set up on MFD for terrain?

A

40 NM range, DATA (APT), TERR on NAV screen of MFD

67
Q

Flight deck setup for PM for high terrain?

A

Range as appropriate, weather radar as req, DATA (APT)

68
Q

When is a mountainous terrain briefing required?

A

When terrain is greater than 10,000’

69
Q

Indications of windshear

A

10 kts of airspeed
500 fpm vertical speed
5 degrees of pitch
1 dot G/S displacement

Dash 8 Q400 3 KL (16 decks)

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