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DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING > EQUINE LIMBS > Flashcards

EQUINE LIMBS Flashcards

1
Q

Why might we want to take radiographs of the musculoskeletal system

A

-Answer the clinical questions/ confirm clinical suspision
-Document the extent of the disease +/- progression
-Provide images to direct treatment

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2
Q

Where do equine limb radiographs fit into our workup?

A

-History
-Physical exam
-Lameness exam
-Nerve blocks
-Narrowed differential list
-Use radiographs to rule out clinical suspicion

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3
Q

Why might we take radiographs of horses

A

To look for change associated with
-Osteoarthritis
-Osteochondrosis
-Trauma/fractures
-Infection
-Neoplasia

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4
Q

T/F: osseous neoplasia is common in horses so radiographs are a valuable diagnostic tool in diagnosing this

A

False- although they are valuable

osseous neoplasia is uncommon in horses

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5
Q

What can you see on radiographs

A

1) Bones
2) Soft tissue and fat
3) The space where cartilage lives

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6
Q

What are the 5 opacities

A

1) Gas/Air
2) Fat
3) Soft tissue
4) Mineral
5) Metal

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7
Q

What also affects the opacity we see on radiograph

A

the thickness/volume of the tissue

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8
Q

Radiographs are _____ for bone but ______ for soft tissues

A

good for bone- highest spatial resolution for all modalities (but can only get 2D)

Poor for soft tissues but can give you clues about possible soft tissue injury / involvement

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9
Q

Radiographs are poor for soft tissue but can

A

but can give you clues about possible soft tissue injury/ involvement

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10
Q

How is cross-sectional imaging like CT for the equine musculoskeletal imaging

A

good for bone (less spatial resolution than radiographs)

ok for soft tissues

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11
Q

How is cross-sectional imaging like MRI for equine musculoskeletal imaging

A

ok for bones (Less spacial resolution than radiographs and CT (ie less detail)

great for soft tissues

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12
Q

Are radiographs, CT, or MRI best at soft tissues

A

MRI

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13
Q

Rank the following modalities in spatial resolution on bone

A

Radiographs >CT> MRI

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14
Q

Proximal to the radiocarpal and tarsocrural joint we use what directional terms

A

Cranial/Caudal

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15
Q

Distal to the radiocarpal and tarsocrural joint we use what directional term?

A

Dorsal and palmar/plantar

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16
Q

At what joint in the front limb do we distinguish cranial/caudal vs dorsal/palmar

A

radiocarpal

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17
Q

At what joint in the hind limb do we distinguish cranial/caudal vs dorsal/plantar

A

tarsocrural

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18
Q

Why is more than one projection important

A

to see the different views and know where things are

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19
Q

How many views/projections do we take?

A

Depends on the joint/region

From the carpus/tarsus to the pastern region generally a minimum of four projections for each region

-often more projections for the foot
-fewer for the upper limb as we are restricted by anatomy that gets in the way

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20
Q

Why do we take fewer views/ projections of the upper limb

A

because we are restricted as anatomy gets in the way

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21
Q

For carpus/tarsus to the pastern region we generally take _________

A

generally a minimum of four projections for each region
1) Lateromedial
2) Dorsopalmar
3) DLPMO
4) DMPLO

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22
Q

radiographic projections are named after

A

the path of the xray beam from the generator to the plate

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23
Q

the path of the xray beam from the generator to the plate

A

how radiographic projections are named

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24
Q

Where does the beam enter vs exit in a latero-medial projection

A

Lateral side- where the beam enters

Medial side- where the beam exits (plate side)

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25
Q

Where does the beam enter vs exit in a dorsopalmar projection

A

Dorsal- where the beam enters

Palmar- where the beam exits (plate side)

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26
Q

What is a DLPMO?

A

A dorsolateral to palmaromedial oblique projection

The beam enters the dorsolateral aspect, exits the palmaromedial aspect

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27
Q

The beam enters the dorsolateral aspect, exits the palmaromedial aspect

A

Dorsolateral to Palmaromedial oblique (DLPMO)

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28
Q

In a DLPMO view- where does the beam enter/exit

A

The beam enters the dorsolateral aspect, exits the palmaromedial aspect

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29
Q

created when you move 45 degrees towards the lateral frin the dorsal plane to create an oblique image on the front limb

A

D45LPMO- dorsal 45 degree lateral - palmaromedial oblique

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30
Q

how are images named when they are taken from the palmar/plantar aspect

A

they are still named after the direction of the beam

ex: Palmaromedial to dorsolateral oblique (PMDLO) will create the same image as the DLPMO

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31
Q

T/F: Palmaromedial to dorsolateral oblique (PMDLO) will create the same image as the DLPMO

A

True- they are same image but still named after the direction of the beam

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32
Q

What are hanging protocols

A

set of rules that govern how images are displayed for review.
They automate several aspects of image interpretation, making it more efficient and consistent

1) Head to the left
2) medial to the left
3) Right side on the left

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33
Q

What are the three rules of hanging protocol, used for efficient and consistent interpretation

A

1) Head to the left
2) medial to the left
3) Right side on the lef

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34
Q

According to hanging protocols, the head should be orientated towards the

A

Left

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35
Q

According to hanging protocols, the medial side should be

A

to the left or the right side of left

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36
Q

what is highlighting

A

the margin/edge of the bone that we are seeing well

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37
Q

In a latero-medial image what is being highlighted

A

Dorsal margin
Palmar margin

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38
Q

In a dorso-palmar image what is being highlighted

A

Medial margin
Lateral margin

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39
Q

In a DLPMO image, what is being highlighted?

A

Dorsomedial margin
Palmarolateral margin

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40
Q

Why are markers important

A

1) is it right or left
2) What is medial and what is lateral
-sometimes asymmetric anatomy can help you (e.g carpus)

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41
Q

How do you determine where the markers go

A

the marker goes dorsal or lateral

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42
Q

The marker goes ______ or _____

A

Dorsal or lateral

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43
Q

on an oblique projection, how do you decide where the marker goes

A

It will go lateral (lateral wins over dorsal)

the marker goes along with whichever highlighted margin has lateral in its name

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44
Q

If you have a DMPLO projection of the left front fetlock, how will you determine where the marker is?

A

the dorsal aspect

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45
Q

IF you have a DLPMO projection of the left front fetlock, how will you determine where the marker goes

A

on the plantar side

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46
Q

you have a radiograph of an oblique view and the marker is on the palmar side. What view is this in?

A

DLPMO

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47
Q

T/F: centering on the area of interest is important

A

True

ex: you cant evaluate stifles if they are in the corner of an abdominal radiograph

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48
Q

What is the checklist of 5 things MSK radiographs in horses

A

1) Articular surfaces of the joint - joint space, subchondral bone, adjacent trabecular bone

2) Periarticular region- for osteophytes

3) Areas of soft tissue attachment- enthesophytes (or lysis)

4) Other soft tissue structures- synovial structures (joint pouches/recesses, tendon sheaths, bursae), plane/location of tendons and ligaments, cutaneous margins/soft tissue swelling (intracapsular or extracapsular)

5) Periosteum/ endosteum: irregular/active vs smooth/inactive ; aggressive vs nonaggressive

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49
Q

Why do you examine the peri-articular region

A

For osteophytes

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50
Q

What are you looking for in the articular surfaces of the joint on radiographs

A

1) Joint space
2) Subchondral bone
3) Adjacent trabecular bone

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51
Q

What are you looking for in the areas of soft tissue attachment on radiographs

A

Enthesophytes (or lysis)

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52
Q

osseous proliferation at the articular margin (at the junction of the articular cartilage and the periosteum)

indicator of joint disease

A

Osteophytes

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53
Q

Where are osteophytes

A

at the articular margin (at the junction of the articular cartilage and the periosteum)

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54
Q

Where are enthesophytes located

A

osseous proliferation at the insertion of ligaments/tendons/ joint capsule on the bone

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55
Q

osseous proliferation at the insertion of ligaments/tendons/ joint capsule on the bone

usually grows in the direction of the pull of soft tissue structure

A

Enthesophyte

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56
Q

Enthesophytes usually grow in the direction of

A

usually grows in the direction of the pull of soft tissue structure

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57
Q

What soft tissue structures should you examine on MSK radiographs

A

1) Synovial structures0 joint pouches/recesses, tendon sheaths, bursae
2) Plane/location of tendons and ligaments
3) Cutaneous margins/soft tissue swelling

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58
Q

Intracapsular soft tissue swelling

A

soft tissue swelling on radiograph that is associated with the joint

-effusion, synovitis, synovial hypertrophy

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59
Q

Extracapsular soft tissue swelling

A

soft tissue swelling on radiograph that is associated outside the joint
-cellulitis
-edema
-hemorrhage
-abscess

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60
Q

What are the three signs youll see in aggressive bone lesions

A

1) Cortical destruction
2) Active periosteal rxn
3) Indistinct transition zone

*Only need one of these features to be classified as aggressive

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61
Q

What is an example of a non-aggressive bone lesion

A

normal fracture callus

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62
Q

How do you classify periosteum/endosteum

A

-Irregular/active vs smooth/inactive
-Aggressive vs non-aggressive
-

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63
Q

How do you descrube radiographic changes

A

1) Opacity category (Air, fat, soft tissue/fluid, Mineral, metal)
2) Roentgen signs: Size, shape, margination, opacity, location, number
3) Relative opacity change: ex- increased opacity of the third carpal bone (sclerosis) or ex- bone becomes darker but not so dark it looks like soft tissue- decreased opacity of the patella and medial femoral condyle -> lysis associated with joint sepsis and secodnary osteomyelitis

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64
Q

How do you use Roentgen signs to describe a lesion

A

1) Size
2) Shape
3) Margination
4) Opacity
5) Location
6) Number

example: single, moderate sized, ovoid, well-defined, radiolucent region of proximal radius for an osseous cyst-like lesion of the proximal radius

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65
Q

What are the 6 roentgen signs to describe radiographic changes

A

1) Size
2) Shape
3) Margination
4) Opacity
5) Location
6) Number

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66
Q

different types of complete fractures

A

1) Transverse
2) oblique
3) Spiral
4) Comminuted

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67
Q

the whole bone cortex is not broken

A

incomplete fractures

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68
Q

fractures that involve the growth plate

A

Salter-Harris

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69
Q

How do you describe fractures

A

1) Type
a) Complete: transverse, oblique, spiral, comminuted
b) Incomplete
c) Salter-harris: fractures that involve the growth plate

2) Open vs Closed

3) Location: diaphysis, metaphysis, epiphysis

4) Fx displacement- the distal component displacement in relation to the proximal component

5) Other- joint involvement, underlying bone lesion- if pathological fracture

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70
Q

What is a Salter-harris fracture

A

a fracture that invovles the growth plates

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71
Q

How do you describe fracture displacement

A

the distal component in relation to the proximal component

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72
Q

Fracture displacement is descrubes as

A

the distal component in relation to the proximal component

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73
Q

What can mimic fracture lines

A

Mach lines : an optical phenomenon from edge enhancement
an inbuilt enhancement mechanism of the retina

the edges of darker objects next to lighter objects will appear darker

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74
Q

What are the two parts of a radiographic report

A

1) Radiographic findings: a description of the radiographic abnormalities

ex: a well defined ovoid radiolucent area within the medial femoral condyle with a radiopaque rim that extends to articular surface

2) Radiographic diagnosis/conclusion

ex: osseous-cyst like lesion of the medial femoral condyle with associated sclerosis and articular communication

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75
Q

What are the 7 radiographs routinely taken of the equine foot

A

Full series
1) Lateromedial
2) Dorsopalmar
3) DP-60
4) DP- 65
5) Proximopalmar to distopalmar “navicular skyline”
6) Obliques of P3- D65Pr-45M/LPaO

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76
Q

What areas of soft tissue attachment do you need to look at in the equine foot

A

1) Collateral ligaments
2) Collateral sesamoidean ligament
3) Impar ligament
4) DDFT
5) Joint capsule

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77
Q

What synovial structures do you need to evaluate in the equine foot

A

1) Digital flexor tendon sheath
2) DIP and PIP joints
3) Navicular bursa

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78
Q

What radiograph view is important to see the navicular skyline

A

Proximopalmar to distopalmar

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79
Q

How do you prepare the foot before taking radiographs

A

1) Pick out feet well and brush any dirt from hoofwall
2) Ideally remove shoes
3) Pack sulci with playdoh
4) Sedation and stading square on elevated blocks

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80
Q

What is another name for the DP60 view

A

Solar margin view

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81
Q

a radiograph where the horse is standing on a plate
generator is placed dorsally and moved 60 degree proximally to be centered on the coronary band

A

DP 60 - Dorso60 proximal-palmarodistal

“Solar margin view”

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82
Q

In a DP60 radigraph, the generator is centered on the

A

coronary band

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83
Q

What is the name of a radiograph that has the horse standing on plate
generator is dorsal and moved 65 degrees proximally
collimated down to the navicular bone

A

DP 65- Dorso65Proximal- Palmarodistal

“Navicular DP”

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84
Q

What is another name for the DP65

A

Navicular DP

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85
Q

What is the point of a DP65 radiograph

A

it is good for looking at the margins of the navicular bone and the palmar processes of P3

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86
Q

What does the D60Pr45L/MPaO highlight?

A

the medial and lateral margins of P3 and palmar processes

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87
Q

a view where the horse is standing on a plate and the limb is positioned caudally
generator is positioned palmaroproximal and x ray beams and ejected palmarodistally

A

Palmaroproximal to Palmarodistal (PaPr-Pa-Di)

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88
Q

What is another name for the Palmaroproximal to Palmarodistal (PaPr-Pa-Di)

A

Navicular Skyline

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89
Q

How should the horse be standing for a Palmaroproximal to Palmarodistal (PaPr-Pa-Di)

A

standing on the plate
want the limb positioned caudally

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90
Q

highlights the flexor surface of the navicular bone and allows for evaluation of distinction between cortex and medullary bone

A

Palmaroproximal to Palmarodistal (PaPr-Pa-Di)

“Navicular Skyline”

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91
Q

What are the three types of synovial structures

A

1) JOints
2) Tendon sheaths
3) Bursae

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92
Q

What views are useful to assess overall foot shape/conformation and part of preventative hoof management

A

1) Dorso-palmar (DP)
2) Lateromedial

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93
Q

The phrase for overall shape of the bones and foot

A

hoof balance

hoof imbalance can cause pain

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94
Q

What is normal dorsopalmar balance

A

A positive palmar angle

solar margin angle is between 3 and 8 degrees

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95
Q

The solar margin angle should be about

A

Between 3 and 8 degrees

Positive palmar angle

*on lateral radiograph

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96
Q

What is medial-lateral balance

A

a sign of good foot conformation where
1) same sole depth medial and lateral
2) Joints are parallel to the ground

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97
Q

Medial-lateral imbalance

A

where on DP radiograph you see different sole depths and joints that are compressed on one side and not parallel to the ground

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98
Q

what is negative palmar angle

A

a sign of poor foot conformation where on Lateromedial radiographs you see a solar margin angle of less than 0 degrees

Puts strain on the deep digital flexor tendon and navicular bone

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99
Q

What is the consequence of having a negative palmar angle

A

if the angle is less than 0 degrees this puts stain on the deep digital flexor tendon and navicular bone

“Dorsopalmar imbalance”

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100
Q

Upon lateromedial radiograph of an foot you see a solar margin on 0 degrees. Is this good

A

No this is poor conformation

needs to be between 3 to 8 degrees

work with a ferrier to get more of a heal

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101
Q

What should you always ensure when evaluating foot conformation

A

make sure there is a straight projection

if you take the images not face on then there is artifactual imbalance

straight positioning corrects the false impression of imbalance

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102
Q

What corrects the false impression of foot imbalance

A

straight positioning

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103
Q

What are common disease processes of the phalanges and navicular bone

A

-Osteoarthritis
-Fractures
-Laminitis
-Navicular degeneration
-Misc: foot abscess, pedal osteitis, keratoma, collateral cartilage ossification, penetrating foregin bodies

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104
Q

What causes osteoarthritis of the phalanges in horses

A

Primary: normal wear and tear with age

SecondaryL trauma, soft tissue injury and instability, prior infection

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105
Q

What are radiographic signs of early/mild osteoarthritis in horse phalanges

A

1) Joint effusion. synovitis- intracapsular soft tissue swelling (convexity of soft tissue margin at this level)

2) Periarticular osteophytes

3) Enthesophyte production at joint capsule insertion

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106
Q

What should you consider about the extensor process when interpreting radiographs

A

it can have multiple different variations (double point, blunt single point, single point, or rounded)

so be careful diagnosing osteoarthritis solely on the extensor process of P1

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107
Q

bone fusion across a joint space
can be seen with late/severe osteoarthritis

A

ankylosis

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108
Q

What radiographic evidence do you see with osteoarthritis in the equine phalanges

A

Early/Mild:
1) Joint effusion. synovitis- intracapsular soft tissue swelling (convexity of soft tissue margin at this level)
2) Periarticular osteophytes
3) Enthesophyte production at joint capsule insertion

Late/Severe:
1) Loss of cartilage resulting in narrowing of joint space
2) Subchondral bone sclerosis and/or lucent regions due to demineralization and/or degenerative cystic changes
3) Ankylosis

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109
Q

What changes do you see with late/severe osteoarthritis

A

1) Loss of cartilage resulting in narrowing of joint space
2) Subchondral bone sclerosis and/or lucent regions due to demineralization and/or degenerative cystic changes
3) Ankylosis

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110
Q

How can you tell if there is narrowing of joint space of equine foot

A

Best evaluated on DP projection

DIP is widest and PIP is about 50% the width
Fetlock is 40% the width of DIP

1) Compare to contralateral limb
2) Age/breed comparison
3) Compare to normal in textbook

artifactual if they are not standing square- might show the DIP is smaller

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111
Q

Does the Fetlock, PIP, or DIP have the largest joint space

A

DIP > PIP> Fetlock

PIP is 50% width of DIP
Fetlock is 40% width of DIP

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112
Q

P1 and P2 fractures usually occur by _____ while P3 fractures typically occur when _______

A

P1+P2: during athletic activity

P3: when the horse kicks a stationary object

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113
Q

What are the clinical signs of phalanges fracture in horses

A

lameness +/- joint effusion

positive hoof tester reaction (for P3 fractures)

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114
Q

What might be a clinical sign of P3 fractures

A

positive hoof tester reaction

lameness +/- joint effision

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115
Q

T/F: acute phalanges fractures can be hard to see so you may need to repeat radiographs in several days or weeks where some resoprition of the fracture margins can make them easier to be seen

A

True

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116
Q

P3 fractures can heal with

A

fibrous union -> so may still be evident radiographically even when healed and sound

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117
Q

Why might you see a P3 fracture even though the horse is not lame

A

p3 fractures heal by fibrous union and may still be evident even when healed and sound

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118
Q

What is the main thing to determine with P3 fractures

A

Are they articular or non-articular

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119
Q

Most common P3 fracture

A

Non-articular or articular (Type I and II) palmar/plantar process fracture

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120
Q

Non-articular palmar/plantar process fracture

A

most common P3 fracture

forelimb: impact trauma or repetitive stress (often seen with ossified collateral ligaments)

Hindlimb: usually trauma kicks

Always need oblique views to determine if they are articular

favorable prognosis with rest as non-articular

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121
Q

How do you determine if a P3 fracture is articular

A

you need oblique views to determine this

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122
Q

What else might affect the prognosis/recovery time with P3 fractures

A

if there involvement of the collateral ligament fossa? If so then yes

normally Type 1 P3 fractures are quick recovery

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123
Q

P3 is most commonly fractured at the

A

Palmar/Plantar process

due to impact trauma/ repetive stress (forelimb) or trauma kick (hindlimb)

can be articular or nonarticular

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124
Q

Does Type I or Type II P3 fracture have a better prognosis

A

Type 1 because both of these involve fractures of the palmar/plantar process but type I is non-articular

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125
Q

Type 3 P3 fracture is a _______ fracture of P3

A

Sagittal articular fracture

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126
Q

Type 4 P3 fracture is a ________ fracture of P3

A

Extensor process fracture
-may be incidental or cause of lameness

Acute: sharp margins
Chronic: rounded

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127
Q

Solar margins of P3 occur

A

along the rim of P3
seen with laminitis or previous inflammation (pedal osteitis)

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128
Q

Type VII P3 fractures are only seen in

A

Foals
Palmar process fracture

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129
Q

Palmar process fractures in foals

A

most likely represent acute traumatic fractures or separate center of ossification or developmental orthopedic disease

hard footing and overtrimming are thought to be predisposing factors

thorough bred foals seem to be overrepresented

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130
Q

P2 fractures are commonly found in horses that

A

perform sliding and turning activitying on hindquarters

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131
Q

P2 fractures are typically (simple or comminuted)

A

comminuted and involve articular surfaces of the PIP and DIP

*CT is valuable for these

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132
Q

Why is CT valuable for P2 fractures

A

they are commonly comminuted and involve articular surfaces of the PIP and DIP

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133
Q

What are the 2 forms of P1 fractures

A

Incomplete: Begin at proximal articular surface in the sagittal groove, and extend a variable distance into P1, periosteal rxn can occur

Complete: incomplete can become complete, prognosis for athletic function is significantly affected by articular involvement, can fix with screws

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134
Q

inflammation of the laminae of the foot

very complex condition of blood dlow disruption to snesitive and insensitive lamina of the foot
eventually can lead to separation of P3 from hoof wall

A

laminitis

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135
Q

Laminitis can eventually lead to

A

separation of P3 from the hoof wall

136
Q

What do you see clinically with laminitis

A

lame horse
pain localized to foot
increased digital pulse and heat in hoof

137
Q

Laminitis is common in ______ feet but can occur in all 4

A

front

138
Q

What radiographic views are you going to use for evaluation of laminitis

A

Lateromedial
DP

139
Q

How do you radiographically evaluate laminitis in a horse

A

1) Lateral and DP projections
2) Normal: dorsal P3 and hoofwall are parallel
*Look for dorsal surface of hoof wall, Dorsal P3, and cornary bands

+/- metallic markers- typically not needed

do serial radiographs for progress

140
Q

How might you rule out laminitis

A

Do lateral projection and check
dorsal P3 and hoofwall are parallel

HOWEVER: CLINICAL SIGNS OFTEN PRECEDE RADIOGRAPHIC CHANGES - need to do radiographs to monitor

141
Q

How to you assess normal dorsal hoof wall thickness

A

MEASURE
Proximally: 2mm distal to junction of extensor process and the dorsal cortex of P3

Distally: measure 6mm proximal to the tip of P3

*2 measurements are the same

about 18mm in thoroughbreds but greater in draft and warmblood horses

142
Q

What are the two main types of laminitis

A

1) Rotational
2) Sinking

*Can be combination of both

143
Q

loss of strength of the lamina between the hooft wall and P3 with inflamamtion

Pull on DDFT on P3 causes palmar rotation of P3

May see radiolucent line in dorsal hoof wall = gas between sensitive and insensitive lamina

A

Rotational Laminitis

144
Q

What do you see with rotational laminitis

A

Palmar rotation of P3 (caused by pull of DDFˇ on P3)

145
Q

loss of strength of the lamina between the hoofwall and P3 with inflamamtion and the entire P3 sinks distally within the hoof capsule

A

Sinking laminitis

146
Q

What kind of laminitis would result in a horse’s P3 penetrating through the sole

A

Sinking laminitis

147
Q

What is vital in monitoring laminitis

A

Monitor changes with serial radiographs
radiographic changes can lag behind clinical signs

148
Q

laminitis becomes chronic after

A

3-4 weeks

149
Q

What is seen with chronic laminitis

A

after 3-4 weeks,
1) rotation of P3 generally persists
2) irregularity of dorsal margin of P3 persist; remodeling into ski tip of P3
3) With severe can see resoprtion of P3 and misshapen hoof capsule

150
Q

How do you determine if P3 fractures are articular

A

you need to take an oblique view

151
Q

What affects the prognosis of a P3 fractue

A

1) If articular involvement
2) If involvement of collateral ligament fossa

152
Q

What might cause a type VII (palmar process fracture of P3) in foals

A

1) acute traumatic
2) separate center of ossification
3) developmental orthopedic disease
4) hard footing and overtrimming are predispositions factors
5) thoroughbred foals seem to be overrepresented

153
Q

Why are CTs important in evaluating P2 fractures?

A

because radiographs tend to underestimate the number of fragments in these often times communited fractures involving the PIP and DIP joints

154
Q

What causes rotational laminitis

A

pull of the DDFT on P3 causing palmar rotation of P3

155
Q

What three radiographic findings you see in a horse with rotational laminitis

A

1) Increased Parietal Surface angle (the angle between the dorsal hoof wall and the dorsal P3)

2) Increased solar margin angle (Solar surface of P4 and the ground)

3) Distance in hoof wall thickness between the proximal and distal hoof wall

155
Q

What 3 radiographic findings might you see in a horse with sinking laminitis

A

1) Increased coronary to extensor process distance >15mm

2) Decreased sole depth <11mm

3) Sinker line (visible depression in the coronary band)

156
Q

What can severe chronic laminitis lead to

A

resorption of P3 and a severely misshapen hoof capsule

157
Q

T/F: changes to the navicular bone can be seen without the horse being lame

A

true but lame horses might not have any radiographic changes

158
Q

What are the clinical signs of navicular bone degeneration

A

1) Unilateral/bilateral forelimb lameness/ shortened stride
2) Sensitivity to hoof testers applied to the heel or frog
3) Lameness improves with palmar digital nerve block

159
Q

What block would improve the lameness of a horse with navicular bone degeneration

A

palmar digital nerve block

160
Q

What 5 radiographic changes can be seen in a horse with navicular bone degeneration

A

1) Synovial invagination (Enlargement and rounder shape and increased number)

2) Medullary bone sclerosis

3) Thickening of flexor cortex

4) Irregularity of the flexor cortex

5) Osseous proliferation associated with the attachment of ligaments

161
Q

What might flexor cortex erosions of the navicular bone indicate

A

soft tissue injury

the DDFT and navicular bursa run palmar/plantar to the navicular bone

162
Q

What ligament attaches to the distal aspect of the navicular bone

A

Impar ligament

163
Q

What ligament attaches to the proximal aspect of the navicular bone

A

Collateral sesamoidean ligament

164
Q

What ligamentous changes might help you determine navicular degeneration?

A

At proximal margin, you will see enthesophytes (collateral seasamoidean ligament)

Distal margin (small avulsion fragments) from the Impar ligament

165
Q

foot abscesses in horses can only be seen on radiograph if

A

they are associated with a pocket of gas

166
Q

infection within the subsolar region of the horse’s foot
usually 4/5 lameness and + to hoof test

A

Foot abscess

167
Q

What can cause pedal osteitis in horses

A

foot abscesses
bruising
overtaining
foot deformities

168
Q

Why do you see little periosteal reaction in P3 after injury

A

because it responds differently to inflammation

will see osteolysis generally 10-14 days after the injury

169
Q

What are the radiographic findings in pedal osteitis

A

1) Resorption of solar margin
2) Irregular solar margin
3) Wide vascular channels

170
Q

Is pedal osteitis a descriptive term or diagnosis

A

descriptive term

171
Q

Septic pedal osteitis occurs

A

secondary to a puncture or foot abscess

could also contain a sequestrum

results in focal pedal osteitis

172
Q

benign tumor of keratin of the hoof wall
causes smoothly margined conical bone resorption of P3
can cause deformation of hoof wall

A

Keratoma

173
Q

What causes ungual cartilage mineralization

A

secondary to trauma, poor farriery, ligamentous injury, hereditary

radiolucnet line between ossidied cartilage and the rest of P3 is an area of non-ossified cartilage

174
Q

Why might ungual cartilage mineralization become an issue

A

because if extensive it may lead to a fracture at the base

more common in draft and warmblood horses

175
Q

What 5 views are taken of the fetlock

A

1) DP
2) Lateral
3) Flexed lateral
4+5) Dorsomedial and dorsolateral obliques

+/- special oblique views to highlight the proximal sesamoids

176
Q

What does a flexed lateral of the fetlock expose

A

the dorsal surface of the sagittal ridge of MC3

177
Q

When taking a dorso-palmar view of the fetlock, why do you want to angle downwards 20 degrees

A

because it will high light the proximal sesamoid bones

if taken at true horizontal, then the sesamoid bones are superimposed over the fetlock joint and the proximal phalanx

178
Q

When taking a DLPMO or DMPLO of the fetlock, why do you want to angle down 20 degrees

A

it elevaates the sesamoid bones away from the proximal phalanx

179
Q

The ___ and ____ are known as splint bones in the horse

A

MC 2 and MC4

180
Q

Can you tell the difference between DLPMO and DMPLOs of the fetlock without markers?

A

No- these are almost identical.

radiographic marker placement is crucial to decipher which is which

181
Q

The flexor tendons run _____ the sesamoid bones of the pastern

A

between

182
Q

What are the three types of synovial structures

A

1) Joints
2) Tendon sheaths
3) Bursae

183
Q

What 4 radiograph views are typically taken of the equine metacaprus/metatarsus

A

1) LM
2) DP
3) DMPLO
4) DLPMO

184
Q

What are the differences between primary and secondary osteoarthritis in horses

A

Primary: result of normal wear and tear

Secondary: secondary to trauma, soft tissue injury and instability, prior infection

185
Q

What are the common sites of fetlock osteophytes

A

1) dorsomedial and dorsolateral aspects of P1

2) Proximal and distal aspects of sesamoid bones

3) Palmar processes of P1

186
Q

What will you see with late/severe osteoarthritis in the fetlock joint

A

loss of cartilage resulting in narrowing of the joint space

sunchondral bone sclerossi and/or lucent regions due to demineralization and/or degenerative cystic changes

ankylosis= bone fusion across a joint space (hard to see in the fetlock because there is a lot of motion there)

187
Q

What might the fetlock skyline projection be useful for

A

seeing subchondral bone changes associated with osteoarthritis

188
Q

flattening of the distal palmar articular margin of MC3 with associated sclerosis

A

palmar osteochondral disease

189
Q

palmar osteochondral disease is typically seen in

A

race + sport horses

190
Q

pseudo-flattening of the condyles

A

where there is flattening of the distal palmar articular margin of MC3 but since the condyles are not superimposed, it is not Palmar osteochondral diseases just mal-alignment

191
Q

the proximal sesamoids in the horse is best evaluated in the ______ view

A

oblique progressions

192
Q

What do normal sesamoids of the equine fetlock look like?

A

1) Smooth outer margin of the sesamoid bones
2) Parallel margins of the vascular channels <2mm width

193
Q

What happens with equine fetlcok sesamoiditis?

A

rougher edges of the sesamoid bone margins
vascular channels >2mm width that are funnel shaped instead of parallel

194
Q

With axial sesamoiditis, there are resorptive changes associated with the

A

intersesamoidean ligament enthesopathy

195
Q

irregular lysis on the acial aspect of the sesamoid bones
associated with interseasmoidean ligament enthesopathy
can be non-septic or septic process

A

Axial sesamoiditis

196
Q

If you see axial sesamoiditis, what should you start taking into account

A

is there a septic process going on?

This is unlike normal sesamoiditis

197
Q

proximal sesamoid fractures are commonly seen in horses that are

A

athletic, commonly in racehorses

198
Q

What is commonly referred to as chip fractures in horses

A

Dorsal proximal P1 fractures

199
Q

What kind of fracture results in overextension of the fetlock

A

Dorsal proximal P1 fracture

200
Q

Dorsal proximal P1 fracture

A

Chip factures
result in overextension of the fetlock
can also be osteochondrosis lesions (typically seen in warmbloods) -developmental
hard to differentiate in chronic stage

201
Q

How do you differentiate acute fractures from chronic ones

A

Acute: sharp margins

Chronic: rounded margins

202
Q

MC3/MT3 condylar fractures are most common in

A

racehorses

203
Q

are MC3 or MT3 fractures more common in thoroughbred horses?

A

MC3 >MT3

204
Q

Are MC3 or MT3 fractures more common in standardbred horses?

A

MC3 = MT3

205
Q

What is the best view to see MC3/MT3 condylar fractures?

A

Flexed DP or 125DP

hard to see in standard projections esp if not propagated

206
Q

“Bucked shins”

A

periostitis of dorsal MC3 diaphysis
-nonadapative remodeling, can lead to stress fractures (saucer fractures)
most common in racehorses
generally occur in forelimbs
microfractures and subperiosteal hemorrheage occuring leading to subperiosteal callus formation

207
Q

What is another name for periostitis of dorsal MC3 diaphysis

A

Bucked shins

208
Q

What are the second and fourth metacarpals/metatarsals called

A

Splint bones

209
Q

acute manifestation of chronic periostitis

A

stress fractures

210
Q

what might you have to do to visualize stress fractures

A

may have to take multiple oblique projections at slightly different angles to visualize the fracture

211
Q

periostitis

A

non-adaptive remodeling that can lead to stress fractures

generally occur in forelimbs

microfractures and subperiosteal hemorrhage occur leading to subperiosteal callus formation

212
Q

Splint bone fractures that are in the proximal half are likely to be caused by _______ while the distal half are likely related to ______

A

Proximal: secondary to trauma (comminuted)

Distal: Suspensory injury

213
Q

What is “Splints”

A

Reactive Periositis
-secondary to trauma (hitting MC2 with the contralateral foot) or secondary strain on the interosseous ligament leading to remodeling of bone

-Can look similar to callus formation from a healing/healed prior fracture

more common medial than lateral

more common in forelimbs

can be active or inactive

214
Q

What might cause reactive periositis “Splints”

A

1) secondary to trauma (hitting MC2 with the contralateral foot) 2) Secondary strain on the interosseous ligament leading to remodeling of bone

215
Q

Are splints more likely to be medial or lateral

A

medial

216
Q

are splints more common in forelimb or hindlimb

A

forelimb

217
Q

With joint sepsis, bone changes on radiographs can lag by

A

10-14 days

218
Q

a sclerotic piece of bone

A

sequestrum

219
Q

a radiolucent region of bone

A

involcrum

220
Q

Why are MC3/MT3 susceptible to sequestrum formation?

A

because there is a lack of soft tissue there, making the susceptible to rauma
when there is an injury to the outer surface of the bone from a wound or blunt trauma it may cause loss of periosteal blood supply resulting in death to the outer 1/3 cortex leading to sequestrum formation

221
Q

Where is a typical place to see OC/OCD in the fetlock joint?

A

1) sagittal ridge of MC3
2) Palmar/Plantar P1 region

222
Q

What is the best view to see OC/OCD of the sagittal ridge of MC3

A

LM or flexed LM

223
Q

when might you see an attached fragment or a fragment that is free in the joint space

A

osteochondritis dissecans (OCD)

224
Q

T/F: you may see incidental findings associated with OC/OCD of the fetlock

A

true- there may be mild flattening or defects without sclerosis or fragments

225
Q

are palmar/plantar P1 osteochondral fragments more common in the forelimbs or hindlimbs?

A

hindlimbs

226
Q

What is the best view to see palmar/plantar osteochondral P1 fragments?

A

obliques- moves the sesamoids up

harder to see on lateral projections

227
Q

palmar/plantar osteochondral P1 fragments are likely caused by

A

either
1) OCD
2) avulsions fragments associated with ligaments that insert in that area

228
Q

what should be aware of that looks like a bone fragment

A

the ergot

229
Q

chronic condition where there is inflammation in the fetlock with proliferation of the synovial tissues

A

chronic proliferative synovitis

230
Q

What do you see with chronic proliferative synovitis?

A

smooth bone resorption along the dorsal and palmar aspects of the condyle

osseous changes
1) sclerosis
2) resorption
3) avulsion fragments

231
Q

What radiographic changes are seen with suspensory ligament enthesopathy

A

1) Sclerosis: enlarged suspensory ligament w irregular bone proliferation (increased uptake)
2) Bone resorption
3) Avulsion fragments

232
Q

Injury to the suspensory ligament can affect

A

1) SL only
2) SL and bone
3) Bone only

233
Q

What is suspensory ligament enthesopathy

A

injury to the suspensory ligament. can affect SL only, SL and bone, or bone only

leads to osseous changes
1) Sclerosis: enlarged suspensory ligament w irregular bone proliferation (increased uptake)
2) Bone resorption
3) Avulsion fragments

234
Q

What are the standard images taken of the equine carpus

A

1) lateromedial
2) flexed lateromedial
3) DP
4) DLPMO
5) DMPLO

235
Q

When taking a flexed lateromedial view of the equine carpal, what 2 bones go higher than the others

A

1) Intermediate carpal bone
2) 4th carpal bone

236
Q

What is being highlighted in the DLPMO view of the equine carpus?

A

the palmarlateral and dorsomedial highlighted

237
Q

What is being highlighted in the DMPLO view of the equine carpus?

A

the dorsolateral and palmarmedial highlighted

238
Q

is the accessory carpal bone more radiodense in the DLPMO or DMPLO?

A

DLPMO

239
Q

How do you know youve achieved good positioning for a DLPMO equine carpal bone rad

A

space between MC3 and MC4

240
Q

What carpal bone is being highlighted in the DLPMO of equine carpus

A

the radiocarpal bone

it is the most medial and this view highlights dorsomedial

241
Q

What carpal bone is being highlighted in the DMPLO view of the equine carpus

A

the intermediate carpal bone

242
Q

C1 in horses is present about

A

30% of the time

dont confuse with fragments

243
Q

C5 in horses is present about

A

2% of the time

dont confuse with fragments

244
Q

What do the 3 dorsoproximal-dorsodistal obliques highlight in the equine carpus?

A

1) Distal Radius
2) Proximal Row of carpal bones
3) Distal Row of carpal bones

*Common area of sclerosis in racehorses
optional to look for sclerosis or fracture

245
Q

What are early osteoarthritis changes seen in the carpus

A

1) Increased intracapsular soft tissue
2) Osteophyte production
3) Enthesophyte production
4) Effusion

246
Q

What are late osteoarthritis changes seen in the carpus

A

1) Narrowing of joint space
2) Cystic areas in subchondral boen
3) Ankylosis

247
Q

How do you distinguish between intra vs extra-capsular swelling of the equine carpus

A

look at the position of the fat pad

if dorsal displacement = effusion/synovial proliferation

*Intracapsular fluid may be determined on the lateral projection by assessment of the dorsal fat pads of the antebrachiocarpal and middle carpal joints

248
Q

What will you see with dorsal enthesophytes of the equine carpus

A

1) loss of fat pad
2) extracapsular swelling

249
Q

What is a common site on the 3rd carpal bone of horses to see sclerosis

A

the radial facet

250
Q

Sclerosis of the 3rd carpal bone is common in

A

1) racehourses
2) young TB in training (remodeling)

excessive sclerosis predisposes to fracture

251
Q

What could result due to sclerosis of the 3rd carpal bone?

A

Fracture

252
Q

What does sclerosis of the 3rd carpal bone in horses look like

A

there is no distinction between cortical and medullary bone

most common place is at the radial facet

253
Q

What causes carpal bone fractures in horses

A

repetitive forceful trauma
hyperextension injury

254
Q

What are the two kinds of carpal bone fractures?

A

1- Marginal Bone Fractures (Chip/Corner fx): occur at periarticular margins of carpal bones. Involves one subchondral bone surface

2- Slab: fracture extends through a carpal bone. Involves two another articular surface

255
Q

How many articular surfaces do marginal carpal bone fractures include

A

one subchondral bone surface

256
Q

How many articular surfaces do slab carpal bone fractures include

A

fracture extends through the carpal bone
involves two another articular surface

257
Q

fractures of the carpal bone that occur at the periarticular margins of carpal bones
involves one subchondral bone surfaces

A

Marginal fractures

258
Q

fractures of the carpal bone that extends through a carpal bone
involves two another articular surface

A

slab fractures

259
Q

What will you see in chronic vs acute marginal carpal bone fracture

A

Acute: sharp angular margin, regional soft tissue swelling

Chronic: Rounded smooth margins +/- adjacent bone resoprtion +/- rim of sclerosis

260
Q

How do you see C3 slab fractures

A

may need obliques to find the fracture
may only see on skyline (30%)

261
Q

What should be aware of when evaluating the equine carpus to not confuse it with a fracture

A

Ulnar lateral styloid process

an ulnar remnant that fuses with the radius
incomplete fusion leads to a radiolucent line where it didnt fuse correctly
normal anatomical variant

262
Q

an ulnar remnant that fuses with the radius
incomplete fusion leads to a radiolucent line where it didnt fuse correctly
normal anatomical variant

A

Ulnar lateral styloid process

263
Q

what might cause avulsion carpal fractures in the horse

A

from the lateral palmar intercarpal ligament
most often incidental

264
Q

What view is best to see avulsion carpal fractures

A

DP and DLPMO views

265
Q

the most common fracture sites of the equine carpus are all

A

DORSAL

Antebrachiocarpal joint
1. Proximal intermediate CB
2. Proximal Radial CB
3. Distal medial radius

Middle Carpal joint
1. Distal Radial CB
2. Distal Intermediate CB
3. Proximal third CB

266
Q

What are the most common fracture sites of the equine carpus

A

Antebrachiocarpal joint
1. Proximal intermediate CB
2. Proximal Radial CB
3. Distal medial radius

Middle Carpal joint
1. Distal Radial CB
2. Distal Intermediate CB
3. Proximal third CB

all are dorsal

267
Q

what makes an osseous cyst like lesion clinical

A

if it communicates with the articular space,

otherwise it is usually incidental and not associated with lameness

268
Q

Why are horses with osseous cyst like lesions in the carpus not typically lame

A

cysts seen in 2nd, ulnar, radial carpal bones are ofthe deep and in bone and insignificant

ulnar cysts like lesions may be incidental- usually associated with rhe lateral intercarpal ligament

can be clinical if communicate with articular surface

269
Q

bony protrusions occassionally seen on the caudal aspect of the distal radius along midline

A

can be either osteochondromas or exostosis

270
Q

Osteochondromas tend to be ______ to the physis while exostosis is ______ to the physis

A

Osteochondromas: cartilage capped exostosis, proximal to the physis

Exostosis: at the level of the physis

271
Q

What are radiographic signs of equine infection

A

-Soft tissue swelling
-Effusion
-Irregular subchondral radiolucencies
+/- periosteal proliferation
+/- degenerative joint disease

272
Q

What are the major differences between foal and adult septic joints

A

Foal: Hematogenous

Adult: Direct inoculation

273
Q

how is valgus and vargus named

A

around the joint

ex: carpal valgus

274
Q

an angular limb deformity where the carpus is located more medially and the limb is angled outwards

A

carpal valgus

274
Q

What are different causes of carpal angular limb deformities in foals

A

-Ligamentous
-Differential growth (physis)
-Differential growth (Epiphysis)
-Differential growth (carpal bones)
-Carpal bone collapse/crush injury

*Often a combination of these

275
Q

T/F: the are abnormally shaped cuboidal bones in ligamentous angular limb deformities

A

False- normal bones, just mild to moderate incomplete ossification

275
Q

mild to moderate incomplete ossification of the cuboidal bones (resulting in wider joints)

A

ligamentous angular limb deformities

276
Q

ligamentous angular limb deformities

A

mild to moderate incomplete ossification of the cuboidal bones (resulting in wider joints), not supporting joints appropiately

normally shaped cuboidal bones

normal epiphysis/physis

277
Q

how can incomplete ossification lead to angular limb deformities

A

when the animal goes to bear weight it will put pressure and lead to deformities

poor prognosis

278
Q

What are the three standard radiographs in the equine stifle

A

1) Lateromedial
2) Caudocranial
3) Caudo45lateral- craniomedial-oblique

279
Q

Why are caudocranial projection done in horse stifles

A

Because it is easier to have the plate on the cranial aspect of the stifle

280
Q

How many patellar ligaments do horses have

A

3 (dogs just have 1)

horses have 3 and asymmetrical trochlear ridge to lock patella in place

281
Q

The cranioproximal-Craniodistal oblique of the equine stifle is also called the

A

Skyline Patella

282
Q

What are other non-standard equine stifle radiograph views you may do

A

1) Cranioproximal- Craniodistal oblique (Skyline Patella)

2) Flexed lateromedial oblique- highltinging medial trochlea

283
Q

What trochlea is larger in the horse stifle

A

medial trochlea

284
Q

What are the three joints spaces that make up the equine stifle

A

1) Femoropatellar joint
2) Medial femorotibial joint
3) Lateral femorotibial joint

Made of the synovial structures: Joints, tendon sheaths, bursae

285
Q

fluid-filled sacs that cushion and lubricate the body’s joints and muscles, allowing for smooth movement.

A

bursae

286
Q

a protective layer of connective tissue that surrounds some tendons in the body.

A

tendon sheath

287
Q

What are radiographic findings of the equine stifle that you can see on radiographs

A

1) Joint space narrowing (possibly damage to meniscus or
2) Osteophyte production (medial is most common)
3) Joint capsule enthesopathy (where the joint capsule inserts)
4) smooth bone resorption at the medial condyle

288
Q

With osteoarthritis of the equine stifle, it is most common to see ostephyte production on what aspect

A

the medial aspect -

289
Q

With osteoarthrosis of the equine stifle, where do you typically see smooth bone resorption

A

medial epicondyle

290
Q

What might cause artificial narrowing of the equine stifle

A

if taken at an incorrect angle

291
Q

What equine joint capsules communicate>

A

Femoropatellar joint capsule communicates with the medial femorotibial joint capsule
and the lateral femorotibial joint capsule (25%)

Medial and lateral femorotibial joint capsules do not communicate

292
Q

T/F: Medial and lateral femorotibial joint capsules communicate with each other

A

False

293
Q

T/F: Femoropatellar joint capsule communicates with the medial femorotibial joint capsule

A

True

294
Q

T/F: Femoropatellar joint capsule communicates with the lateral femorotibial joint capsule

A

True- but only in 25%

295
Q

Is the fibula lateral or medial to the tibula

A

lateral

296
Q

is the medial or lateral tibial eminence taller

A

medial

297
Q

Why is it hard to see effusion/synovitis in equine stifle

A

because there is increased intracapsular soft tissue volume

298
Q

What are the two manifestations of equine stifle osteochondrosis

A

1) Osteochondrosis of femoral trochlear ridge and patella

2) Osseous cyst-like lesions of the medial femoral condyle (Cyst like lesions may result from trauma)

299
Q

In osteochondrosis of the equine stifle, cyst-like lesions are most commonly seen on the

A

1)medial femoral condyle
2) Medial tibial condyle
3) LFC (rare)

(may result from trauma)

300
Q

Are cyst-like lesions more common in the medial femoral condyle or lateral femoral condyle

A

medial femoral condyle

301
Q

In equine stifle osteochondrosis, where do you typically see fragmentation/ concave defects

A

1) Lateral femoral trochlea
2) Patella
3) Medial femoral trochlea

302
Q

a manifestations of equine stifle osteochondrosis
most common site for a subchondral bone cyst
often bilateral so take rads of contralateral stifle
can be articular or nonarticular

A

Medial Femoral condyle osseous cyst like lesion

303
Q

What should you do if you notice an osseous-cyst like lesion of the medial femoral condyle in a horse

A

take rads of the other stifle because 50-60% of the time is bilateral

304
Q

What is the best view to screen for common OC lesions in the horse stifle

A

Caudolateral-craniomedial oblique

this view highlights the lateral trochlear ridge and medial femoral condyle

305
Q

What are the two most common osteochondrosis sites of the equine stifle

A

1) Medial femoral condyle cyst like lesions
2) Lateral femoral trochlea fragmentation / concave defects

If you had to choose one 1 view to screen for OC then do the Caudolateral-craniomedial oblique view

306
Q

What appearance does the foal’s stifle look like?

A

irregular trochlear ridges - require 6-9 months for ossification (dont not confuse with osteomyelitis)

tibial apophysis and patella can also be irregular

radiograph the other limbs to compare

307
Q

When do the foal’s trochlear ridges ossify

A

6-9 months

308
Q

What might you see on radiographs that might tell you a foal has a septic joint

A

Soft tissue swelling
+/- gas
+/- bone lysis

309
Q

Where do equine tibial stress fractures typically occur

A

mid to distal diaphysis

may not see radiographic changes initially

310
Q

T/F: tibial eminence fractures in horses are avulsion fragments

A

False

311
Q

What are the 4 standard routine tarsus views in equine

A

1) Lateral
2) DP
3) DMPLO
4) DLPMO

312
Q

Is the calcaneous medially or laterally located

A

laterally

313
Q

In what view do you see larry’s nose (lateral trochlea) of the equine tarsus

A

DMPLO

314
Q

What are optional equine tarsal radiographs you can take

A

1) Flexed Skyline
2) Flexed lateral

315
Q

What is a flexed lateral tarsus view of equine tarsus important for

A

to exposes more of the trochlea of the talus

316
Q

What structure runs over the sustentaculum tali

A

*DDFT (runs medially)

while the SSFT runs over the top of the calcaneous

317
Q

The horses has _____ calcaneal bursa

A

3 (runs between SSFT and calcaneous)

318
Q

osteoarthritis/ osteoarthrosis of the distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints

A

Bone Spavin

319
Q

Bone spavin is osteoarthritis/osis of the

A

distal intertarsal and tarsometatarsal joints

320
Q

What is most common location of osteoarthritis of the tarsus

A

dorsomedial

321
Q

Osteoarthritis of the tarsus is more likely to show clinical signs if it

A

is located proximately

322
Q

What are different degenerative changes seen in the equine tarsus osteoarthrosis

A

1) Medullary and subchondral bone sclerosis
2) Subchondral blone lysis/erosive changes/resorption
3) Periarticular ostephytes
4) Joint collapse/fusion: ankylosis

323
Q

What are the different joint spaces in the equine tarsus

A

1) Talocalcaneal
2) Proximal intertarsal
3) Distal intertarsal
4) Tarsometatarsal

324
Q

What two joints of the equine tarsus communicate with each other

A

Tarsocrural and proximal intertarsal joint

Distal intertarsal joint and tarsometatarsal joint

325
Q

what is seen in early septic arthritis

A

marked intracapsular swelling

326
Q

What is one of the most commonly affected joints in the horse for osteochondrosis

A

Tarsocrural joint and stifle

327
Q

What are the most common sites to see equine osteochondrosis of the tarsocrural joints

A

1) Distal intermediate ridge of tibia (DIRT)
2) Lateral trochlear ridge of talus
3) Medial malleous > lateral malleoulus
4) Medial trochlear ridge of the talus

328
Q

What is the most common place to see osteochondrosis in the tarsocrural joint of a horse

A

Distal intermediate ridge of tibia (DIRT)

329
Q

What is the second most common place to see osteochondrosis in the tarsocrural joint of a horse

A

Lateral trochlear ridge of talus

330
Q

If you could only take one view to screen for the two most common OC lesions of the equine tarsus, what would you pick

A

DMPLO-

This highlights distal intermediate ridge of the tibia and the lateral trochlear ridge

331
Q

IS OCD more common in the lateral or medial malleolus in horses

A

Medial malleolus

332
Q

What view do you need to detect a horse with OCD of the medial malleoulus

A

Dorso10lateral- plantaromedial oblique

333
Q

fractures of the tarsus are generally rare but when they occur they are

A

1) slab fractures of the third and central tarsal bones

2) stress fractures of tibia cochlea

3) traumatic calcaneus fractures

4) avulsion fractures associated with collateral fragments

334
Q
A

DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING (16 decks)

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