Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dash 8 Q400 3 KL > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum flight crew

A

One pilot

One copilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Enhanced gross weight

Ramp weight

A

65,400 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Enhanced gross weight

Maximum takeoff weight

A

65,200 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Enhanced gross weight

Maximum landing weight

A

62,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Enhanced gross weight

Maximum zero fuel weight

A

58,000 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Center of gravity limits

Enhanced gross weight

Forward limit

A

13.8% MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Center of gravity limits

Enhanced gross weight

Forward limit (53,000 lbs thru 65,200 lbs)

A

13.8% thru 17.7% MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Center of gravity limits

Enhanced gross weight

Aft limit

A

36.0% MAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maneuvering limit load factors

Flaps retracted

A

+ 2.5 g

- 1.0 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maneuvering limit load factors

Flaps extended

A

+ 2.0 g

0.0 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance between main fuel tanks

A

600 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum operation speed (Vmo)

0 to 8,000 ft

A

245 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum operation speed (Vmo)

10,000 ft

A

282 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum operation speed (Vmo)

18,000 ft

A

286 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Maximum operation speed (Vmo)

20,000 ft

A

275 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Maximum operation speed (Vmo)

25,000 ft

A

248 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Flaps extended speed (Vfe)

Flaps 5

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Flaps extended speed (Vfe)

Flaps 10

A

181 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Flaps extended speed (Vfe)

Flaps 15

A

172 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Flaps extended speed (Vfe)

Flaps 35

A

158 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maneuvering speed (Va)

A

204 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Landing gear operating speed (Vlo)

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Landing gear extended speed (Vle)

A

215 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rough air speed

A

210 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alternate gear extension speed

A

185 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

25,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Maximum operating altitude for takeoff and landing

A

10,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For approach minimums on straight in and circle approaches the DHC-8-402 is a category __ aircraft.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The aircraft is only authorized for Cat __ approach minimums

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maximum runway slopes approved for takeoff and landing

A

+ 2%

- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff with flaps 10 or 15 or landing with flaps 35

A

20 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff with flaps 5 of landing with flaps 10 or 15

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

All flaps 35 landings will be done with a maximum flap setting of…

A

15 during the approach to the final segment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Minimum runway width

A

100 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing on a hard, dry or wet runway

A

32 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maximum crosswind component approved for takeoff and landing on a runway contaminated with dry loose snow or compacted snow

A

18 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Maximum crosswind component approved for takeoff and landing on a runway contaminated with standing water, slush, or wet snow

A

14 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Contaminated runway definition

A

More than 25% of surface is covered by any standing water, ice, slush, or snow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Airplane maximum operating ambient temperature limit

A

50C or ISA +35C, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Airplane minimum operating ambient temperature limit

A

-54C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If you park the airplane in temperatures lower than -15C for longer than 3 hours…

A

you must permit a warmup period for the displays that follow before they become functional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Setting takeoff power prior to brake release with the nose of the airplane more than 45 degrees out of the wind…

A

is prohibited for wind speed greater than 8 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Taxi limitations

A

Single engine taxi is not authorized

Reverse taxi is not authorized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Maximum taxi speed when clear of the runway environment

A

30 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Maximum taxi speed on contaminated surfaces

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tank 1 and 2 auxiliary fuel pumps must be…

A

on for takeoff and landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Fuel heater limitation

A

Continuous operation with fuel heater outlet temperature indication below 0C or above 71 C is prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Minimum oil pressure

A

44 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Oil pressure normal operating range

A

61 to 72 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Transient minimum oil pressure

A

44 to 61 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Minimum oil temperature for start

A

-40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Minimum oil temperature above FLT IDLE

A

0C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Minimum oil temperature at DISC

A

-40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Minimum oil temperature to unfeather the propeller

A

-18C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Maximum oil temperature at DISC

A

107C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Maximum continuous oil temperature PLA between DISC and FLT IDLE

A

125C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Minimum oil temperature above FLT IDLE

A

0C (55C for takeoff in icing conditions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Maximum oil temperature above FLT IDLE

A

107C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Maximum continuous oil temperature above FLT IDLE

A

107C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Minimum oil temperature required to ensure engine air inlet ice protection in flight and within 3 minutes of setting takeoff power

A

65C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

APU is approved for…

A

ground operations only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

APU must be shutdown…

A

prior to takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

APU must not be operated unattended…

A

with passengers onboard.

during pressure refueling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

APU must not be operated during…

A

gravity refueling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

APU ambient temperature lower

A

-35C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

APU ambient temperature upper

A

+50C or ISA +35C, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

With APU inlet louvres installed, APU operation is limited to ___ maximum ambient temperature.

A

+21C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

APU starter cranking limits

A

60 secs on, 5 mins off

60 secs on, maintenance action is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Propeller make and model

A

Dowty Aerospace R408

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Powerplant make and model

A

Pratt & Whitney PW150A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Powerplant ambient temperature limitation

A

-54C to +50C or ISA +35C, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Takeoff or landing with the bypass doors open or setting MTOP or MCP in flight with the bypass doors open, is prohibited at or above a maximum ambient temperature limitation of ___.

A

ISA +25C

73
Q

Maximum altitude for air-start

A

20,000 ft

74
Q

Automatic takeoff power uptrim

A

10% torque (nominal)

75
Q

Max takeoff (MTOP) (limited to 5 mins)

Max Torque

A

106%

76
Q

Max takeoff (MTOP) (limited to 5 mins)

Max ITT

A

880C

77
Q

Max takeoff (MTOP) (limited to 5 mins)

Max Nl

A

100% rpm

78
Q

Max takeoff (MTOP) (limited to 5 mins)

Max Nh

A

100% rpm

79
Q

Max takeoff (MTOP) (limited to 5 mins)

Max Np

A

1020 (maximum allowable continuous overspeed is 1071 rpm)

80
Q

Max takeoff (MTOP) (limited to 5 mins)

Oil press

A

61 to 72 PSID

81
Q

Max takeoff (MTOP) (limited to 5 mins)

Oil temp

A

0 to 107C

82
Q

Normal takeoff (NTOP)

Max torque

A

90.3 (NTOP torque indication will be 90% or 91%)

83
Q

Normal takeoff (NTOP)

Max ITT

A

The normal takeoff ITT limit for a given ambient air temperature is given in “Variation of ITT with Ambient Air Temperature for NTOP”.

84
Q

Normal takeoff (NTOP)

Max Nl

A

The normal takeoff Nh and Nl limit for a given ambient air temperature is given in “Variation of Nh and Nl with Ambient Air Temperature for NTOP”.

85
Q

Normal takeoff (NTOP)

Max Nh

A

The normal takeoff Nh and Nl limit for a given ambient air temperature is given in “Variation of Nh and Nl with Ambient Air Temperature for NTOP”.

86
Q

Normal takeoff (NTOP)

Max Np

A

1020 (maximum allowable continuous Np overspeed is 1071 rpm)

87
Q

Normal takeoff (NTOP)

Oil press

A

61 to 72 PSID

88
Q

Normal takeoff (NTOP)

Oil temp

A

0 to 107C

89
Q

Max continuous (MCP)

Max torque

A

100%

90
Q

Max continuous (MCP)

Max ITT

A

880C

91
Q

Max continuous (MCP)

Max Nl

A

100% rpm

92
Q

Max continuous (MCP)

Max Nh

A

100% rpm

93
Q

Max continuous (MCP)

Max Np

A

1020 (maximum allowable continuous Np overspeed is 1071 rpm)

94
Q

Maximum continuous (MCP)

Oil pressure

A

61 to 72 PSID

95
Q

Maximum continuous (MCP)

Oil temperature

A

0 to 107C

96
Q

Starting

Max ITT

A

920 (20 seconds maximum)

97
Q

Starting

Oil pressure

A

100 Max 165 (maximum oil pressure at discing with OAT below 0C) PSID

98
Q

Starting

Oil temperature

A

-40C min

99
Q

Transient (20 seconds maximum)

Max torque

A

135%

100
Q

Transient (20 seconds maximum)

Max ITT

A

920C

101
Q

Transient (20 seconds maximum)

Max Nl

A

102.3% rpm

102
Q

Transient (20 seconds maximum)

Max Nh

A

101.2% rpm

103
Q

Transient (20 seconds maximum)

Max Np

A

1173 rpm

104
Q

Transient (20 seconds maximum)

Oil temperature

A

125C Max (5 seconds maximum for torque values above flight idle and less than 55%)

105
Q

Transient (20 seconds maximum)

Oil pressure

A

44 to 61 PSID

72 to 100 PSID

106
Q

Max reverse

Max torque

A

35%

107
Q

Max reverse

Max ITT

A

880C

108
Q

Max reverse

Max Nl

A

100% rpm

109
Q

Max reverse

Max Nh

A

100% rpm

110
Q

Max reverse

Max Np

A

1020 rpm

111
Q

Max reverse

Oil pressure

A

61 to 72 PSID

112
Q

Max reverse

Oil temperature

A

0 to 107C

113
Q

Powerplant starter cranking limits

A

70 secs on, 2 mins off
70 secs on, 2 mins off
70 secs on, 30 mins off

114
Q

Maximum torque ground operation

A

100%

115
Q

Minimum Nh ground operation

A

64.2%

116
Q

Maximum wind speed for ground operation with the nose of the airplane more than 30 degrees out of the wind

A

50 kts

117
Q

For wind speed greater than 8 knots with the nose of the airplane more than 30 degrees out of the wind the maximum power for ground maneuvering

A

9 to 20 kts - FLT IDLE (momentarily above)
21 to 35 kts - FLT IDLE
36 to 50 kts - FLT IDLE

118
Q

Ground operations in winds greater than 50 knots must be…

A

recorded and the maximum wind speed provided to maintenance within 24 hours.

119
Q

For wind speed greater than 8 knots with the nose of the airplane more than 30 degrees out of the wind the maximum power for ground static operation

A

9 to 20 kts - PLA at 60 degrees
21 to 35 kts - FLT IDLE
36 to 50 kts (gusts to 55 kts) - DISC

120
Q

Inflight operation of the power levers aft of the FLT IDLE gate is…

A

prohibited.

121
Q

Minimum SAT for engine relight

A

-40C

122
Q

Standby, Auxiliary, and Main Battery

Maximum load meter reading for takeoff

A

0.1

123
Q

Standby, Auxiliary, and Main Battery

Minimum battery temperature for takeoff

A

-20C

124
Q

AC Gen, DC Gen, and TRU

Maximum load air/ground

A

1.0

125
Q

Maximum altitude for extending or extended landing gear or wing flaps

A

15,000 ft

126
Q

Maximum tire speed

A

182 kts

127
Q

Normal cabin pressure differential limit

A

5.46 +/- 0.1 psi

128
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential limit

A

5.95 psi

129
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential limit during taxiing, takeoff and landing

A

0.5 psi

130
Q

Maximum cabin altitude (pressurized flight)

A

8,000 ft

131
Q

Wheel brake cooling limits

A

Brake cooling times must be observed between a landing or a low-energy rejected takeoff and a subsequent takeoff to ensure that sufficient brake energy is available to bring the airplane to a complete stop if the subsequent takeoff is rejected.

132
Q

Engine intake bypass doors must be…

A

open for engine operation in icing conditions.

133
Q

What ice is detected the AIRFRAME MODE SELECT selector must be…

A

positioned at FAST.

134
Q

Definition of icing conditions

A

Icing conditions exist when the SAT on the ground and for takeoff is 10C or below, or SAT in flight is 5C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals). Icing conditions also exist when the SAT on the ground and for takeoff is 10C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.

135
Q

AFCS is approved for autopilot approaches to…

A

CAT I limits only.

136
Q

APP mode, autopilot engaged approaches, is approved for:

A

a. Flap 0 (minimum altitude 1,000 ft agl)

b. Flap 5, 10, 15, and 35

137
Q

Autopilot must be disengaged…

A

in severe icing.

in severe atmospheric turbulence.

138
Q

During autopilot operation the pilot must…

A

be seated at the controls with harness secured.

139
Q

Use of VOR without associated DME…

A

is prohibited in APP mode.

140
Q

After takeoff or go around the minimum height for autopilot engagement is _____.

A

1000 ft agl

141
Q

For non-precision approaches the autopilot must be disengaged at or above _____.

A

200 ft agl

142
Q

An autopilot approach must not be continued past the final approach fix or 1000 feet agl, whichever is lower,…

A

with an inoperative engine.

143
Q

Autopilot and flight director only approaches are approved for glideslope angles of ___ to a maximum of ___.

A

2.5 degrees to a maximum of 4 degrees

144
Q

Autopilot approaches have been demonstrated in crosswind components up to ____. This is not considered limiting.

A

18 kts

145
Q

On precision approaches the autopilot must be disengaged at or above a minimum altitude of ______.

A

200 ft agl

146
Q

The use of Vertical Speed Mode (VS) for climbs greater than ______ altitude change are prohibited.

A

2000 ft

147
Q

Cargo compartment limitation

A

Unless the forward and aft cargo compartments are empty, the airplane must not be operated further than 1 hour flying time from a suitable airport for landing.

148
Q

Flight compartment limitation

A

HOT MIC switches on the pilot and copilot ARCDU must be OFF and the INT/RAD switch on the observers Audio Control Panel must be centered when using the cockpit speakers.

149
Q

Integrated Standby Instrument limitation

A

With Integrated Standby Instrument installed the airplane must not be operated further than 1 hour flying time from a suitable airport for landing.

150
Q

To ensure uninterrupted operation of the pilot’s and copilot’s PFD, MFD, and ED…

A

electrical power must be cycled on all displays once every 24 hours.

151
Q

Approach navigation is…

A

prohibited with the FMS database expired.

152
Q

IFR enroute and terminal navigation is…

A

prohibited with the FMS database expired unless the pilot verifies the waypoints for accuracy by reference to current publications.

153
Q

When using previously stored flight plans and waypoints…

A

the waypoints must be verified for accuracy by reference to current publications prior to their use.

154
Q

The aircraft must have approved navigation equipment appropriate to…

A

the route of flight installed and operating so as to provide an alternate means of navigation.

155
Q

Flight above 73 degrees north latitude and below 60 degrees south latitude using the FMS may be conducted only…

A

when magnetic variation is input manually into the system or an alternate true heading source is used and no manual variation has been input.

156
Q

Fuel display parameter is advisory only and…

A

must not be used as the primary means for computing fuel load and range.

157
Q

Instrument approaches must be conducted in the approach mode and for GPS approaches…

A

RAIM must be available at the final approach fix.

158
Q

The FMS may only be used for navigation guidance if the reference coordinated data system for the intended route…

A

is referenced to in WGS-84 or NAD-83.

159
Q

Instrument approaches must be accomplished in accordance with…

A

instrument approach procedures that are retrieved from the FMS database.

160
Q

On RNAV approaches where vertical guidance (VNAV mode) is used…

A

the company must bug MDA plus 50 ft. This is referred to as a derived descent altitude (DDA) and allows for dip during a missed approach without descending below the charted LNAV MDA.

161
Q

Navigation by means of pilot-defined non published approaches…

A

under instrument meteorological conditions is prohibited.

162
Q

P-RNAV operations may only be conducted…

A

with the FMS in terminal mode.

163
Q

When altitudes are manually entered before or after the temperature compensation function is activated…

A

it may produce VNAV paths with climb segments and result in a VNAV disconnect.

164
Q

The captain must ensure displayed guidance data for non-usable station is not used for…

A

navigation purposes by the flight crew.

165
Q

The automatic function in the FMS does not always inhibit tuning of…

A

an inoperative or unreliable station.

166
Q

The UNS-1E is approved for…

A

VFR/IFR enroute, terminal, and approach LNAV and VNAV operations.

167
Q

Prior to flight using the FMS for IFR navigation…

A

any DME NOTAM’d as unreliable or in test mode for approach or departure procedures to be flown must be inhibited in the FMS.

168
Q

FMS based ILS and MLS approaches are…

A

prohibited.

169
Q

Whenever navigation is predicated on the FMS…

A

the Operator’s Manual Report No. 2423sv801 (or equivalent at current revision) must be available to the flight crew.

170
Q

VNAV vertical path angles greater than __ in enroute and terminal mode and greater than __ in approach mode are prohibited.

A

6 degrees, 4 degrees

171
Q

SCN 802.2, SCN 802.8: Manually entered altitudes will not have an altitude correction applied when…

A

temperature compensation function is activated.

172
Q

All manually entered altitudes must be adjusted with the appropriate temperature correction before they are…

A

entered into the FMS even if the temperature compensation function is not active.

173
Q

Flight compartment door limitation

A

The flight compartment door must be closed and locked at all times during flight except to provide access and egress as required per the FOM and SOP400.

174
Q

Minimum portable oxygen pressure for dispatch at 70F

A

1600 psi

175
Q

Minimum crew oxygen pressure for dispatch at 70F

A

3 crew 1450 psi, 2 crew 1050 psi

176
Q

Route limitation

A

The route of flight must be within one hour flight time of a suitable airport in still air at normal cruising speed with one engine inoperative.

177
Q

Takeoff alternates for the DHC-8-402 must be within…

A

250 nm of the departure airport.

178
Q

Republic airlines imposed light limitations

A

On the ground operation of landing lights (approach and flare) is limited to 5 minutes.

179
Q

Kinds of operation

A

Day and night VFR
IFR
Icing Conditions

Dash 8 Q400 3 KL (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions