Small Animal Musculoskeletal Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

how should OFA positioning be?

A

limbs parallel to body
stifles at same level
look at obturator foramen, ischiatic tuberosity, patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what can be seen with hip degenerative joint disease on a radiograph?

A

periarticular new bone formation
remodeling
thickening
poor coverage of femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the hip dysplasia scoring system for excellent?

A

> 75% coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the hip dysplasia scoring system for good?

A

60-75% coverage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the hip dysplasia scoring system for fair?

A

no laxity
minor osteophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is mild dysplasia?

A

40%
degenerative joint disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is moderate dysplasia?

A

25-40%
degenerative joint disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is severe dysplasia?

A

<25%
degenerative joint disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what dysplastic changes can be seen with hip dysplasia with mild degenerative joint disease?

A

abnormal C shape of acetabulum (too open)
poor coverage of femoral head
divergent joint space articular surfaces should be parallel to each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what degenerative joint disease changes can be seen with hip dysplasia with mild degenerative joint disease?

A

mild new bone formation at femoral neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are findings of hip dysplasia with no degenerative joint disease?

A

incongruity of femoral head and acetabulum
subluxation of femoral head
flattened head
shallow acetabulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

who is panosteitis most common in?

A

rapidly growing large dogs
3-18 months old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the clinical signs of panosteitis?

A

shifting leg lameness
fever
anorexia
pain on palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the radiographic findings of panosteitis?

A

patchy medullary opacities of long bones
periosteal reaction also seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

who is hypertrophic osteodystrophy most common in?

A

2-4 month old large breed dogs
maybe nutritional etiology
maybe infectious etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the early findings of hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

radiolucent band in the affected metaphysis of a long bone
represents demineralization

17
Q

what are the late findings of hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

new bone formation surrounding affected metaphysis
growth arrest

18
Q

who does avascular (aseptic) necrosis of the femoral head occur in?

A

miniature breeds
usually unilateral
3-11 month old dogs

19
Q

what are the early findings of avascular/aseptic necrosis of the femoral head?

A

apple core appearance of femoral neck
increased or decreased head opacity

20
Q

what are the late findings of avascular/aseptic necrosis of the femoral head?

A

irregular, flattened, collapsed femoral head
acetabular remodeling
lucencies in femoral neck

21
Q

who does retained cartilaginous core occur in?

A

giant breeds

22
Q

what can retained cartilaginous cores cause?

A

angular limb deformities

23
Q

what are the findings for retained cartilaginous cores?

A

triangular lucent cores in the distal ulnar growth plates