Soal Dewasa Seri 1 dari 2 Flashcards
Mannitol is a useful diuretic for patients with decompensated heart failure
F
Which of the following conditions is likely to precipitate symptomatic heart failure in patients with previously compensated left ventricular contractile dysfunction ?
All of the above
Digoxin therapy decreases mortality rates in patients with chronic heart failure
F
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressures of 13 to 17 mmHg are commonly responsible for pulmonary vascular redistribution and interstitial edema on the chest roentgenogram
F
Which of the following statements is false regarding coronary thrombosis in UAP and non STEMI?
Thrombosis reduces embolization and facilitates intervention
A 55 year old man with hyperlipidemia and obesity undergoes PCI with sirolimus eluting stenting to LAD to treat his non STEMI. The PCI is successful. His BP is not elevated. Post PCI echocardiogram reveals normal ventricular function and mild mitral regurgitation. His discharge medications should include:
Aspirin 81 mg daily, clopidogrel 75 mg daily, a statin and a beta blocker
A 72 year old woman in severe respiratory distress was taken to the ER by paramedics who intubated her in the field. According to her husband, she started experiencing chest pain 2 hours ago. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia only and has been healthy until she experienced chest pain 2 hours ago. According to the ER physician, her BP is 80/60 mmHg on levophed and her HR is 110 bpm. Her ECG shows 5 mm ST elevation in the anterior leads. The ER is located 3 hours from your hospital with cath lab. The ER physician is certified to place IABP. What should be done next?
Fibrinolytic therapy, IABP and emergency transfer
The patient above is transferred to your hospital. You are waiting for her in the cath lab. She still has ST elevation and she still on levophed with a BP of 80/60 and HR of 120 bpm. She undergo emergent catheterization and is found to have multivessel disease with chronically occluded long RCA stenosis, 80% type A lesion in a moderate size CX artery and 100% LAD lesion. The proximal LAD is filled with thrombus but is a PCI approachable lesion. What should be done next?
Refer to CABG
After primary PCI, which of the following findings is associated with the worst mortality?
TIMI 2 myocardial perfusion grade
Immediate beta blockers should not be used in which of the following situations?
Systolic blood pressure < 100 mmHg
A 72-year-old white female, previously well controlled on a once-daily combination pill containing atenolol 50 mg and hydrochlorothiazide 25 mg, presents with a rise in her blood pressure to 170/110. You add 5 mg of lisinopril, and her creatinine rises from 1.1 to 1.9. What do you suspect?
Atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis
Which of the following scenarios illustrates the most appropriate first-line selection of antihypertensive agent in the hypertensive patient described?
A 32- year-old with chronic migraines is prescribed metoprolol
A 47-year-old male with diabetes presents as a new patient to your clinic. He does not recall any abnormal blood pressure readings. You find his blood pressure to be 138/86 on two readings during this visit. You should
Provide lifestyle counseling and recheck blood pressure within a few months
In which of the following patients is the goal LDL cholesterol not less than 100 mg/dL?
A 63-year-old man with hypertension, tobacco use, and a low HDL
Which of the following statements is false with respect to STEMI versus NSTEMI?
The thrombus in a STEMI is more platelet rich than is the thrombus of a NSTEMI
A 60-year-old man presents with an acute anterior MI. He receives tPA in the emergency room one hour after onset of symptoms with rapid resolution of pain and ST elevations. He is admitted to the coronary care unit feeling well, pain free, and with stable blood pressure and pulse. Which intervention is least appropriate next?
Urgent cardiac catheterization with possible percutaneous coronary intervention
A 72-year-old woman presents to your office with dyspnea and peripheral edema. On examination, her BP is 180/70 mm Hg and her pulse is 100 bpm. She has elevated jugular venous pressure, peripheral edema of the ankles, and a fourth heart sound. All of the following would be reasonable to obtain in the near future except
24-hour Holter monitor
Each of the following is a component of the atherogenic “metabolic syndrome”, except
Serum LDL > 140 mg/dL
A 62-year-old man with chronic congestive heart failure (CHF) due to coronary artery disease has been on a stable medical regimen of lisinopril, aspirin, and furosemide for years. He has been extremely compliant with medications and office visits. He closely monitors his weight daily. In addition to his CHF, he has hypertension, diabetes, and gout. Last month, he suffered a gout flare-up that is being treated with indomethacin. Over the last three weeks he has noticed a gradual decline in exercise tolerance, a weight gain of 5 pounds, and worsening pedal edema. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Discontinue the indomethacin
A 75-year-old man is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. What is the most likely etiology of his valvular disorder?
Degenerative calcific valve