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DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING > Small Animal Orthopedics > Flashcards

Small Animal Orthopedics Flashcards

1
Q

What are the principles of small animal fracture imaging

A

1) At least 2 orthogonal view
2) Joint above and below (for long bone fracture)

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2
Q

With fractures, how many orthogonal views do you need to have

A

at least 2

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3
Q

The fracture line is best seen when the x-ray beam is

A

parallel with the fracture

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4
Q

a radiographic image taken at a 90° angle to another image.

A

orthogonal

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5
Q

How might one fracture have multiple projected fracture lines

A

if the fracture is irregular it has multiple parts where the x-ray beam is parallel with the fracture

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6
Q

What might cause a lucent line that makes you think something is a fracture

A

1) Nutrient foramen
2) Physis
3) Superimposition
4) Sesamoids
5) Separate center of ossification
6) Chronic joint disease

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7
Q

What is a nutrient foramen

A

a channel that allows vessels to enter bone
wide smooth white line
-consistent locations, variable appearance
-present at all ages
-may be surrounded by sclerosis

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8
Q

lucent line during bone growth
consistent locations
disappear at varying ages

A

physis

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9
Q

What should you do if you are unsure you are looking at a physis

A

radiograph opposite limb
look at normal same-age patient
look at a reference textbook

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10
Q

a lucency seen at the edge of superimposed bones
can be confused with a fracture

A

superimposition

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11
Q

present around joints
typical locations but some are variably present
smooth/round or flatedges
can be confused with a fracture

A

sesamoid bones

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12
Q

appears in the ends of long bones after the primary ossification center has formed.
can be confused with a fracture

A

separate center of ossification

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13
Q

joint associated osseous bodies that create small mineral structures that can confused with fracture fragments

A

chronic joint disease

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14
Q

a type of broken bone where the bone is broken into more than two fragments, often into three or more

A

comminuted fracture

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15
Q

a fracture where there are at least 2 full separated fragments

A

complete

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16
Q

What is a greenstick fracture

A

a type of bone fracture where the bone cracks but doesn’t break completely into multiple pieces. It’s named for the way it looks, similar to how a young, green twig bends and cracks instead of snapping cleanly apart

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17
Q

How might greenstick fractures occur

A

young animals- they have bendy bones
sometimes one side bends and the other side breaks

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18
Q

an incomplete fracture that originates at the site of a complete fracture

A

fissure fracture

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19
Q

What might be challenging in repairing a complete fracture with an incomplete fissure fracture

A

the fissure may further break when attempting to fix the fracture

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20
Q

a simple transverse fracture

A

a fracture that is single perpendicular to the long axis of the bone

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21
Q

a simple fracture that is diagnonal at an angle less than 45 degrees

A

Short oblique

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22
Q

a simple fracture that is diagonal at an angle more than 45 degree

A

Long oblique

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23
Q

a simple fracture that twist around the cortex then cuts back to the starting point

A

spiral fracture

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24
Q

How do you describe the location of a fracture

A

-Long bones:
a) diaphysis: which portion
b) metaphysis/epiphysis: proximal or distal one

-Non-long bones (carpal bones, vertebrae)
a) Describe general anatomic location
b) Describe orientation in general terms

*Must meniton articular involvement
If juvenile with open physes, must mention physeal involvement (give salter-harris classification)

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25
Q

When talking about the location of a fracture, why must you mention articular involvement

A

because if it heals improperly, it can lead to severe osteoarthritis
also tells prognosis

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26
Q

When talking about the location of a fracture, why must you mention physeal involvement in a juvenile patient

A

Damage to the physis usually means premature physeal closure, angular limb deformity
Give Salter Harris classification

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27
Q

When a fracture occurs at the metaphysis, what must you include in your description

A

if its the proximal or distal one

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28
Q

What classification is used to descrube damage to the physis

A

Salter-Harris Classification

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29
Q

a fracture that is exposed to air
may be a fragment poking through skin
may be SQ gas bubbles

A

open fracture

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30
Q

What will you see with open fractures

A

gas bubbles

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31
Q

Salter-harris classification:
when the fracture line extends through the physis or within the growth plate

A

Salter I (Slipped)

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32
Q

Salter-harris classification:
when the fracture extends through both the physis and metaphysis. These are most common and occur away from the joint space.

A

Salter II (Above)

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33
Q

Salter-harris classification:
an intra-articular fracture extending from the physis into the epiphysis

A

Salter III (lower)

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34
Q

Salter-harris classification:
an intra-articular fracture, in which the fracture passes through the epiphysis, physis, and metaphysis

A

Salter IV (Thru and Thru)

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35
Q

Salter-harris classification:
due to a crush or compression injury of the growth plate

A

Salter V: Rammed /Ruined

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36
Q

How should you describe displacement of a fracture

A

most distal fragment relative to the most proximal fragment

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37
Q

T/F: displacement is described based on the most proximal fragment relative to the most distal fragment

A

False: most distal fragment relative to the most proximal fragment

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38
Q

T/F: Displacement is described based on the most distal fragment relative to the most proximal fragment

A

True !

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39
Q

a fracture that has 2 or more complete fracture fragments

A

comminuted

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40
Q

What should you do if there is no recognizable main fracture

A

just describe it as comminuted

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41
Q

what is a segmental fracture

A

a fracture where theres two complete fractures with a fracture segment in the middle

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42
Q

a fracture where theres two complete fractures with a fracture segment in the middle

A

segmental fracture

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43
Q

a special comminuted fracture that has a triangle fragment made by two oblique fractures
sometimes said for a middle fragment only involving one side of the cortex

A

butterfly fragment

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44
Q

What are the characteristics of acute fractures in small animals

A

-sharp fracture fragment
-sort tissue swelling

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45
Q

What are the characteristic of chronic fractures in small animals

A

1) Rounded margins
2) Less swelling
3) Some early callus/ periosteal proliferation
4) May have muscle atrophy from favoring that leg

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46
Q

What are the 6 things you must include when describing a fracture *

A

-Simple or comminutd
-Orientation (if simple)
-Complete or incomplete
-Open or closed
-Location
-Displacement

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47
Q

What do pathologic fractures look like

A

often acute fracture (sharp edges and swelling) with less bone in the area that there should be

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48
Q

what do traumatic fractures look like

A

adjacent bone is normal
acute: well-defined fracture margins
chronic: less defined

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49
Q

a fracture where the adjacent bone is normal

A

traumatic fracture

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50
Q

a fracture that is due to any lesion weakening bone, either aggressive or nonaggressive (but typically agressive)

A

pathologic fracture

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51
Q

humeral condyle fractures typically occur in

A

dogs and pot-bellied pigs

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52
Q

What kind of breeds get incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle

A

spaniel breeds and french bulldogs

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53
Q

congenital defect where there is incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle leading to condylar fractures
commonly bilateral
seen in spaniel breeds and french bulldogs

A

incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle -> humeral condyle fracture

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54
Q

T/F: incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle is commonly bilateral

A

True- check contralateral limb

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55
Q

When should fusion across the humeral condyle occur

A

by 3 months
dogs with incomplete ossification of the humeral condyle have lack of fusion across the condyle and are predisposed to fractures

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56
Q

T/F: all humeral condyle fractures are articular

A

true

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57
Q

What is an avulsion fracture

A

a fracture that occurs at a bone due to the attachment of tendon/ligament there

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58
Q

tibial tiberosity avulsion fragments

A

growth plate of the apophysis is weak in a juvenile animal
contralateral limb radiographs are helpful

this causes the tibial tuberosity to become ripped off due to its attachment of the patellar ligament

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59
Q

capital physeal fractures are common in

A

young male neutered cats, especially if obese
-delayed closure of the pelvis (should be closed before 1 year of age)

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60
Q

When should the pelvis be closed

A

by 1 year of age. if this doesnt occur then this can lead to capital physeal fractures

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61
Q

What Salter-Harris classification are capital physeal fractures typically

A

type 1 fracture

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62
Q

What causes capital physeal fractures

A

delayed closure of the physis
-common in young male neutered cats (especially if obese)

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63
Q

T/F: capital physeal fractures are traumatic fractures

A

False- can be spontaneous or with little trauma

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64
Q

What is the most useful view for diagnosis capital physeal fractures

A

frog leg VD

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65
Q

Primary cortical bone healing

A

rarely happens to complete fractures

nondisplaced fracture, no motion, direct bridging of bone

no external callus, internal opaque callus

gradual disappearance of fracture line

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66
Q

Secondary cortical bone healing

A

ideal way of healing
1) Edges of fracture sharp (1-7 days)
2) Edges of fracture fragments Rounded (3-10 days) and widening as demineralization of fragment
3) early osseous callus formation (7-14 days): fracture gap begins to decrease
4) External bridging osseous clalus (4-6 weeks): fracture lines gradually disappear, external callus increases in opacity and remodels
5) Secondary callus and remodeling- several months: continued remodeling of external callus, trabecular pattern develops and cortical margins become visible as medullary cavity re-established

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67
Q

What factors affect bone healing

A

age
blood supply
stability (fracture type, fixation method)
nutritional/metabolic conditions
infection
neoplasia

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68
Q

What is the rule of thumb to tell that a fracture is healed

A

when at least 3/4 of the sides of the crotex are bridged by callus
-sometimes these edges are hidden by impants

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69
Q

How might some fractures radiographically never look healed

A

if they are healed by fibrous union

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70
Q

What are complications with fracture healing

A

-Osteomyelitis (acute/chronic)
-Sequestrum
-Implant failure (plate/pin breaks, screws come out)
-Malunion
-Delayed union
-Non-union (vital and non-vital)

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71
Q

What are the radiographic findings of osteomyelitis after fracture

A

1) irregular callus- not smooth
2)lucency, lysis of bone around implants

*keep in mind that radiographic signs occur 7-10 days after infection

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72
Q

What might be the source of osteomyelitis

A

hematogneous, trauma, implant and/or sequestrum

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73
Q

What is the Uberschwinger artifact

A

an image processing artifact
-symmetric, small faint lucent halo around implants

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74
Q

an image processing artifact
-symmetric, small faint lucent halo around implants

A

Uberschwinger artifact

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75
Q

dense fragment of dead bone that is usually infected

A

sequestrum

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76
Q

new bone around a sequestrum
appears as a lucent pocket

A

involucrum

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77
Q

opening in the involucrum that pus comes out of
not usually seen radiographically

A

cloaca

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78
Q

where bones are healed in abnormal alignment

A

malunion

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79
Q

when fracture healing takes longer than usual after accounting for healing factors (age, type, etc)

A

delayed union

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80
Q

delayed union may increase the risk of

A

implant breaking before the bone is healed

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81
Q

worse than delayed union where there is no progress towards healing

A

Non-union

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82
Q

hypertrophic non-union

A

lots of proliferation adjacent to the fracture but no bridging bone between the fracture segments

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83
Q

oligotrophic non-union

A

little to no proliferation, no bony bridge between segments

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84
Q

atrophic non-union

A

where the bone is resorbing at the edges the the fracture segments

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85
Q

a type of non-union where the segment is necrotic

A

sequestrum

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86
Q

defect non-union

A

large piece of bone missing and its too far for the bone to bridge the gap

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87
Q

5 Types of non-nion

A

1) hypertrophic
2) oligotrophic
3) atrophic
4) necrotic
5) defect

88
Q

What can hypertrophic non-union lead to

A

pseudoarthrosis- happens under chronic motion where the soft tissues form a false joint that is still vital

would need surgery to stabilize so it can heal

89
Q

a non-union where there is no active bony callus
fragments tapering, resorbing at the fracture site
usually in small dogs
probably avital

A

atrophic non-union

90
Q

aggressive bone lesions can either be caused by

A

osteomyelitis (bacterial, fungal, or parasite)
OR
Neoplasia (primary bone tumor, metastatic, multicenteric, soft tissue mass invading bone (joint centered, digit associated, others)

91
Q

What are the 3 criteria that aggressive lesions are likely to have *

A

1) ill-defined margin (long zone of transition)
2) cortical lysis
3) irregular periosteal proliferation

otherwise the lesion is usually nonaggessive

92
Q

With aggressive lesions, why might it be difficult ro assess early

A

because there isnt formation of a lesion yet. recheck with more radiographs to catch aggressive lesions with rapid rate of change

93
Q

T/F: smooth periosteal proliferation means that that the lesion is non-aggresive

A

False- it is typically nonaggressive but this may happen with aggresive lesions

because it only takes one of the criteria to be aggresive
1) ill-defined margin (long zone of transition)
2) cortical lysis
3) irregular periosteal proliferation

94
Q

What are the different types of irregular periosteal proliferation

A

1) Columnar
2) Spiculated

95
Q

when the periosteum becomes lifted by a rapidly growing lesion, especially neoplasia, leaving a triangle of smooth bone under the periosteum

A

Codman triangle

96
Q

What is codman triangle

A

when the periosteum becomes lifted by a rapidly growing lesion, especially neoplasia, leaving a triangle of smooth bone under the periosteum
typically with primary bone tumors

97
Q

What two terms imply a long zone of transition (aggressive)

A

1) Moth eaten
2) permeative

98
Q

Is geographic bone lysis aggressive or nonaggressive

A

it can be either

99
Q

well defined region of bone lysis

A

geographic bone lysis (can be aggressive or nonaggressive)

100
Q

medium to small patches of bone lysis

A

moth-eaten bone lysis (sign of aggressive)

101
Q

small of pinpoint foci of lysis

A

permeative (sign of aggressive)

102
Q

85% of primary bone tumors in dogs is

A

osteosarcoma

103
Q

primary bone tumors primarily affect what kind of dog

A

mostly old dogs, especially large breeds. (small additional peak in incidence around 2 years of age)

104
Q

what part of the long bone do primary bone tumors (ie osteosarc) typically occur

A

almost always metaphysis

105
Q

What joint are primary bone tumors (ie osteosarc) typically not at

A

Elbow

106
Q

primary bone tumors (ie osteosarcoma) are usually monostotic, what does that mean?

A

it only affects one region on one bone
-doesnt often extend into nearby bones
-but can metastasize to other bones

107
Q

How might primary bone tumors look on radiographs

A

can be both osteolytic and osteoproductive
almost always metaphysis of long bone
usually monostotic and very rarely occurs near the elbow

108
Q

where does metastatic neoplasia of the bones typically occur

A

can occur anywhere, diaphyseal, or less commonly the metaphyseal

usually lytic, rarely sclerotic

109
Q

metastatic neoplasia of the bones are typically _____ and rarely _____

A

typically lytic, rarely sclerotic a

110
Q

Common multicentric neoplasia of bone

A

Multiple myeloma
-multifocal regions of bone lysis (looks like swiss cheese)
-patchy or irregular shape

111
Q

What does multiple myeloma look like on radiographs

A

Multifocal regions of bone lysis
patchy or irregular shape

112
Q

What might you confuse with multiple myeloma due to its multifocal regions

A

Osteopenia in older patients
-Distinguish because osteopenia will have small well defined lucencies in typical locations (C2 spinous process)

113
Q

What is the typical site to see osteopenia of older patients

A

C2 spinous process and other cervical v

114
Q

How do you differentiate multiple myeloma from osteopenia

A

Osteopenia: small well defined lucencies in typical locations (commonly C2 spinous process and )

Multiple myeloma: multiple regions of lysis, patchy or irregular shape

115
Q

What are hints that support a soft tissue neoplasia invading bone instead of a primary bone tumor

A

1) Larger soft tissue mass
2) multiple bones involved with one lesion *
3) Joint space crossed *
4) Lysis from “outside” bone
5) More lysis than periosteal reaction

116
Q

joint centered neoplasia

A

soft tissue neoplasia that invades bone
soft tissue mass of the joint
aggressive bone lysis on both sides of the joint
(in contrast primary bone tumore are usually monostotic)

117
Q

What do you see with joint centered neoplasias?

A

aggressive bone lysis on both sides of the joint - this is a type of soft tissue neoplasia.

In contrast, primary bone tumors are usually monostatic

118
Q

What is the origin of digit neoplasia

A

1) Soft Tissue: squamous cell carcinoma
melanoma
mast cell tumor
2) Osteosarcoma
3) Lung digit syndrome (feline)- metastasis from lung

118
Q

What is lung digit syndrome

A

cats get mastastasis from lung to the digits

119
Q

is bacterial osteomyelitis more common in young animals or older animals

A

young animals

120
Q

What is bacterial osteomyelitis associated with

A

trauma, surgery
-occasionally hematogenous
-typically younger animals

121
Q

What does fungal osteomyelitis look like

A

can look like bone neoplasia

122
Q

How is fungal osteomyelitis typically spread

A

hematogenous

123
Q

What are possible causes of an aggressive lesion around an implant

A

1) Osteomyelitis
2) Osteosarcoma

124
Q

What are the causes of fungal osteomyelitis

A

1) Coccidioidomycosis (SW)
2) Blastomycosis (SE/Midwest)
3) Histoplasmosis (SE/Midwest)
4) Aspergillosis

125
Q

What do you see on radiographs with fungal osteomyelitis

A

Animal that is systemically ill, histroy of traveling
1) Diaphysis or or sometimes metaphysis
2) Lysis or irregular periosteal reactions +/- smooth periosteal reactions
3) Can see multiple lesions
4) often polyostotic, sometimes monostotic

126
Q

How do you tell neoplasia from fungal osteomyelitis

A

Raising probably of primary tumor:
-Old animal
-Metaphyseal
-Large amount of tumoral bone production (not periosteal)

Raising probability of fungal:
-young to middle aged animal
-travel history
-other sites of infection or systemic illnesses: lymph nodes, lungs, skin, eyes
-Diaphysis
-Multiple bones

often you can be sure radiographically

127
Q

What factors might increase your probabilty of fungal osteomyeltitis as suppose to neoplasia

A

-young to middle aged animal
-travel history
-other sites of infection or systemic illnesses: lymph nodes, lungs, skin, eyes
-Diaphysis
-Multiple bones

128
Q

What factors might increase your probabilty of neoplasia as suppose to fungal osteomyelitis

A

-Old animal
-Metaphyseal
-Large amount of tumoral bone production (not periosteal)

129
Q

What are your differentials for an aggression lesion centered at the diaphysis

A

fungal osteomyelitis

130
Q

What are your differentials for an aggression lesion centered at the metaphysis

A

primary bone tumor

-metastatic neoplasia and fungal osteomyelitis uncommon

131
Q

often your cant differentiate fungal osteomyelitis from neoplasia on radiographs. What else can you do?

A

1) Lesion sampling: best for lesions with cortical lysis or extra-osseous soft tissue component
-Ultrasound guided FNA
-Bone biopsy

2) Fungal titers or antigen testing

3) Chest radiographs:
-Lung nodules for neoplasia or fungal disease
-Lymph node enlargement for fungal disease (and some types of neoplasia)

132
Q

How might you sample lesions for differentiating between fungal osteomyelitis

A

-Ultrasound guided FNA
-Bone biopsy

best for cortical lysis, or extra-osseous soft tissue component

133
Q

hypertrophic osteopathy results in

A

swollen limbs, lameness, sometimes fever

134
Q

hypertrophic osteopathy starts _______ and progresses ________

A

starts distal and progresses proximal

135
Q

What does hypertrophic osteopathy look like on radiograph?

A

irregular periosteal proliferation of all limbs
-sometimes smooth or only very slightly irregular
-often see columnar

136
Q

T/F: you should sample hypertrophic osteopathy cases

A

False- often unrewarding

*Instead take thoracic radiographs, due to mass in the lung or other places

137
Q

What causes hypertrophic osteopathy

A

mass elsewhere in body
-commonly lung

138
Q

bone cysts (small animals)

A

-rare
-thin cortex (from marked expansion)
-well defined margins

139
Q

What are the 7 radiographic signs of osteoarthrosis in small animals *

A

1) joint capsule swelling (effusion, joint capsule thickening)
2) narrowed joint space
3) subchondral bone sclerosis
4) subchondral bone erosion
5) ostephytes
6) periarticular enthesophytes
7) changes in joint margins/shape

140
Q

why might you not see joint capsule swelling with osteoarthrosis in small animals

A

if there are other extracapsular soft tissue swelling that can occur in region of joint, obscuring it
cant tell if there is swelling

141
Q

what causes joint capsule swelling seen with osteoarthrosis

A

effusion
joint capsule thickening

142
Q

osseous proloferation at the edge of articular cartilage, sign of osteoarthrosis

A

osteophytes

143
Q

flexor enthesopathy

A

enthesophyte on the distal caudal humerus
in dogs can be primary disease
or secondary to other joint disease

144
Q

T/F: joint space narrowing is a reliable sign of osteoarthrosis in small animals

A

false- hard to tell in small animals because they are not standing

usually artifactual in small animals bebecause we dont take weight bearing animals

145
Q

what might cause subchondral bone erosion

A

1) Osteoarthrosis - damage from improper cushioning
2) lysis from septic joint

146
Q

what is an example of changes in the joint margins/shape associated with osteoarthosis

A

flattening of femoral head and thickening of neck

147
Q

developmental defect in cartilage and sunchondral bone

A

osteochondrosis

148
Q

a developmental defect in cartilage and subchondral bone but also a flap of cartilage dissects away either partially or completely causing inflammation in the joint

A

osteochondrosis dissecans

149
Q

what are the radiographic findings of osteochondrosis

A

1) flat subchondral bone or concave lucent defect
2) commonly bilateral
3) surrounding bone sclerosis

150
Q

is OCD commonly unilateral or bilateral

A

bilateral - look at other limb, might have earlier subclinical lesion

151
Q

synovial osteochondral fragment

A

“joint mouse” a joint associated ooseous body
hard to probe the OCD is the cause

152
Q

what are common sites of OCD in small animals

A

Shoulder- caudal aspect of humeral head

Elbow- medial aspect of humeral condyle

Stifle- femoral condyles

Tarsus- trochlear ridges of talus

153
Q

where in the shoulder is a common site for OCD

A

caudal aspect of humeral head

154
Q

where in the elbow is a common site for OCD

A

medial aspect of humeral condyle

155
Q

where in the stifle is a common site for OCD

A

femoral condyles

156
Q

where in the tarsus is a common site for OCD

A

trochlear ridges of talus

157
Q

what might help demonstrate joint instability on radiographs

A

stress views - apply pressure or rotation to the joint

158
Q

You should only do stress views in

A

heavy sedated or anesthetized patients only

159
Q

what might cause joint instability leading to carpal hyperextension

A

1) fall from really high
2) chronic joint disease
3) congenital

160
Q

complete loss of contact between articular margins

A

luxation

161
Q

displacement, contact of articular margins that normally do not
or excessive stretching of joint capsule
or abnromal shape of joint surface, and articular margins cannot make normal contact

A

subluxation

162
Q

abnormal shape of joint surface, and articular margins cannot make normal contact

A

subluxation

163
Q

What are the three definitions of subluxation

A

1) displacement, contact of articular margins that normally do not

2) excessive stretching of joint capsule
or abnromal shape of joint surface

3) articular margins cannot make normal contact

164
Q

displacement, contact of articular margins that normally do not

A

subluxation

165
Q

excessive stretching of joint capsule
or abnromal shape of joint surface

A

subluxation

166
Q

dyplasia of what joints is common in dogs

A

hip and elbow

167
Q

in dogs, significant bilateral osteoarthritis at these sites is oftne assumed to be from

A

dysplasia- especially when early onset

168
Q

hip dysplasia in dogs is almost aways (unilateral or bilateral)

A

bilateral

169
Q

what causes hip dysplasia in dogs

A

increased laxity of hip joints
-position dependent: decreased coverage of the dorsal acetabulum and/or lateral displacement of the femoral head

170
Q

normally the femoral head should by covered _____ by the dorsal acetabular rim

A

> 50%

171
Q

Normal hip joints

A

femoral head: normal shape, >50% coverage of femoral head by dorsal acetabular rim

acetabulum: deep

172
Q

what are the 3 effects of hip dysplasia in dogs

A

1) flattened femoral head
2) shallow acetabulum
3) secondary osteoarthrosis

173
Q

is elbow dysplasia unilateral or bilateral

A

bilateral- need to consider imaging contralateral elbow

174
Q

what might cause elbow dysplasia in a dog

A

1) Ununited anconeal process
2) Elbow incongruity
3) Medial coronoid process disease +/- fragmentation

175
Q

When does ununited anconeal process (UAP) typically occur in dogs

A

separation after 5 months of age
-lucent area that is wide and irregular
-seen better with a flexed lateral view

176
Q

What does ununited anconeal process (UAP) look like on radiograph

A

flexed lateral view
-wide and irregular area of lucency

177
Q

What is the best view to see ununited anconeal process (UAP)

A

flexed lateral view

178
Q

What are the joints that can be associated with elbow joint incongruity

A

1) Humeroulnar
2) Humeroradial
3) Radioulnar

179
Q

where the humerus articular margin doesnt match with the ulna leading to subluxation

A

humeroulnar incongruity

180
Q

what are the radiographic findings of medial coronoid process disease

A

indistinct medial coronoid disease
+/- visible fragment (hard to see on radiograph)
secondary osteoarthritis as a result

181
Q

what are the changes seen with canine septic arthritis

A

1) one or sometimes multiple joints
2) soft tissue swelling (intracapsular +/- extracapsular)
3) +/- subchondral bone lysis depending on duration
4) +/- adjacent sclerosis and periosteal reaction
5) +/- wide joint space
6) +/- secondary osteoarthrosis

182
Q

What is seen radiographically in non erosive immune mediated polyarthritis

A

multiple usually symmetric joints
joint capsule swelling
+/- osteoarthrosis

183
Q

How does IMPA progress

A

starts off with: mild subchondral bone lysis, joint capsule swelling +/- osteoarthrosis

chronic becomes more severe subchondral bone lysis, becomes severe osteoarthrosis, narrowed joint spaces, joint instability, and collapse of cuboidal bones

184
Q

T/F: immune mediated polyarthritis typically occurs in multiple, usually symmetric joints

A

true

185
Q

how might you tell the difference between septic arthritis and erosive IMPA as they both include
1) Soft tissue swelling
2) subchondral bone lysis
3) adjacent periosteal reaction and bone sclerosis
4) Can be polyarticular

A

Joint tap

186
Q

What is seen with erosive IMPA

A

1) Soft tissue swelling
2) subchondral bone lysis
3) adjacent periosteal reaction and bone sclerosis
4) polarticular

187
Q

What breeds of dog is panosteitis common in

A

german shepherd dogs and other large breed dogs

188
Q

what bones does panosteitis typically affect

A

the long bones

189
Q

What kind of dogs does panosteitis typically affect

A

german shepherds and other large breeds dogs
typically 5-18 months (occasionally up to 7 years in german shepherds)

190
Q

What kind of bones does panosteitis typically affect

A

the long bones
-ill or well defined patches of variably faint sclerosis in the medullary cavity
-random distribution
-may see smooth periosteal proliferation in severe cases
-No lysis
-Eventually gets remodeled away

191
Q

T/F: panosteitis is usually self-limiting

A

true- no lysis and eventually becomes remodeled away

192
Q

typically occurs at 5-18 months of the dog’s age
ill or well defined patches of variably faint sclerosis in the medullary cavity of longbones
no lysis

A

panosteitis

193
Q

what kind of dogs does hypertrophic osteodystrophy typically affect

A

large breeds, fast growing dogs 2-7 months of age
become febrile and lame in more than 1 limb

194
Q

hypertrophic osteodystrophy commonly affects which part

A

distal ulna and radius more common
usually bilateral

irregular lucent line in the metaphysis parallel to normal physeal line

195
Q

what has an irregular lucent line in the metaphysis parallel to normal physeal line

A

hypertrophic osteodystrophy

196
Q

What are the radiographic changes seen with hypertrophic osteodystrophy

A

1) irregular lucent line in the metaphysis parallel to normal physeal line
2) +/- adjacent sclerosis
3) Regional soft tissue swelling
4) can see some mild periosteal proliferation (become moderate to severe)
can see premature physeal closure leading to angular defomritiess

197
Q

what is the most common site for a retained cartilage core in dogs

A

distal ulna

198
Q

retained cartilage core is most common in what kind of dogs

A

large to giant breeds

199
Q

What are the radiographic changes seen with retained cartilage core

A

lucent, conical cartilage core in medullary region of ulnar metaphysis
often bilateral

200
Q

retained cartilage core is often (unilateral or bilateral)

A

bilateral

201
Q

lucent, conical cartilage core in medullary region of ulnar metaphysis

A

retained cartilage core

202
Q

What are the most common developmental bone diseases in small animals

A

1) Panosteitis
2) Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
3) Retained cartilaginous core

203
Q

disorders that result in osteopenia

A

1) hyperparathyroidism
2) Disuse osteopenia

also (humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypovitaminosis D, osteogenesis imperfecta)

204
Q

What disorders result in too much bone mineral

A

1) Poloyostotic hyperostosis

hypervitaminosis A
osteopetrosis
a

205
Q

Polyostotic hyperostosis results in osteopenia or too much bone mineral?

A

too much bone mineral

206
Q

hyperparathyroidism can be

A

primary (adenona, carcinoma, or hyperplasia)

secondary- nutritional or renal

207
Q

nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism is most often sen in

A

young patient - leading to +/- folding fractures, +/- angular limb deformities

common in exotics like lizards

208
Q

What species is nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism most commonly seen in

A

Lizards - reptiles need IV lights and vitamin D supplementation

209
Q

with renal secondary hyperparathyroidism where is the loss of bone density seen?

A

early- lamina dura around the teeth
late- fibrous osteodystrohphy

210
Q

with renal secondary hyperparathyroidism where is the loss of bone density worst

A

in the skill

211
Q

What has increased contrast with renal secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

the teeth

212
Q

lack of stress of the bone resulting in overall decreased opacity +/- coarse trabecular pattern in medulla (more conspicious lacy mineral)

A

disuse osteopenia

213
Q

What is seen with disuse osteopenia

A

1) decreased opacity +/- coarse trabecular pattern in medulla (more conspicious lacy mineral)

214
Q

what is polyostotic hyperostosis

A

a condition that causes bones to appear denser and more opaque, and is often observed in birds

215
Q

a condition that causes bones to appear denser and more opaque, and is often observed in birds

A

polyostotic hyperostosis

216
Q
A

DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING (7 decks)

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